1.
Blow-drying softens textured hair, stretches the hair shaft length, and:
Correct Answer
A. Elongates a wave pattern
Explanation
Blow-drying softens textured hair by using heat to break down the hydrogen bonds in the hair, making it more pliable. This heat also stretches the hair shaft length, causing it to appear longer. As a result, blow-drying can elongate a wave pattern, making it less pronounced or even straighten it out. It does not reduce or shrink the wave pattern, as these would imply making it smaller or tighter. Blow-drying also does not thicken the diameter of the hair.
2.
During the maturation of stage of locks, the hair is soft and coiled into spiral configurations, and the end is:
Correct Answer
A. Open
Explanation
During the maturation stage of locks, the hair is soft and coiled into spiral configurations. At this stage, the end of the hair is open, meaning that it is not sealed or closed. This allows for flexibility and movement in the hair.
3.
As with other salon services, the preliminary service provided to determine client needs for a wig service is the:
Correct Answer
B. Cllient consultation
Explanation
The correct answer is "client consultation." When a client comes in for a wig service, it is important to have a consultation to understand their specific needs and preferences. This consultation helps the salon professional determine the client's desired style, color, length, and other factors that will ensure the client is satisfied with the wig service. It also allows the professional to assess the client's hair and scalp condition, any allergies or sensitivities, and any other concerns that may affect the wig service.
4.
Prior to a full-color application to a wig or hairpiece, it is recommended to perform a(n):
Correct Answer
B. Strand test
Explanation
A strand test is recommended prior to a full-color application to a wig or hairpiece. This test involves taking a small strand of hair and applying the color to it to see how it reacts. It helps to determine the outcome of the color and allows for adjustments to be made if necessary. This test ensures that the desired color is achieved without any unexpected results or damage to the wig or hairpiece.
5.
A small wig used by men to cover the top or crown of the head is a:
Correct Answer
A. Toupee
Explanation
A small wig used by men to cover the top or crown of the head is called a toupee. A toupee is typically used to conceal baldness or thinning hair and is designed to blend in with the wearer's natural hair. It provides a natural-looking solution for those who want to enhance their appearance or boost their confidence.
6.
Long,coiled,polypeptide chains that make up approximately 97 percent of the hair's structure are:
Correct Answer
A. Keratin proteins
Explanation
The long, coiled polypeptide chains that make up approximately 97 percent of the hair's structure are keratin proteins. Keratin is a fibrous structural protein that is found in the outer layer of the skin, nails, and hair. It provides strength and elasticity to the hair strands, making them resistant to breakage and damage. Keratin proteins also contribute to the overall texture, appearance, and health of the hair.
7.
Hair coloring products that contain metallic salts are not compatible with:
Correct Answer
D. Permanent waving
Explanation
Permanent waving involves the use of chemicals to break and reform the disulfide bonds in the hair, allowing it to take on a new shape. Hair coloring products that contain metallic salts can interfere with this process by reacting with the chemicals used in permanent waving, leading to unpredictable and potentially damaging results. Therefore, they are not compatible with permanent waving treatments.
8.
All acid waves have three components consisting of the waving lotion, neutralizer, and:
Correct Answer
D. Activator
Explanation
In the context of acid waves, an activator is an essential component that helps to activate the waving lotion, allowing it to penetrate and reshape the hair. The waving lotion alone is not sufficient to create the desired wave pattern. The neutralizer is used to stop the perming process and stabilize the new shape of the hair. While a conditioner and prewrap may be used in the overall hair perming process, they are not specifically mentioned as components of acid waves. Therefore, the correct answer is activator.
9.
Waves that ae activated from an outside heat source ae considered:
Correct Answer
B. Endothermic
Explanation
Endothermic refers to a process or reaction that absorbs heat from its surroundings. In the context of waves being activated by an outside heat source, if the waves are considered endothermic, it means that they require an input of heat energy to be activated. This suggests that the waves absorb heat from the environment in order to propagate or function.
10.
The process of stopping the action of permanent waves and hardening the hair into its new form is:
Correct Answer
C. Neutralization
Explanation
Neutralization is the process of stopping the action of permanent waves and hardening the hair into its new form. This step is crucial in the perming process as it helps to balance the pH levels of the hair and neutralize the chemicals used in the perming solution. By neutralizing the hair, it ensures that the hair retains its new shape and prevents any further chemical reactions that could damage the hair.
11.
