CNS -- Pharmacology -- (Adds + Apds + Aeds)
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
This is a side effect of a CNS drug.
- 2.
What is this manifestation called ?!
- 3.
Which neurotransmitter is involved in it?
- 4.
Name 2 drugs that may cause this manifestation.
- 5.
Mention 2 characteristic side effects for Phenytoin.
- 6.
Mention the effect of (Carbamazepine, Phenytoin & Valproate) on hepatic CytP450.
- 7.
Enumerate the steps of emergency control over Status Epilepticus respectively.
- 8.
Abnormal excessive secretion of milk from breasts in females is called:
- A.
Amenorrhea
- B.
Galactorrhea
- C.
Gynecomastia
- D.
Libido
Correct Answer
B. GalactorrheaExplanation
Galactorrhea is the correct answer because it refers to the abnormal excessive secretion of milk from the breasts in females. This condition can occur due to hormonal imbalances, certain medications, or underlying medical conditions. Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstrual periods, gynecomastia is the enlargement of breast tissue in males, and libido refers to a person's sexual desire.Rate this question:
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- 9.
According to the image, this abnormal sign in males is a side effect of a group of CNS drugs.What is the most probable answer:
- A.
Fluoxetine..​
- B.
Chlorpromazine.
- C.
Imipramine.
- D.
Clozapine.
Correct Answer
B. Chlorpromazine.Explanation
The most probable answer is Chlorpromazine because it is a CNS drug known to have side effects that can cause abnormal signs in males. Fluoxetine, Imipramine, and Clozapine are also CNS drugs, but there is no evidence or indication in the question or image that suggests they cause the specific abnormal sign mentioned.Rate this question:
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- 10.
All of the following are neuroleptic drugs except:
- A.
Lamotrigine
- B.
Thioxanthenes
- C.
Clozapine
- D.
Haloperidol.
Correct Answer
A. LamotrigineExplanation
Lamotrigine is not classified as a neuroleptic drug because it does not primarily act on dopamine receptors in the brain. Neuroleptic drugs, such as thioxanthenes, clozapine, and haloperidol, are commonly used to treat psychiatric disorders by blocking dopamine receptors. Lamotrigine, on the other hand, is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder by stabilizing neuronal membranes and inhibiting the release of glutamate. Therefore, lamotrigine does not belong to the neuroleptic drug class.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Lithium is very beneficial in treating mood swings in manic-depressive disorders but it has serious side effects which include the following except:
- A.
Sick-Sinus syndrome.
- B.
Edema.
- C.
Polyuria
- D.
Increased thyroid function
Correct Answer
D. Increased thyroid functionExplanation
Lithium is commonly used to treat mood swings in manic-depressive disorders. However, it is known to have serious side effects. One of these side effects is increased thyroid function. This means that lithium can cause the thyroid gland to become overactive, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, increased heart rate, and anxiety. The other options listed, sick-sinus syndrome, edema, and polyuria, are all potential side effects of lithium treatment.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Down-regulation of 5-HT2A receptors is a target for the following drug/s: (you can choose more than one)
- A.
Fluoxetine
- B.
Chlorpromazine
- C.
Risperidone
- D.
Bupropion
Correct Answer(s)
A. Fluoxetine
C. RisperidoneExplanation
Remember that I told you to choose more than one ;)Rate this question:
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- 13.
The following drug inhibits the re-uptake of Dopamine:
- A.
Amitriptyline.
- B.
Bupropion
- C.
Venlafaxine
- D.
Sertraline
Correct Answer
B. BupropionExplanation
Bupropion is the correct answer because it is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI), meaning it inhibits the reuptake of both norepinephrine and dopamine. This action increases the levels of dopamine in the brain, which can help improve mood and alleviate symptoms of depression. Amitriptyline, Venlafaxine, and Sertraline are not specifically known for inhibiting the reuptake of dopamine.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The following is a drug which blocks the re-uptake of Noradrenaline but has no alpha-adrenergic blocking effect:
- A.
Imipramine.
- B.
Amitriptyline.
- C.
Citalopram.
- D.
Venlafaxine.
Correct Answer
D. Venlafaxine.Explanation
Venlafaxine is the correct answer because it is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) that primarily blocks the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine. It does not have significant alpha-adrenergic blocking effects, unlike Imipramine and Amitriptyline which are tricyclic antidepressants that have both norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibition as well as alpha-adrenergic blocking effects. Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and does not have any noradrenergic effects.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Reflex tachycardia is a serious problem for a 62-year-old patient after ingestion of the following drug/s:(you can choose more than one)
- A.
Paroxetine
- B.
