1.
WHAT ARE THE ROLES OF THE BLOOD VESSELS IN HEMOSTASIS
Correct Answer(s)
A. VASOCONSTRICTION
B. COLLAGEN EXPOSED IN DAMAGED BLOOD VESSEL PLAYS AN IMPORTANT ROLE IN PLATELET ACTIVATION
Explanation
The roles of blood vessels in hemostasis include vasoconstriction and the exposure of collagen in damaged blood vessels. Vasoconstriction helps to reduce blood flow to the site of injury, which helps to minimize bleeding. The exposure of collagen in damaged blood vessels triggers platelet activation, leading to the formation of a platelet plug to further prevent bleeding.
2.
NAME THE FOUR INTERRELATED AND INTERDEPENDENT SYSTEMS INVOLVED IN HEMOSTASIS
Correct Answer(s)
A. THE BLOOD VESSELS
C. BLOOD COAGULATION FACTORS
D. FIBRINOLYSIS
E. PLATELETS
Explanation
The four interrelated and interdependent systems involved in hemostasis are the blood vessels, blood coagulation factors, fibrinolysis, and platelets. Hemostasis is the process of stopping bleeding, and these systems work together to achieve this. The blood vessels play a crucial role in constricting to reduce blood flow and prevent excessive bleeding. Blood coagulation factors are proteins that form a clot to seal the injured blood vessel. Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down the clot once the injury is healed. Platelets are small cell fragments that help in clot formation and also release factors that promote healing.
3.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CAN BE LIFE THREATENING
Correct Answer
C. BOTH
Explanation
Both hemorrhage and excessive clotting can be life-threatening. Hemorrhage refers to excessive bleeding, which can lead to severe blood loss and potentially result in organ damage or death if not treated promptly. On the other hand, excessive clotting, also known as thrombosis, can cause blockages in blood vessels, leading to serious complications such as heart attack, stroke, or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, both conditions pose a significant risk to a person's life if not managed appropriately.
4.
THE AVERAGE LIFESPAN OF PLATELETS IN CIRCULATION IS
Correct Answer
C. 7-10DAYS
Explanation
Platelets are small cell fragments in the blood that play a crucial role in clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. They are produced in the bone marrow and circulate in the bloodstream for a limited period of time. The correct answer is 7-10 days because platelets have a short lifespan and are constantly being replaced by new ones. After this time, they are removed from circulation and broken down by the spleen and liver. This short lifespan ensures that the body always has a fresh supply of platelets to maintain proper clotting function.
5.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS MAKES A PATIENT AT RISK FOR DEVELOPING THROMBI
Correct Answer(s)
A. HIP REPLACEMENT
B. JOINT REPLACEMENT
C. HEART VALVE REPLACEMENT
Explanation
Patients who undergo hip replacement, joint replacement, or heart valve replacement surgeries are at risk for developing thrombi. Thrombi are blood clots that can form in the blood vessels, potentially leading to complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. These surgeries involve manipulation of blood vessels and can cause damage to the vessel walls, leading to an increased risk of clot formation. Therefore, patients undergoing these surgeries are closely monitored and may be prescribed anticoagulant medications to prevent thrombi formation. Sore throat, on the other hand, is not associated with an increased risk of thrombi development.
6.
PATIENTS WHO DEVELOP THROMBI OR HAVE CONDITIONS THAT MAKE THEM AT RISK FOR DEVELOPING THROMBI CAN BE PLACED ON ANTICOAGULANT THERAPY TO REDUCE THAT RISK
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because patients who develop thrombi (blood clots) or have conditions that make them at risk for developing thrombi can be placed on anticoagulant therapy. Anticoagulants are medications that help prevent the formation of blood clots by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood. By reducing the risk of blood clots, anticoagulant therapy can help prevent serious complications such as stroke, heart attack, or pulmonary embolism in these patients.
7.
CHECK ALL EXAMPLES OF DISORDERS OF HEMOSTASIS
Correct Answer(s)
A. DISSEMINATED INTRAVASCULAR COAGULATION (DIC)
B. HEMOpHILIA
Explanation
The correct answer includes the disorders of hemostasis, which refers to the body's ability to control bleeding. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is a condition where blood clots form throughout the body's small blood vessels, leading to excessive bleeding. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the body's ability to clot blood properly. Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, but it does not directly relate to hemostasis. Multiple Myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells in the bone marrow and does not directly affect hemostasis. Purpura refers to a condition where small blood vessels leak blood into the skin or mucous membranes, but it is not a disorder of hemostasis.
