CompTIA A Plus

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  • 1/40 Questions

    You are working in Microsoft Excel, and it appears that the program is not responding. Which of the following utilities can you use to force the application to shut down?

    • Application Manager
    • Computer Management
    • Task Manager
    • System Manager
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About This Quiz


This is a quiz to help you prepare for you A+ Essentials and A+ IT Technician Exams. I hope I make you think! Good Luck!

CompTIA A Plus - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following advanced boot options only loads only minimal drivers, such as the mouse, keyboard, and basic video?

    • Safe Mode

    • Safe Mode with Networking

    • Last Known Good Configuration

    • VGA Mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Safe Mode
    Explanation
    Safe Mode is the correct answer because it is an advanced boot option that loads only minimal drivers, such as the mouse, keyboard, and basic video. In Safe Mode, the operating system starts with a limited set of drivers and services, allowing the user to troubleshoot and fix any issues that may be caused by incompatible or problematic drivers or software. Safe Mode does not load unnecessary drivers or services, which can help in diagnosing and resolving various system problems.

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  • 3. 

    You need to install a device driver on a Windows XP computer. The device driver is not digitally signed. Which level of access do you need to be able to install the driver?

    • Administrator

    • Guest

    • User

    • Super User

    Correct Answer
    A. Administrator
    Explanation
    To install a device driver on a Windows XP computer that is not digitally signed, you need to have Administrator level access. This level of access provides the necessary permissions to bypass the security measures in place and install the driver. Guest, User, and Super User do not have the necessary privileges to perform this task.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following commands is used to test connectivity between devices on a network?

    • NSLOOKUP

    • IPCONFIG

    • PING

    • TRACERT

    Correct Answer
    A. PING
    Explanation
    The PING command is used to test connectivity between devices on a network. It sends a small packet of data to a specific IP address and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the device is reachable and there is connectivity between the devices. PING is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and to determine the response time or latency between devices.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following could be the cause of paper jams on a laser printer?

    • Defective toner cartridge

    • Dirty drum

    • Worn pickup rollers

    • Broken fuser

    Correct Answer
    A. Worn pickup rollers
    Explanation
    Worn pickup rollers could be the cause of paper jams on a laser printer. Pickup rollers are responsible for feeding the paper into the printer, and if they are worn out, they may not grip the paper properly, causing it to jam. This can happen when the rollers become smooth and lose their traction over time. When the printer tries to pick up the paper, it may slip or fail to catch it, resulting in a paper jam. Therefore, worn pickup rollers can disrupt the smooth paper feeding process and lead to paper jams in a laser printer.

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  • 6. 

    You have been asked to install a network cable that offers the greatest level of resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI). Which of the following network media would you select?

    • Fiber-optic

    • Coaxial

    • Ethernet

    • Twisted Pair

    • Token Ring

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber-optic
    Explanation
    Fiber-optic cables are made of thin strands of glass or plastic that transmit data using light signals. They offer the greatest level of resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI) because they do not conduct electricity. Unlike coaxial, Ethernet, twisted pair, or token ring cables, fiber-optic cables are not affected by electromagnetic fields or radio frequency interference, making them ideal for environments where EMI is a concern.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following are valid NTFS permissions? (Choose three.)

    • Read

    • Write

    • Modify

    • Create

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Read
    A. Write
    A. Modify
    Explanation
    The valid NTFS permissions are Read, Write, and Modify. These permissions allow users to view and access files (Read), make changes to files (Write), and both read and modify files (Modify). These permissions are commonly used to control access and manage the security of files and folders on NTFS file systems. The Create permission is not a valid NTFS permission as it does not exist in the list of standard NTFS permissions.

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  • 8. 

    What is the primary function of the SSID?

    • Secure communication between a web server and browser.

    • Secure communication between a server and a remote host.

    • A network name that identifies a wireless network.

    • A type of password used to secure an Ethernet 802.3 connection.

    Correct Answer
    A. A network name that identifies a wireless network.
    Explanation
    The primary function of the SSID is to act as a network name that identifies a wireless network. This network name is used by devices to connect to the correct wireless network and establish a connection. It allows devices to differentiate between different wireless networks in the vicinity and choose the one they want to connect to.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following commands is used in a Windows environment and used to follow a packet to its destination?