The application of a sodium hydroxide ions to lower the ph of the hair and scalp after a relaxer requires a(n):
Correct Answer
A. Swell and soften
Explanation
When sodium hydroxide ions are applied to the hair and scalp after a relaxer, they cause the hair shaft to swell and soften. This is because sodium hydroxide is a strong alkaline substance that raises the pH level of the hair and scalp. The swelling of the hair shaft helps to break down the disulfide bonds in the hair, which are responsible for its natural shape and texture. Softening the hair allows for easier manipulation and styling, making it more manageable after the relaxer treatment.
12.
The neutralizing of remaining hydroxide ions to lower the pH of the hair and scalp after a relaxer requires a(n):
Correct Answer
C. Normalizing lotion
Explanation
A normalizing lotion is used to lower the pH of the hair and scalp after a relaxer. This is necessary because relaxers are alkaline in nature and can leave the hair and scalp with a higher pH. The normalizing lotion helps to neutralize any remaining hydroxide ions and restore the pH balance to a more normal level. This is important for the health and condition of the hair and scalp after the chemical treatment.
13.
The difference in the strength of most chemical hair relaxers is determined by the concentration of:
Correct Answer
B. Hydroxide
Explanation
The strength of most chemical hair relaxers is determined by the concentration of hydroxide. Hydroxide is a common ingredient in hair relaxers and it helps to break down the protein bonds in the hair, allowing it to be reshaped and straightened. The higher the concentration of hydroxide in the relaxer, the stronger the relaxer will be and the more effective it will be at straightening the hair. Therefore, the concentration of hydroxide is a key factor in determining the strength of a hair relaxer.
14.
Conditioners with an acidic pH that condition and restore the natural pH of the hair after a relaxer but prior to shampooing are:
Correct Answer
D. Normalizing solutions
Explanation
Normalizing solutions are conditioners with an acidic pH that help to condition and restore the natural pH of the hair after a relaxer but before shampooing. These solutions help to balance the pH levels of the hair, which can become alkaline after a relaxer treatment. By restoring the natural pH, normalizing solutions help to close the cuticles of the hair, making it smoother and more manageable.
15.
After applying a relaxer, periodic strand tests are performed to determine:
Correct Answer
C. Processing time
Explanation
After applying a relaxer, periodic strand tests are performed to determine the processing time. This is necessary because the processing time can vary depending on factors such as hair type, texture, and desired level of relaxation. By conducting strand tests at regular intervals, the stylist can assess how the relaxer is working on the hair and determine the appropriate processing time needed to achieve the desired results. This helps to ensure that the relaxer is not left on for too long, which could lead to over-processing and damage to the hair.
16.
During a relaxer strand test, hair pressed with the back of the comb,fingers, or applicatior brush that continues to curl is:
Correct Answer
B. Insufficiently relaxed
Explanation
During a relaxer strand test, if hair pressed with the back of the comb, fingers, or applicator brush continues to curl, it is considered insufficiently relaxed. This means that the hair has not been relaxed enough, and additional time or a stronger relaxer may be needed to achieve the desired results.
17.
The blonding process where the hair is prelilghtened then toned with a toner or glaze is a:
Correct Answer
B. Double-process color
Explanation
The correct answer is double-process color. The blonding process involves two steps: prelightening the hair to remove the natural pigment and then toning it with a toner or glaze to achieve the desired blonde shade. This two-step process is known as double-process color.
18.
Fine hair takes color faster and can look darker because the melanin granules are grouped:
Correct Answer
B. More tightly
Explanation
Fine hair takes color faster and can look darker because the melanin granules are grouped more tightly. When the melanin granules are closer together, they absorb and reflect more light, making the hair appear darker. This is why fine hair can sometimes appear darker than it actually is when colored.
19.
The predominant melanin that gives black and brown color to hair is:
Correct Answer
B. Eumelanin
Explanation
Eumelanin is the predominant melanin that gives black and brown color to hair. Melanin is the pigment responsible for the color of our hair, skin, and eyes. Eumelanin specifically produces darker shades of hair, while pheomelanin produces lighter shades such as red and blonde.
20.
Colors that absorb more light and can look darker than their actual level are:
Correct Answer
B. Cool tones
Explanation
Cool tones are colors that have a blue undertone, such as blues, purples, and greens. These colors absorb more light than warm tones, which have a yellow or red undertone. When a color absorbs more light, it can appear darker than its actual level. Therefore, cool tones can look darker than their true shade.
21.
Colors with a predominance of red are considered:
Correct Answer
C. Warm tones
Explanation
Colors with a predominance of red are considered warm tones because red is a warm color. Warm colors are typically associated with feelings of warmth, energy, and excitement. They can create a cozy and inviting atmosphere. Red, along with other warm colors like orange and yellow, tends to advance and appear closer, making a space feel more intimate. In contrast, cool colors like blue and green are associated with calmness and serenity.