8.
HEMOpHILIA A IS CAUSED BY A DEFICIENCY IN FACTOR
Correct Answer
B. VIII
Explanation
Hemophilia A is caused by a deficiency in Factor VIII. Factor VIII is a protein that plays a crucial role in the blood clotting process. Without enough Factor VIII, the blood is unable to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding and bruising. This condition is inherited and primarily affects males, as it is caused by a mutation on the X chromosome. Treatment for hemophilia A involves replacing the missing Factor VIII through regular infusions or injections to prevent bleeding episodes and manage the condition.
9.
EVEN IF THE PLATELET COUNT IS IN THE NORMAL REFERENCE RANGE, A BLEEDING PROBLEM CAN STILL EXIST IF THE PLATELETS DO NOT FUNCTION NORMALLY
Correct Answer
A. TRUE
Explanation
This statement is true because platelet count refers to the number of platelets in the blood, but it does not indicate how well these platelets are functioning. Even if the platelet count is within the normal range, there can still be a problem with the platelets' ability to clot and prevent bleeding. Therefore, it is possible to have a bleeding problem despite having a normal platelet count.
10.
THE DUKE METHOD OF BLEEDING TIME TEST IS RARELY PERFORMED BECAUSE OF PROBLEMS WITH
Correct Answer
C. STANDARDIZATION
Explanation
The Duke method of bleeding time test is rarely performed because of problems with standardization. This means that the test lacks consistency and uniformity in its procedures and measurements. Without proper standardization, the results obtained from different laboratories or practitioners may vary widely, making it difficult to compare and interpret the findings accurately. Standardization is crucial in ensuring the reliability and reproducibility of any medical test, and the lack of it in the Duke method hinders its widespread use.
11.
THE SCREENING TEST FOR QUANTITATIVE OR QUALITATIVE ABNORMALITIES IN THE PLATELETS AND ALSO FOR VASCULAR INTEGRITY OF THE CAPILLARIES
Correct Answer
A. BLEEDING TIME
Explanation
Bleeding time is a test used to evaluate the function of platelets and the integrity of capillaries. It measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a small incision is made on the skin. If the bleeding time is prolonged, it may indicate a deficiency or dysfunction of platelets or abnormalities in the capillaries. Therefore, bleeding time is a suitable test for screening quantitative or qualitative abnormalities in platelets and vascular integrity of the capillaries.
12.
TREATMENT OF HEMOpHILIA USUALLY INVOLVES THE TRANSFUSION OF PLASMA OR FACTOR CONCENTRATE
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The statement is true because hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot. Transfusion of plasma or factor concentrate is a common treatment for hemophilia. Plasma contains clotting factors that help the blood to clot, while factor concentrate is a concentrated form of specific clotting factors that are lacking in individuals with hemophilia. By transfusing these substances, the blood's ability to clot is improved, reducing the risk of excessive bleeding and promoting healing.
13.
FOR THE IVY METHOD OF BLEEDING TIME TEST, A BLOOD PRESSURE CUFF IS PLACED ON THE UPPER ARM AND INFLATED TO
Correct Answer
D. 40mmHg
Explanation
In the Ivy method of bleeding time test, a blood pressure cuff is placed on the upper arm and inflated to 40mmHg. This level of inflation is necessary to occlude the blood flow in the arteries of the arm, allowing for a standardized measurement of bleeding time. By applying pressure to the arm, the blood vessels are temporarily constricted, preventing bleeding from occurring during the test. This inflation level ensures that the blood flow is adequately restricted without causing discomfort or damage to the arm.
14.
FOR THE BLEEDING TIME TEST, FILTER PAPER IS USED TO TOUCH THE BLOOD AT ____________________. CONTINUING UNTIL NO BLOOD APPEARS ON THE PAPER, THE TIMER IS THEN STOPPED.
Correct Answer
C. 30 SEC INTERVAL
Explanation
In the bleeding time test, filter paper is used to touch the blood at 30-second intervals. This is done until no blood appears on the paper. The timer is then stopped. This interval is chosen because it allows enough time for the blood to be absorbed by the filter paper, indicating the rate at which the blood is clotting. A shorter interval may not provide enough time for the blood to be absorbed, while a longer interval may result in excessive bleeding, making it difficult to determine the clotting time accurately.