Imipramine
- C.
Chlorpromazine
- D.
Tranylcypromine
Correct Answer(s)
B. Imipramine
C. ChlorpromazineExplanation
Imipramine and chlorpromazine are both known to cause reflex tachycardia as a side effect. Reflex tachycardia is an increase in heart rate that occurs as a compensatory response to a drop in blood pressure. Imipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to reflex tachycardia. Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication that can also cause orthostatic hypotension and subsequent reflex tachycardia. Paroxetine and tranylcypromine are not typically associated with reflex tachycardia.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Choose 2 drugs that their combination may cause serotonin syndrome.
- A.
Fluvoxamine
- B.
Imipramine
- C.
Tranylcipromine
- D.
MAO-B inhibitor
Correct Answer(s)
A. Fluvoxamine
C. TranylcipromineExplanation
Fluvoxamine and tranylcipromine are both drugs that can inhibit the reuptake of serotonin in the brain. When these drugs are used in combination, there is an increased risk of serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by excessive levels of serotonin in the body. Serotonin syndrome can cause symptoms such as agitation, confusion, rapid heartbeat, high blood pressure, dilated pupils, and even seizures. Therefore, it is important to avoid combining these two drugs to prevent the occurrence of serotonin syndrome.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Combination between Bupropion and Tranylcipromine may cause hypertensive crisis.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The combination of Bupropion and Tranylcipromine can result in a hypertensive crisis. This means that when these two medications are taken together, it can lead to a dangerous increase in blood pressure. It is important to avoid this combination as it can have severe health consequences.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The anti-depressant drug which is still approved to be used in all ages is:
- A.
Imipramine.
- B.
Fluoxetine.
- C.
Venlafaxine.
- D.
Chlorpromazine.
Correct Answer
B. Fluoxetine.Explanation
Fluoxetine is the correct answer because it is an anti-depressant drug that is approved for use in all age groups. Imipramine is also an anti-depressant drug, but it is not approved for use in children. Venlafaxine is approved for use in adults, but not in children or adolescents. Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication, not an anti-depressant. Therefore, Fluoxetine is the only option that is approved for use in all ages.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Orthostatic hypotension is a side effect of the following drugs except:
- A.
Bupropion
- B.
Amitriptyline
- C.
Phenothiazines
- D.
Thioxanthenes
Correct Answer
A. BupropionExplanation
Orthostatic hypotension is a condition characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position. This can cause symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, and fainting. Bupropion is a medication commonly used for the treatment of depression and smoking cessation. It does not typically cause orthostatic hypotension as a side effect. On the other hand, amitriptyline, phenothiazines, and thioxanthenes are all classes of medications that can potentially cause orthostatic hypotension.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Neuroleptanalgesia is produced by which combination:
- A.
Chlorpromazine + Haloperidol
- B.
Risperidone + Phenothiazine
- C.
Droperidol + Fentanyl
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Droperidol + FentanylExplanation
Droperidol is a neuroleptic medication that acts as a tranquilizer, reducing anxiety and inducing sedation. Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic that provides pain relief. When combined, droperidol and fentanyl produce neuroleptanalgesia, a state of reduced pain and anxiety. This combination is commonly used in medical procedures and surgeries to provide both sedation and analgesia to patients.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the most probable CNS drug to cause insulin resistance:
- A.
Imipramine
- B.
Chlorpromazine
- C.
Phenytoin
- D.
Clozapine
Correct Answer
D. ClozapineExplanation
Clozapine is the most probable CNS drug to cause insulin resistance. Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication commonly used to treat schizophrenia. It has been associated with an increased risk of metabolic side effects, including weight gain, dyslipidemia, and insulin resistance. Insulin resistance is a condition in which the body's cells become less responsive to the effects of insulin, leading to elevated blood sugar levels. This can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Therefore, among the given options, clozapine is the most likely CNS drug to cause insulin resistance.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A 33-year-old epileptic patient which is recently diagnosed for negative signs of schizophrenia.The following combination is highly recommended:
- A.
Tegretol + Risperidone.
- B.
Carbamazepine + Clozapine.
- C.
Valproate + Chlorpromazine.
- D.
Valproate + Haloperidol.
Correct Answer
A. Tegretol + Risperidone.Explanation
The combination of Tegretol and Risperidone is highly recommended for the given patient. Tegretol (Carbamazepine) is an anticonvulsant medication commonly used to treat epilepsy. It can also be effective in managing symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly negative signs such as social withdrawal and lack of motivation. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic medication often prescribed for schizophrenia. It helps to reduce positive symptoms like hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the combination of Tegretol and Risperidone can address both the epilepsy and negative signs of schizophrenia in the patient.Rate this question:
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- 23.