22.
Primary and secondary colors that are positioned opposite each on the color wheel are:
Correct Answer
A. Complementary colors
Explanation
Complementary colors are positioned opposite each other on the color wheel. They are pairs of colors that create a strong contrast when placed together, making each color appear more vibrant. When complementary colors are mixed together, they create neutral colors such as gray or brown. This relationship between complementary colors is often used in art and design to create visual interest and balance in compositions.
23.
The hair coloring process that lightens and colrs hair in a single applications is a:
Correct Answer
C. Single-process hair coloring
Explanation
Single-process hair coloring refers to a hair coloring process that lightens and colors the hair in a single application. This means that both the lightening and coloring steps are done simultaneously, saving time and effort. This is different from double-process hair coloring, where the hair is first lightened and then colored in separate steps. Deposit-only color and semi-permanent color are not suitable explanations as they do not specifically refer to the process of lightening and coloring the hair in a single application.
24.
A thick scat resulting from excessive growth of fibrous tissue is known as a:
Correct Answer
C. Keloid
Explanation
A keloid is a thick scat resulting from excessive growth of fibrous tissue. It is a type of scar that extends beyond the original boundaries of the wound or injury. Keloids are often raised, firm, and can be darker in color than the surrounding skin. They can occur after surgery, trauma, or even from minor skin injuries like acne. Keloids can be itchy, tender, and may cause cosmetic concerns. Treatment options for keloids include corticosteroid injections, silicone gel or sheets, cryotherapy, laser therapy, or surgical removal.
25.
Dark, brown patches on the skin that may appear uneven in texture, jagged, ir raised may be a warning sign of:
Correct Answer
A. Malignant melanoma
Explanation
Dark, brown patches on the skin that appear uneven in texture, jagged, or raised may be a warning sign of malignant melanoma. Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that develops from melanocytes, the cells that produce melanin. These patches may be irregular in shape, have uneven borders, and vary in color. It is important to monitor any changes in moles or the appearance of new moles, as early detection of malignant melanoma can greatly increase the chances of successful treatment.
26.
Client questionnaires used for hair removal services should contain information about client medications and document:
Correct Answer
B. Allergies and skin disorders
Explanation
Client questionnaires used for hair removal services should contain information about client medications and document allergies and skin disorders. This is important because certain medications can affect the client's skin sensitivity and increase the risk of adverse reactions during the hair removal process. Additionally, allergies and skin disorders can also impact the client's suitability for certain hair removal methods or products. Therefore, it is crucial for the salon or service provider to be aware of any allergies or skin disorders the client may have in order to ensure their safety and provide appropriate recommendations and treatments.
27.
To prevent contact with any possible bloodborne pathogens during a hair removal treatment, use:
Correct Answer
B. Disposable gloves
Explanation
To prevent contact with bloodborne pathogens during a hair removal treatment, it is important to use disposable gloves. Disposable gloves are designed to be single-use and discarded after each treatment, reducing the risk of cross-contamination. They provide a barrier between the practitioner's hands and the client's skin, minimizing the potential for the transmission of pathogens. Using paper coverings or cotton gloves may not provide the same level of protection and can potentially harbor pathogens. Nondisposable gloves are also not recommended as they can be difficult to clean and sterilize properly.
28.
Pimples that have a pus head are called:
Correct Answer
C. Pustules
Explanation
Pustules are a type of pimple that have a pus-filled head. They are typically red, swollen, and contain a yellow or white center. Pustules occur when the pore becomes clogged with bacteria, dead skin cells, and oil, leading to inflammation and the formation of pus. They are commonly seen in acne and can be treated with topical medications or by a dermatologist.
29.
Acream-type enzyme applies to the face and rolled off the skin after forming a crust is a:
Correct Answer
A. Gommage
Explanation
A gommage is a type of cream-like enzyme that is applied to the face and then rolled off the skin after forming a crust. This process helps to exfoliate the skin and remove dead skin cells, leaving the skin smoother and more radiant. Unlike a scrub, which typically contains abrasive particles, a gommage uses enzymes to gently dissolve the dead skin cells. Modelage and microform are not relevant to the given description.
30.
The impact of a massage treatment depends upon the amount of pressure, directions of movement, and:
Correct Answer
C. Duration of manipulation
Explanation
The impact of a massage treatment depends not only on the amount of pressure and directions of movement, but also on the duration of manipulation. The length of time that the massage techniques are applied can determine the effectiveness of the treatment. A longer duration allows for more thorough manipulation of the muscles and tissues, leading to greater relaxation, pain relief, and other therapeutic benefits. Therefore, the duration of manipulation is an important factor in determining the overall impact of a massage treatment.