    • TRACERT

    • TRACE

    • PING

    • NSLOOKUP

    • IPCONFIG

    Correct Answer
    A. TRACERT
    Explanation
    TRACERT is the correct command used in a Windows environment to follow a packet to its destination. It stands for "Trace Route" and is used to track the path that a packet takes from the source to the destination. TRACERT sends a series of ICMP Echo Request messages with varying Time-To-Live (TTL) values to each router along the path, and each router returns an ICMP Time Exceeded message. This allows the user to determine the route taken and identify any network issues or delays.

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  • 10. 

    You have installed a new RAID system into your server. The RAID solution uses three disks and provides fault tolerance. Which of the following RAID levels are being used?

    • RAID 0

    • RAID 1

    • RAID 3

    • RAID 5

    • RAID 6

    Correct Answer
    A. RAID 5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RAID 5. RAID 5 is a RAID level that uses three or more disks and provides fault tolerance by distributing parity information across all the disks in the array. This allows for data redundancy and recovery in the event of a disk failure.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following files is responsible for pointing to the location of the operating system’s system files during the boot process?

    • NTOSKRNL

    • BOOT.INI

    • NTDETECT.COM

    • NTLDR

    Correct Answer
    A. BOOT.INI
    Explanation
    BOOT.INI is responsible for pointing to the location of the operating system's system files during the boot process. This file is a configuration file used by Windows NT-based operating systems, including Windows XP and Windows Server 2003. It contains information about the operating systems installed on the computer and their corresponding file paths. During the boot process, the system reads the BOOT.INI file to determine which operating system to load and where to find its system files.

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  • 12. 

    The _________ is the measurement of the difference between the darkest color and the lightest color an LCD screen can display.

    • Native Resolution

    • Luminescence

    • Contrast Ratio

    • Pixel Pitch

    • Interlacing

    Correct Answer
    A. Contrast Ratio
    Explanation
    The contrast ratio is the measurement of the difference between the darkest color and the lightest color an LCD screen can display. It determines the range of colors that can be shown on the screen, with higher contrast ratios indicating a greater range. A high contrast ratio is desirable as it allows for more vibrant and detailed images, while a low contrast ratio can result in washed-out or dull colors.

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  • 13. 

    Which assembly permanently presses the toner into the paper?

    • Fuser

    • Transfer Corona

    • Paper Transport Assembly

    • Print Drum

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuser
    Explanation
    The fuser is responsible for permanently pressing the toner into the paper. It uses heat and pressure to melt the toner particles and fuse them onto the paper, ensuring that the print is durable and long-lasting. The transfer corona is responsible for transferring the toner from the print drum to the paper, while the paper transport assembly is responsible for moving the paper through the printer. The print drum is responsible for applying the toner onto the paper.

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  • 14. 

    You have just upgraded a client’s system to support USB 2.0. What is the maximum speed of USB?

    • 480 Kbps

    • 480 Mbps

    • 400 Mbps

    • 400 Kbps

    Correct Answer
    A. 480 Mbps
    Explanation
    USB 2.0 has a maximum speed of 480 Mbps. Mbps stands for megabits per second, which is a unit used to measure data transfer speed. This means that USB 2.0 is capable of transferring data at a rate of 480 million bits per second.

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  • 15. 

    While configuring your firewall, you inadvertently block port 443. Which of the following will be unavailable?

    • HTTPS

    • FTP

    • SMTP

    • TELNET

    • SSL

    Correct Answer
    A. HTTPS
    Explanation
    When you block port 443 on your firewall, HTTPS will be unavailable. Port 443 is the default port used for secure HTTP (HTTPS) connections. Blocking this port will prevent any secure communication over the HTTP protocol, making it impossible to establish secure connections to websites or web applications.

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  • 16. 

    On a default Windows XP installation, how do you start the Disk Defragmenter program?

    • START > CONTROL PANEL > DISK DEFRAGMENTER

    • START > ALL PROGRAMS > ACCESSORIES > SYSTEM TOOLS > DISK DEFRAGMENTER

    • START > ALL PROGRAMS > DISK DEFRAGMENTER

    • START > CONTROL PANEL > ADMINISTRATIVE TOOLS > DISK DEFRAGMENTER

    Correct Answer
    A. START > ALL PROGRAMS > ACCESSORIES > SYSTEM TOOLS > DISK DEFRAGMENTER
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "START > ALL PROGRAMS > ACCESSORIES > SYSTEM TOOLS > DISK DEFRAGMENTER". This is because the Disk Defragmenter program is located in the System Tools folder within the Accessories folder in the All Programs menu. By following this path, the user can easily access and start the Disk Defragmenter program on a default Windows XP installation.