T-type calcium channels are blocked by the following drug/s:(you may choose more than one)
- A.
Carbamazepine
- B.
Lamotrigine
- C.
Ethosuximide
- D.
Depakene
Correct Answer(s)
C. Ethosuximide
D. DepakeneExplanation
Ethosuximide and Depakene are both known to block T-type calcium channels. T-type calcium channels are low voltage-activated calcium channels that play a role in regulating neuronal excitability. Blocking these channels can help reduce abnormal electrical activity in the brain, making them effective in the treatment of certain types of seizures. Carbamazepine and Lamotrigine, on the other hand, do not specifically target T-type calcium channels and have different mechanisms of action in the treatment of seizures.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Ethusoximide exerts its anti-epileptic effect at which area of the brain:
- A.
Thalamus
- B.
Area of relay of thalamic neurons in the cortex
- C.
Basal ganglia
- D.
Brain stem
Correct Answer
B. Area of relay of thalamic neurons in the cortexExplanation
Ethusoximide exerts its anti-epileptic effect at the area of relay of thalamic neurons in the cortex. This means that the drug targets the specific region in the cortex where thalamic neurons relay information. By acting on this area, ethusoximide is able to regulate the transmission of signals and prevent abnormal electrical activity that leads to seizures. The drug's mechanism of action in this specific brain region helps to control and reduce epileptic episodes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The following drug is approved for first-line treatment of absence seizures when Ethusoximide is not available:
- A.
Tegretol
- B.
Depakene
- C.
Phenytoin
- D.
Lamotrigine
Correct Answer
B. DepakeneExplanation
Depakene is the correct answer because it is approved for first-line treatment of absence seizures when Ethusoximide is not available. Depakene, also known as valproic acid, is an anticonvulsant medication that is effective in controlling absence seizures. It works by increasing the levels of a neurotransmitter called gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures. Tegretol, Phenytoin, and Lamotrigine are also anticonvulsant medications, but they are not specifically approved for the treatment of absence seizures when Ethusoximide is not available.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Thrombocytopenia may result from the chronic use of the following drug/s:(you may choose more than one)
- A.
Valproate
- B.
Phenytoin
- C.
Carbamazepine
- D.
Lamotrigine
Correct Answer(s)
A. Valproate
C. CarbamazepineExplanation
Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count in the blood. Valproate and carbamazepine are both anticonvulsant medications that have been associated with thrombocytopenia as a potential side effect. These drugs can suppress the production of platelets in the bone marrow or cause immune-mediated destruction of platelets. Phenytoin and lamotrigine, on the other hand, are not commonly associated with thrombocytopenia. Therefore, the chronic use of valproate and carbamazepine can lead to thrombocytopenia.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Influenza-like symptoms may result after ingestion of:
- A.
Carbamazepine
- B.
Phenytoin
- C.
Lamotrigine
- D.
Valproate
Correct Answer
C. LamotrigineExplanation
Lamotrigine is an anticonvulsant medication commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. While it is generally well-tolerated, some individuals may experience side effects, including influenza-like symptoms such as fever, body aches, and fatigue. This can occur as a result of an allergic reaction or hypersensitivity to the medication. It is important to monitor for these symptoms and consult a healthcare professional if they occur.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The following drug is most probable choice of all to treat tonic-clonic seizures
- A.
Tegretol
- B.
Dilantin
- C.
Depakene
- D.
Ethusoximide
Correct Answer
C. DepakeneExplanation
Depakene is the most probable choice to treat tonic-clonic seizures because it is commonly prescribed for this type of seizure. It is an anticonvulsant medication that works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, preventing seizures. Tegretol and Dilantin are also anticonvulsant medications, but they are typically used for different types of seizures. Ethosuximide is primarily used to treat absence seizures, not tonic-clonic seizures. Therefore, Depakene is the most appropriate choice for treating tonic-clonic seizures.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Immunosupression may be a side effect of the following drug/s:(you may choose more than one)
- A.
Phenytoin
- B.
Clozapine
- C.
Carbamazepine
- D.
Lamotrigine
Correct Answer(s)
B. Clozapine
C. CarbamazepineExplanation
Clozapine and Carbamazepine can both cause immunosuppression as a side effect. Clozapine is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia, and it can suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It can also have immunosuppressive effects, reducing the body's ability to fight off infections. Phenytoin and Lamotrigine, on the other hand, do not typically cause immunosuppression as a side effect.Rate this question:
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May 10, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Dec 16, 2016Quiz Created by
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