31.
A stimulation form of massage that consists of short, quick tapping, slapping, and hacking movements is:
Correct Answer
D. Tapotement
Explanation
Tapotement is a stimulation form of massage that consists of short, quick tapping, slapping, and hacking movements. This technique is often used to invigorate the muscles and increase blood flow to the area being massaged. It can help to relieve muscle tension, improve circulation, and promote relaxation. Tapotement is commonly used in sports massage and can be beneficial for athletes or individuals who engage in physical activity.
32.
During a light ray treatment, the client's eyes should be protected with:
Correct Answer
C. Eye pads
Explanation
During a light ray treatment, it is important to protect the client's eyes from the potentially harmful effects of the rays. Eye pads are a suitable option for this purpose as they provide a physical barrier between the eyes and the light rays. Eye pads are designed to fit comfortably over the eyes and provide protection without causing any discomfort to the client. They are specifically designed for this purpose and are therefore the correct choice for protecting the client's eyes during a light ray treatment.
33.
No matter how light or dark the skin is, a neutral skin tone contains equal elements of:
Correct Answer
B. Warm and cool
Explanation
A neutral skin tone contains equal elements of warm and cool tones. Warm tones include yellow, peach, and golden undertones, while cool tones include pink, blue, and red undertones. Having a balance of both warm and cool tones in the skin creates a neutral appearance, where neither undertone dominates. This allows for versatility in choosing makeup and clothing colors that complement the skin tone.
34.
The lifting of the nail plate from the bed without shedding is a sign of:
Correct Answer
D. Onycholysis
Explanation
Onycholysis is the correct answer because it refers to the lifting of the nail plate from the bed without shedding. This condition is often caused by trauma, infection, or certain medications. It can result in the nail appearing white or yellow and becoming detached from the nail bed. Onycholysis can be painful and may require medical treatment depending on the underlying cause.
35.
Prior to being placed in a disinfectant solution, implements must be:
Correct Answer
C. Properly cleaned
Explanation
Before being placed in a disinfectant solution, implements must be properly cleaned. This is important because disinfectants work more effectively on surfaces that are free from dirt, debris, and organic matter. Proper cleaning involves removing any visible dirt or residue from the implements using soap, water, and a brush. This step helps to ensure that the disinfectant can penetrate and kill any remaining microorganisms on the surface of the implements, reducing the risk of cross-contamination.
36.
The tissue that is pushed back and loosened with the spoon end of a metal implement is the:
Correct Answer
D. Eponychium
Explanation
The eponychium is the correct answer. The eponychium is the tissue that covers the base of the nail and extends onto the nail plate. It is often referred to as the cuticle. When using the spoon end of a metal implement, the eponychium is pushed back and loosened to allow for proper nail care and maintenance.
37.
Nails that are completely straight across with no rounding at the edges are:
Correct Answer
B. Square
Explanation
Nails that are completely straight across with no rounding at the edges are referred to as square nails. The term "square" describes the shape of the nail, which is characterized by a flat top and straight sides. This shape is popular for its clean and modern appearance, and it is often chosen by individuals who prefer a more angular and geometric nail design.
38.
When filing the toenail during a pedicure, the nails should be filled:
Correct Answer
B. Straight across with rounded corners
Explanation
When filing the toenail during a pedicure, it is recommended to file the nails straight across with rounded corners. This shape helps prevent ingrown nails and reduces the risk of nail breakage. Filing the nails in this manner also promotes proper nail growth and maintains a neat and clean appearance. It is important to avoid filing the nails too short or leaving sharp corners, as this can lead to discomfort and potential nail problems.
39.
A metal file that is designed to file in one direction is a:
Correct Answer
A. Rasp
Explanation
A rasp is a type of metal file that is specifically designed to file in one direction. It has a rough surface with sharp teeth, which allows it to remove material quickly and efficiently. Unlike other types of files, such as paddles or curettes, a rasp is not meant for smoothing or shaping surfaces in multiple directions. Instead, it is primarily used for rough shaping and removing large amounts of material from wood, metal, or other materials. A scooper, on the other hand, is not a type of file and does not have the same filing capabilities as a rasp.
40.
To avoid infections, important steps that must not be overlooked during pedicure are:
Correct Answer
A. Cleaning and disenfecting
Explanation
During a pedicure, it is crucial to clean and disinfect the tools and equipment used to prevent infections. Cleaning ensures that any dirt or debris is removed, while disinfecting kills any bacteria or viruses present. This is important because pedicures involve contact with the feet, which can carry bacteria or fungi. By properly cleaning and disinfecting, the risk of infections, such as nail fungus or bacterial infections, is significantly reduced.