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  • 17. 

    Bluetooth Class 2 devices have a maximum communication range of how far?

    • 1 meter

    • 10 meters

    • 100 meters

    • 1000 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 meters
    Explanation
    Bluetooth Class 2 devices have a maximum communication range of 10 meters. This means that the devices can communicate with each other within a distance of up to 10 meters. Beyond this range, the signal strength may weaken, leading to a loss of connection or reduced performance. Class 2 devices are commonly used in personal electronics such as smartphones, tablets, and laptops, where the range of communication required is typically within close proximity.

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  • 18. 

    You have just installed a new hard drive in your Windows XP computer. What is the maximum number of partitions that can be created on this hard drive?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The maximum number of partitions that can be created on a hard drive in Windows XP is 4. This is because Windows XP uses the Master Boot Record (MBR) partitioning scheme, which allows for a maximum of 4 primary partitions. If you need to create more partitions, you can create an extended partition and then divide it into logical partitions, but the maximum number of primary partitions will still be limited to 4.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following protocols is used for network addressing?

    • IP

    • IPX

    • TCP

    • UDP

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. IP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IP. IP (Internet Protocol) is a protocol used for network addressing. It is responsible for assigning unique IP addresses to devices on a network, allowing them to communicate and send data packets to each other. IP is a fundamental protocol in the internet protocol suite and is widely used in both local area networks (LANs) and wide area networks (WANs). It provides a standardized method for addressing and routing data across different networks, ensuring that data packets are delivered to the correct destination.

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  • 20. 

    You will be installing both Windows 98 and Windows XP on a computer, and you want to be able to dual-boot and read all files on the computer from either operating system. Which of the following file systems should you use on the hard drive?

    • FAT32

    • NTFS

    • NFS

    • FAT16

    Correct Answer
    A. FAT32
    Explanation
    To dual-boot and read all files on the computer from either operating system, the best file system to use on the hard drive is FAT32. FAT32 is compatible with both Windows 98 and Windows XP, allowing easy access to files from either operating system. NTFS is not compatible with Windows 98, NFS is a network file system and not suitable for this scenario, and FAT16 has limitations on file size and partition size.

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  • 21. 

    You have installed a new RAID system into your server. The RAID solution uses two mirrored disks. Which of the following RAID levels are being used?

    • RAID 0

    • RAID 1

    • RAID 3

    • RAID 5

    • RAID 6

    Correct Answer
    A. RAID 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RAID 1. RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, involves creating an exact copy (mirror) of data on two or more disks. This provides redundancy and improves data availability as if one disk fails, the data can still be accessed from the mirror disk. RAID 0 is not being used as it does not involve mirroring, but instead focuses on striping data across multiple disks for improved performance. RAID 3, RAID 5, and RAID 6 also do not involve disk mirroring and have different methods of data distribution and redundancy.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following command-line utilities is used to format a hard disk to clean it off and prepare it for an operating system?

    • FORMAT

    • FDISK

    • XFORMAT

    • DISKPART

    Correct Answer
    A. FORMAT
    Explanation
    The command-line utility "FORMAT" is used to format a hard disk to clean it off and prepare it for an operating system. Formatting a hard disk involves erasing all the data on the disk and setting up the file system structure required by the operating system. This process prepares the disk for use by the operating system and ensures that it can be efficiently utilized for storing data. Therefore, the "FORMAT" command is the correct choice for this task.

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  • 23. 

    You are administering a system that has been locked down for security reasons. You notice that among all of the other ports, port 21 has been disabled. What service is associated with port 21?

    • FTP

    • Telnet

    • HTTP

    • POP3

    • SMTP

    Correct Answer
    A. FTP
    Explanation
    Port 21 is associated with the FTP (File Transfer Protocol) service. FTP is a standard network protocol used for transferring files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the internet. By disabling port 21, the system administrator is preventing any FTP communication or file transfers to or from the system, enhancing security by limiting potential attack vectors.

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  • 24. 

    At a command prompt, you want to rename a directory from Temp to Files. Which of the following commands can you use to do this?

    • RD TEMP FILES

    • RD FILES TEMP

    • REN TEMP FILES

    • REN FILES TEMP

    Correct Answer
    A. REN TEMP FILES
    Explanation
    The command "REN TEMP FILES" can be used to rename a directory from Temp to Files. The "REN" command is short for "rename" and is used to rename files and directories. In this case, the "TEMP" directory will be renamed to "FILES".