15.
FOR THE BLEEDING TIME TEST, THE FILTER PAPER IS USED TO TOUCH THE INCISION SITE
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
The statement is false because for the bleeding time test, a standardized incision is made on the skin and a stopwatch is used to measure the time it takes for bleeding to stop. No filter paper is used to touch the incision site in this test.
16.
THE SITE DOES NOT HAVE TO BE CLEANSED FOR THE BLEEDING TIME TEST
Correct Answer
B. FALSE
Explanation
The statement "The site does not have to be cleansed for the bleeding time test" is false. The site where the bleeding time test is performed should be properly cleansed to prevent any contamination that could affect the accuracy of the test results. Cleansing the site helps to remove any dirt, bacteria, or other substances that could interfere with the test or cause infection. Therefore, it is necessary to cleanse the site before conducting the bleeding time test.
17.
CHECK TESTS OF HEMOSTATIC FUNCTION BELOW
Correct Answer(s)
A. BLEEDING TIME TEST
B. PROTHROMBIN TIME TEST
C. ACTIVATED PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME
Explanation
The correct answer is the list of tests provided: Bleeding Time Test, Prothrombin Time Test, and Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time. These tests are used to assess different aspects of hemostatic function. The Bleeding Time Test measures the time it takes for bleeding to stop after a small incision is made, evaluating platelet function and blood vessel integrity. The Prothrombin Time Test measures the time it takes for blood to clot, assessing the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. The Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time measures the time it takes for blood to clot, evaluating the activity of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
18.
CHECK TESTS OF COAGULATION PATHWAY BELOW
Correct Answer(s)
B. PROTHROMBIN TIME TEST
C. ACTIVATED PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME
Explanation
The correct answer is PROTHROMBIN TIME TEST and ACTIVATED PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME because these tests are used to evaluate the clotting ability of the blood. Prothrombin time measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant medications. Activated partial thromboplastin time measures the time it takes for blood to clot in response to certain clotting factors and is used to diagnose and monitor treatment for bleeding disorders.
19.
IN THE EXTRINSIC PATHWAY, TISSUE THROMBOPLASTIN CONVERTS FACTOR VII TO FACTOR VIIa
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
In the extrinsic pathway of blood coagulation, tissue thromboplastin, also known as tissue factor, plays a crucial role. Tissue thromboplastin converts factor VII to its activated form, factor VIIa. This activation of factor VIIa is essential for the formation of a complex that ultimately leads to the activation of factor X and the initiation of the common pathway of coagulation. Therefore, the statement that tissue thromboplastin converts factor VII to factor VIIa in the extrinsic pathway is true.
20.
CHECK WHICH FOUR FACTORS ARE VITAMIN K DEPENDENT
Correct Answer
A. II, VII, IX AND X
Explanation
The correct answer is II, VII, IX, and X. These factors are known as clotting factors and are dependent on vitamin K for their production. Vitamin K plays a crucial role in the synthesis of these factors, which are essential for blood clotting. Without sufficient vitamin K, the production of these factors is impaired, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is important to ensure an adequate intake of vitamin K to maintain proper blood clotting function.
21.
FACTOR IV AND VI ARE NO LONGER IN USE
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Factor IV and VI are no longer in use. This means that these factors, which were previously considered important or relevant, are now obsolete or irrelevant. Therefore, the statement "Factor IV and VI are no longer in use" is true.
22.
THE MAJOR COAGULATION FACTORS ARE NUMBERED I THROUGH XIII IN THE ORDER OF THEIR ACTION
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The major coagulation factors are not numbered I through XIII in the order of their action. The coagulation factors are actually numbered using Roman numerals, and the numbering does not correspond to the order of their action. For example, factor VII is actually one of the earlier factors to be activated in the coagulation cascade, despite its higher numerical designation. Therefore, the statement is false.
23.
HEMOCHRON IS A POINT OF CARE COAGULATION INSTRUMENT
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The given statement is true. Hemochron is indeed a point-of-care coagulation instrument. This means that it is a device used to measure and monitor blood clotting time in a clinical setting, such as a hospital or doctor's office. Point-of-care instruments like Hemochron provide quick and accurate results, allowing healthcare professionals to make immediate decisions regarding patient treatment and management.
24.