41.
The nail tip adhesive used to secured the nail tip to a natural nail is also called:
Correct Answer
C. Bonding agent
Explanation
A bonding agent is a type of nail tip adhesive that is used to secure the nail tip to a natural nail. It helps create a strong bond between the two surfaces, ensuring that the nail tip stays in place. This adhesive is specifically designed for nail applications and is commonly used in the nail industry. It is not the same as a buffer wrap, abrasive wrap, or adhesion agent, which have different purposes in nail care.
42.
Fabrics wraps are made from silk, fiberglass, and:
Correct Answer
A. Linen
Explanation
Fabrics wraps are made from silk, fiberglass, and linen. Linen is a natural fabric made from the fibers of the flax plant. It is known for its durability, breathability, and ability to absorb moisture. Linen wraps are commonly used for various purposes such as clothing, upholstery, and home decor due to their strength and natural properties.
43.
Performed nail extensions made from tenite acetate plastic are:
Correct Answer
D. Nail tips
Explanation
Nail tips are made from tenite acetate plastic and are used to extend the length of natural nails. They are applied using adhesive and can be shaped and filed to achieve the desired look. Unlike nail forms, which are used as a guide to create a nail extension, nail tips are pre-made and come in various sizes and shapes. Linen wraps and gel products are not made from tenite acetate plastic and are not used for nail extensions.
44.
A nail supply that is placed under the free edge to form a nail enhancement is a:
Correct Answer
C. Nail form
Explanation
A nail form is a tool used in nail enhancements to create an extended nail. It is placed under the free edge of the natural nail and acts as a guide for the nail technician to apply the nail enhancement material, such as acrylic or gel, to create a longer nail. The nail form provides support and structure for the nail enhancement, allowing it to adhere properly and create a desired shape.
45.
Traditionally, UV gels relied on urethane acrylate; newer gel systems use:
Correct Answer
C. Urethane methacrylates
Explanation
UV gels have traditionally used urethane acrylate as the main component. However, newer gel systems have shifted towards using urethane methacrylates instead. Urethane methacrylates offer improved properties such as better adhesion, flexibility, and durability compared to urethane acrylate. This shift in gel systems is likely due to the desire for enhanced performance and longevity in UV gel applications.
46.
The third UV gel applied is called the:
Correct Answer
A. Finisher UV gel
Explanation
The third UV gel applied is called the "finisher UV gel" because it is used as the final layer to provide a glossy and smooth finish to the nails. This gel is specifically designed to seal and protect the previous layers of gel and enhance the overall appearance of the manicure. It helps to give the nails a polished and professional look, making it the perfect choice for the last step in the UV gel application process.
47.
The sealer or finisher layer of a UV gel product covers the entire nail surface and is wrapped under the natural free edge to:
Correct Answer
A. Seal and protect coatings
Explanation
The sealer or finisher layer of a UV gel product is applied to seal and protect the coatings on the nail surface. This layer acts as a barrier, preventing any damage or wear to the underlying layers of gel polish or color. It helps to maintain the longevity and durability of the nail coating, ensuring that it remains intact and does not chip or peel easily. Additionally, the sealer layer also provides a smooth and even surface, helping to even out any imperfections or unevenness on the nail.
48.
To be successful in sales, you need ambition,determination, and a:
Correct Answer
D. Good personality
Explanation
To be successful in sales, having a good personality is crucial. A good personality helps in building rapport with clients, gaining their trust, and effectively communicating and persuading them. It involves being friendly, approachable, and having good interpersonal skills. A good personality also includes being professional, confident, and having a positive attitude, which are all essential qualities for salespeople to excel in their field.
49.
To become a proficient salesperson, adapt your approach and technique to meet the needs and personality of:
Correct Answer
D. Each client
Explanation
To become a proficient salesperson, it is important to adapt your approach and technique to meet the needs and personality of each client. This means understanding that different clients will have different questions, expectations, and requirements. By tailoring your approach to each individual client, you can effectively address their concerns, provide relevant information, and build a stronger rapport. This personalized approach demonstrates a commitment to understanding and meeting the unique needs of each client, which can ultimately lead to more successful sales outcomes.
50.
Two of the most important factors in predicting the success of a business are:
Correct Answer
B. Good visibility and accessibility
Explanation
Good visibility and accessibility are important factors in predicting the success of a business because they determine how easily customers can find and access the business. A business that is easily visible and accessible is more likely to attract customers and generate sales. It allows potential customers to become aware of the business and makes it convenient for them to visit. This can lead to increased foot traffic, customer satisfaction, and ultimately, business success.