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  • 25. 

    In Windows XP, the virtual memory file is called what?

    • Pagefile.sys

    • Swapfile.sys

    • Vmm.sys

    • Virmem.sys

    Correct Answer
    A. Pagefile.sys
    Explanation
    In Windows XP, the virtual memory file is called "pagefile.sys". This file is used to supplement the physical memory (RAM) on a computer by temporarily storing data that is not currently being used. When the RAM becomes full, the operating system moves some of the data from RAM to the pagefile.sys file, freeing up space in the RAM for other processes. This helps to prevent the system from running out of memory and allows for smoother multitasking and overall system performance.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following types of displays has the best performance characteristics?

    • Active Matrix

    • Passive Matrix

    • Dual Matrix

    • Quad Matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. Active Matrix
    Explanation
    Active Matrix displays have the best performance characteristics compared to Passive Matrix, Dual Matrix, and Quad Matrix displays. Active Matrix displays use thin-film transistors (TFTs) to control each individual pixel, allowing for faster response times, higher refresh rates, and better color reproduction. This technology also provides wider viewing angles and better image quality, making it the preferred choice for high-performance displays such as LCD and OLED screens.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following utilities can be used to fix cross-linked files on hard drives in Windows XP/2000?

    • SCANDISK

    • CHKDSK

    • FDISK

    • Disk Management

    Correct Answer
    A. CHKDSK
    Explanation
    CHKDSK (Check Disk) is a utility that can be used to fix cross-linked files on hard drives in Windows XP/2000. Cross-linked files occur when the file system incorrectly assigns the same cluster to multiple files, causing data corruption. CHKDSK scans the file system, identifies cross-linked files, and repairs them by reassigning the correct clusters. This helps to ensure data integrity and prevent further issues with file access and data corruption. SCANDISK is a similar utility used in older versions of Windows, while FDISK is a utility for managing partitions, and Disk Management is a tool for disk management tasks but not specifically for fixing cross-linked files.

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  • 28. 

    PCMCIA Type II cards are how thick?

    • 3.3 mm

    • 5 mm

    • 7 mm

    • 10.5 mm

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 mm
    Explanation
    PCMCIA Type II cards are 5 mm thick.

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  • 29. 

    To increase security, you decide to block the Telnet protocol. Which port will you need to block to prevent Telnet from being used?

    • 21

    • 22

    • 23

    • 24

    • 25

    Correct Answer
    A. 23
    Explanation
    To prevent Telnet from being used, you need to block port 23. Telnet is a protocol that allows remote access to a computer or server, and it typically uses port 23 for communication. By blocking this port, you effectively disable Telnet and enhance the security of your system.

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  • 30. 

    The LCD screen on your laptop is flickering intermittently. What is the most likely caused of this problem?

    • Video board cicuitry

    • Cracked bezel

    • A faulty LCD backlight

    • Failing inverter

    Correct Answer
    A. Failing inverter
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the flickering of the LCD screen on a laptop is a failing inverter. The inverter is responsible for providing power to the LCD backlight, and if it is faulty, it can result in intermittent flickering. This is a common issue that can be resolved by replacing the failing inverter with a new one.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following tells the CPU how to interact with the rest of the PC?

    • Math Coprocessor

    • Processor

    • CMOS

    • BIOS

    • Operating System

    Correct Answer
    A. BIOS
    Explanation
    The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a firmware that is stored on a chip on the motherboard of a PC. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components during the boot process. It also provides the CPU with instructions on how to interact with other hardware components, such as the memory, hard drive, and peripherals. The BIOS acts as an intermediary between the CPU and the rest of the PC, enabling communication and coordination between different hardware components.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following computer components can retain a lethal electrical charge even after the device is unplugged? (Choose Two)

    • Processor

    • Monitor

    • Hard Drive

    • RAM

    • Power Supply

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Monitor
    A. Power Supply
    Explanation
    Monitors and power supplies can retain a lethal electrical charge even after the device is unplugged. Monitors contain capacitors that store electrical energy and can discharge a high voltage shock. Power supplies also have capacitors that can hold a charge for a significant amount of time, posing a danger if not handled properly. The other components listed, such as the processor, hard drive, and RAM, do not typically retain an electrical charge after being unplugged.

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  • 33. 