THE ANTICOAGULANT OF CHOICE FOR COAGULATION TESTS IS 3.2% SODIUM CITRATE IN THE LIGHT BLUE CAPPED BLOOD COLLECTION TUBE
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
The anticoagulant of choice for coagulation tests is 3.2% sodium citrate in the light blue capped blood collection tube. This is because sodium citrate prevents the blood from clotting by binding to calcium ions, which are necessary for the clotting process. The 3.2% concentration is the optimal ratio for maintaining the integrity of the blood sample and ensuring accurate test results. The light blue capped tube is specifically designed for coagulation tests to differentiate it from other types of blood collection tubes. Therefore, the statement is true.
25.
IMMEDIATELY AFTER CENTRIFUGATION, THE PORTION OF PLASMA IS REMOVED TO A CLEAN TUBE, AND CAPPED TO PREVENT CENTRIFUGATION
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
After centrifugation, the portion of plasma is removed to a clean tube and capped to prevent contamination or any further centrifugation. This is done to ensure that the plasma remains separate from any other components and to prevent any potential damage or contamination during handling or storage. Capping the tube also helps to maintain the integrity of the plasma sample and prevent any loss or spillage. Therefore, the statement is true.
26.
PLASMA CAN BE STORED FOR UP TO 4 HOURS BEFORE BEING TESTED
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Plasma can be stored for up to 4 hours before being tested. This means that after collecting plasma, it can be kept in storage for a maximum of 4 hours before it needs to be tested. This information is important for medical facilities and blood banks to ensure that they have enough time to process and test the plasma before it becomes unusable.
27.
WHAT COLOR OF TUBE DO YOU USE TO MONITOR A PATIENT ON WARFARIN
Correct Answer
C. LIGHT BLUE
Explanation
The correct answer is LIGHT BLUE. Light blue tubes are used to collect blood samples for coagulation tests, including monitoring patients on warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that is used to prevent blood clots. Monitoring the patient's coagulation levels is important to ensure that the dosage of warfarin is appropriate and to prevent any potential complications. Light blue tubes contain sodium citrate, which acts as an anticoagulant and preserves the blood sample for accurate testing.
28.
WHAT TUBE IS USED TO MONITOR A PATIENT ON HEPARIN THERAPY
Correct Answer
D. LIGHT BLUE
Explanation
The light blue tube is used to monitor a patient on heparin therapy. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. The light blue tube contains sodium citrate, which acts as an anticoagulant by binding to calcium ions and preventing blood clotting. This tube is used to collect blood samples for coagulation tests, such as activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) or prothrombin time (PT), to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy and ensure the patient's blood is clotting properly.
29.
WHAT TUBE IS USED FOR THE PROTHROMBIN TIME TEST
Correct Answer
A. LIGHT BLUE
Explanation
The correct answer is LIGHT BLUE because the prothrombin time test requires the use of a tube that contains sodium citrate as an anticoagulant. The light blue tube is specifically designed for coagulation tests, including the prothrombin time test, as it prevents the blood from clotting by binding calcium ions. This allows for accurate measurement of the time it takes for blood to clot, which is important in assessing the functionality of the clotting factors in the blood.
30.
WHAT TUBE IS USED FOR THE ACTIVATED PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN TIME TEST
Correct Answer
A. LIGHT BLUE
Explanation
The correct answer is LIGHT BLUE because the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) test requires the use of a light blue tube. This tube contains a sodium citrate anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting by binding to calcium ions. The APTT test is used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and assess the blood's ability to form clots. The light blue tube is specifically designed for coagulation tests and ensures accurate and reliable results.
31.
THE ANTICOAGULATANT TO BLOOD RATIO FOR THE COAGULATION TUBE IS
Correct Answer
A. 1:9
Explanation
The anticoagulant to blood ratio for the coagulation tube is 1:9. This means that for every 1 part of anticoagulant, there are 9 parts of blood in the tube. This ratio is important to maintain the proper balance between anticoagulant and blood in order to prevent clotting and ensure accurate coagulation testing.
32.
DO CONTROLS NEED TO BE RUN ON COAGULATION ANALYZERS?
Correct Answer
A. YES
Explanation
Controls need to be run on coagulation analyzers to ensure the accuracy and reliability of the test results. Controls are used to monitor the performance of the analyzer and to detect any potential errors or deviations in the test system. By running controls regularly, laboratories can verify that the analyzer is functioning properly and that the results obtained from patient samples are accurate. This helps to maintain the quality of testing and ensure patient safety. Therefore, it is necessary to run controls on coagulation analyzers.
33.
WHEN DRAWING A COAGULATION TUBE USING THE WINGED COLLECTION SYSTEM, A SMALL PLAIN DISCARD TUBE IS FILLED FIRST, AND DISCARDED TO PREVENT SHORT DRAWS CAUSED BY THE AIR SPACE IN THE WINGED COLLECTION TUBING
Correct Answer
A. TRUE
Explanation
When drawing blood using the winged collection system, a small plain discard tube is filled first and discarded to prevent short draws caused by the air space in the winged collection tubing. This is because the air space in the tubing can cause inaccurate results and insufficient blood samples. By filling and discarding the small plain discard tube, any air in the tubing is removed, ensuring that the subsequent blood draw is accurate and sufficient. Therefore, the statement is true.
34.
PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN IS THE
Correct Answer
A. LIPID PORTION OF THE THROMBOPLASTIN
Explanation
The correct answer is the lipid portion of the thromboplastin. Thromboplastin is a protein complex that plays a crucial role in blood clotting. It is composed of both protein and lipid components. The lipid portion of thromboplastin is responsible for initiating the clotting process by interacting with other clotting factors and platelets. Therefore, the lipid portion of thromboplastin is essential for the formation of blood clots.
35.
PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN REAGENT IS MANUFACTURED FROM RABBIT OR BOVINE BRAIN TISSUE AS WELL AS FROM VEGETABLE SOURCES SUCH AS SOYBEANS
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Partial thromboplastin reagent is manufactured from various sources such as rabbit or bovine brain tissue, as well as vegetable sources like soybeans. This statement is true because the reagent can be derived from both animal and plant sources.
36.
PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN PERFORMS THE FUNCTION OF PLATELET FACTOR 3
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Partial thromboplastin is a substance that plays a crucial role in the coagulation process. It is responsible for activating factor X, which is a key factor in the formation of blood clots. Platelet factor 3, on the other hand, is a substance released by platelets that aids in the activation of factor X. Therefore, it can be inferred that partial thromboplastin performs the function of platelet factor 3, making the statement true.
37.
IN ADDITION TO TEH PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN, WHAT ELSE IS NEEDED FOR THE APTT TEST
Correct Answer(s)
A. ACTIVATORS SUCH AS SILICA OR KAOLIN CONTAINED IN THE REAGENT
B. CALCIUM CHLORIDE
Explanation
The APTT test (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) measures the time it takes for blood to clot. In addition to the partial thromboplastin, activators such as silica or kaolin are needed in the reagent used for the test. These activators help initiate the clotting process by activating certain factors in the blood. Calcium chloride is also required for the APTT test as it is necessary for the clotting factors to function properly. Platelets, on the other hand, are not needed for the APTT test as it primarily focuses on the clotting factors in the blood.
38.
HEMOLYZED SPECIMEN IS ACCEPTABLE FOR COAGULATION TESTING
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Hemolyzed specimens are not acceptable for coagulation testing because hemolysis can release intracellular components, such as potassium and phosphorus, which can interfere with coagulation assays and give inaccurate results. Hemolysis can also activate the coagulation cascade, leading to falsely prolonged clotting times. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the specimen is not hemolyzed before performing coagulation testing.
39.
CLOTTED SPECIMEN IS THE SPECIMEN OF CHOICE IN COAGULATION DEPARTMENT
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
The statement "CLOTTED SPECIMEN IS THE SPECIMEN OF CHOICE IN COAGULATION DEPARTMENT" is false. Clotted specimens are not the preferred choice in the coagulation department. In coagulation testing, anticoagulated specimens are typically used to prevent clotting and allow for accurate measurement of clotting factors and other coagulation parameters. Using clotted specimens can lead to inaccurate test results and may require additional steps to remove the clot before testing. Therefore, anticoagulated specimens are the specimen of choice in the coagulation department.
40.
HEPARIN CAN BE ADMINISTERED INTRAVENOUSLY WITH AN IMMEDIATE RESPONSE, BUT IS USUALLY ONLY USED SHORT TERM
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Heparin is a medication that can be given intravenously, meaning it is directly injected into the veins, allowing for an immediate response. However, it is typically used only for a short period of time. This is because heparin is a blood thinner and is often used to prevent blood clots or during certain medical procedures. Prolonged use of heparin can lead to complications such as bleeding, so it is generally only used for a limited duration. Therefore, the statement is true.