    You are upgrading the SCSI devices in your server. For the upgrade, you must ensure that all SCSI devices are compatible. Which type of SCSI is incompatible with all other types?

    • LVD

    • HVD

    • SE

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. SE
    Explanation
    SE stands for Single Ended, which is a type of SCSI interface. Single Ended SCSI is incompatible with all other types of SCSI interfaces because it uses a different electrical signaling method. Single Ended SCSI devices cannot be connected to devices that use other SCSI interfaces such as LVD (Low Voltage Differential) or HVD (High Voltage Differential). Therefore, the correct answer is SE.

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  • 34. 

    What is included in the EP laser printer toner cartridge? (Choose three.)

    • Print Drum

    • Toner

    • Cleaning Blade

    • Laser

    • Fuser

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Print Drum
    A. Toner
    A. Cleaning Blade
    Explanation
    The EP laser printer toner cartridge includes three components: the print drum, toner, and cleaning blade. The print drum is responsible for transferring the toner onto the paper, while the toner contains the ink or powder that is used to create the image on the paper. The cleaning blade helps to remove any excess toner from the print drum, ensuring clean and accurate printing.

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  • 35. 

    Which type of backup makes a copy of files that have been changed since the last full or incremental backup?

    • Full

    • Incremental

    • Differential

    • Sequential

    Correct Answer
    A. Incremental
    Explanation
    Incremental backup makes a copy of files that have been changed since the last full or incremental backup. This type of backup only backs up the data that has changed, reducing the time and storage space required compared to a full backup. It builds upon the previous backup by adding the changes made since then, creating a chain of incremental backups. In case of data loss, restoring from an incremental backup requires the last full backup and all subsequent incremental backups to restore the data to its most recent state.

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  • 36. 

    Which layer is responsible for translating logical network addressing and their names to their physical address

    • Presentation

    • Transport

    • Session

    • Data-Link

    • Network

    Correct Answer
    A. Network
    Explanation
    The Network layer is responsible for translating logical network addressing and their names to their physical address. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. It takes care of logical addressing, network topology, and network protocols. It ensures that data is delivered to the correct destination by using logical addresses and translating them to physical addresses.

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  • 37. 

    Which class of fire extinguisher is recommended for use for a fire involving flammable metals?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    • K

    Correct Answer
    A. D
    Explanation
    Class D fire extinguishers are specifically designed to extinguish fires involving flammable metals such as magnesium, titanium, and potassium. These metals require a specialized extinguishing agent, usually in the form of a dry powder, to effectively smother the fire and prevent it from spreading. Class D extinguishers are not suitable for use on other types of fires, such as those involving flammable liquids or electrical equipment. Therefore, in a fire involving flammable metals, it is recommended to use a Class D fire extinguisher.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following devices are commonly seen as PCMCIA Type III cards?

    • Modem

    • Network Adapters

    • Memory

    • Hard Drives

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard Drives
    Explanation
    PCMCIA Type III cards are commonly used for adding additional storage to laptops and other portable devices. Hard drives are one of the devices that can be commonly seen as PCMCIA Type III cards, allowing users to expand their storage capacity and easily transfer files between devices. Modems, network adapters, and memory cards can also be used as PCMCIA Type III cards, but they are not specifically mentioned in the question.

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  • 39. 

    Which utility is used to upgrade Windows 98 to Windows XP?

    • WINNT32.EXE

    • UPGRDE.EXE

    • XPUPGRDE.EXE

    • WINNT.EXE

    Correct Answer
    A. WINNT.EXE
    Explanation
    WINNT.EXE is the correct answer because it is the utility used to upgrade Windows 98 to Windows XP. This utility allows users to perform an in-place upgrade, which means that the existing Windows 98 installation is upgraded to Windows XP while preserving user settings, files, and applications.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following are usually contained on an MSDS? (Choose three.)

    • Recommended Safety Equipment

    • Manufacturer's Name

    • Disposal Considerations

    • First Aid Measures

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Recommended Safety Equipment
    A. Manufacturer's Name
    A. First Aid Measures
    Explanation
    The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is a document that provides information about the potential hazards and safe handling of a particular chemical or product. It typically includes the manufacturer's name, recommended safety equipment, and first aid measures. These three components are essential for ensuring the safe handling and use of the product. Disposal considerations, although important, may not always be included on an MSDS as they can vary depending on local regulations and specific product characteristics.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Jan 19, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 21, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Yusefcity
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