CST Practice Exam Test

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Questions: 48 | Attempts: 47,655 | Updated: Oct 20, 2024

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Are you preparing to be a surgical technologist? Get ready to take our CST practice exam test. The primary function of a certified surgical technologist is to assist surgeons and other medical practitioners in operating rooms. They help patients get ready to undergo surgical procedures. To qualify and become a surgical technologist, you must ensure that you pass the CST exam. Give this quiz a shot and see how well-prepared you are to tackle the finals. All the best!

Questions and Answers

1.

What is the best shielding against gamma rays?
- A.
  
  Tin
- B.
  
  Lead
- C.
  
  Steel
- D.
  
  Rubber
Correct Answer
B. Lead

Explanation
Lead is the best shielding against gamma rays because it has a high atomic number and density, which allows it to effectively absorb and attenuate the gamma radiation. Lead is commonly used in various applications, such as medical imaging and radiation therapy, where protection against gamma rays is necessary. Its dense structure helps to block and scatter the gamma rays, reducing their penetration and protecting individuals from harmful radiation exposure.

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2.

Which of the following is an acceptable placement area for the electrosurgical ground pad for a patient in the lithotomy position?
- A.
  
  Upper arm
- B.
  
  Upper buttock
- C.
  
  Anterior thigh
- D.
  
  Posterior shoulder
Correct Answer
B. Upper buttock

Explanation
When a patient is in the lithotomy position during a surgical procedure, an acceptable placement area for the electrosurgical ground pad is the upper buttock. This location ensures effective grounding during the use of electrosurgical instruments, helping to prevent electrical burns or injury to the patient.

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3.

What is the position of choice for breast surgery?
- A.
  
  Prone
- B.
  
  Dorsal Recumbent
- C.
  
  Lateral
- D.
  
  Lithotomy
Correct Answer
B. Dorsal Recumbent

Explanation
Dorsal recumbent position, also known as the supine position, is the preferred position for breast surgery. In this position, the patient lies flat on their back with their arms at their sides or slightly abducted. This position provides optimal access to the breast area for surgical procedures while ensuring the patient's comfort and safety. It allows the surgeon to easily access and visualize the breast tissue, facilitating precise and effective surgical techniques. Additionally, it is conducive to monitoring the patient's vital signs and ensuring proper ventilation during the procedure. Overall, the dorsal recumbent position is widely used for various breast surgeries due to its practicality and advantages in surgical access and patient care.

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4.

When an anesthetized patient's position is changed from lithotomy to supine, the patient's leg should be lowered slowly to prevent:
- A.
  
  Hypertension
- B.
  
  Laryngospasm
- C.
  
  Respiratory
- D.
  
  Circulatory depression
Correct Answer
D. Circulatory depression

Explanation
When an anesthetized patient's position is changed from lithotomy (where the legs are elevated and flexed) to supine (lying flat on the back), the legs should be lowered slowly. This gradual movement helps prevent circulatory depression, which refers to a decrease in blood flow throughout the body. Rapid changes in position, especially from elevated to flat, can cause a sudden redistribution of blood volume and pressure, potentially leading to circulatory instability. Lowering the legs slowly allows for a smoother transition, minimizing the risk of circulatory depression and its associated complications, such as decreased blood pressure and inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Overall, this cautious approach helps ensure the patient's safety and well-being during the perioperative period.

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5.

Hair removed during preparation for cranial surgery should be:
- A.
  
  Discarded
- B.
  
  Sent to pathology
- C.
  
  Saved for possible transplant
- D.
  
  Saved because it is personal property
Correct Answer
D. Saved because it is personal property

Explanation
Hair removed for a surgical procedure is considered the patient's personal property. Hospitals and medical facilities have policies in place to respect patient autonomy and cultural or religious beliefs regarding personal belongings, including hair. While options like discarding or sending it to pathology might seem practical, they disregard the patient's right to decide what happens to their body and belongings.

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6.

The lower leg of a patient in the lateral position for kidney surgery should be:
- A.
  
  Flexed
- B.
  
  Extended
- C.
  
  Abducted
- D.
  
  Externally Rotated
Correct Answer
A. Flexed

Explanation
In kidney surgery, positioning the patient in the lateral position with the lower leg flexed allows for optimal access to the surgical site while ensuring the patient's comfort. Flexing the lower leg helps to create space and flexibility for the surgical team to perform the procedure effectively. This positioning also helps to minimize pressure points and potential complications associated with prolonged immobility during surgery.

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7.

Which item is required when setting up a D&C?
- A.
  
  Stirrups
- B.
  
  Cell-saver unit
- C.
  
  Cassette holder
- D.
  
  Electrosurgery unit
Correct Answer
A. Stirrups

Explanation
Stirrups are required for setting up a D&C. They secure the patient's legs in a lithotomy position, facilitating access to the cervix and uterus during the procedure. Stirrups ensure stability and comfort throughout the surgery, aiding in maintaining the patient's position. They play a crucial role in optimizing the surgical environment, allowing the medical team to perform the procedure effectively and safely.

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8.

What is the usual position chosen for hemorrhoidectomy?
- A.
  
  Lateral
- B.
  
  Supine
- C.
  
  Knee-chest
- D.
  
  Jack-knife
Correct Answer
D. Jack-knife

Explanation
The usual position chosen for hemorrhoidectomy is the "Jack-knife" position. In this position, the patient lies prone with their hips elevated and their knees and chest lowered. This position provides optimal access to the anal area for the surgical procedure.

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9.

What position of choice is for a transurethral prostatectomy (TURP)?
- A.
  
  Sims
- B.
  
  Lateral
- C.
  
  Lithotomy
- D.
  
  Supine
Correct Answer
C. Lithotomy

Explanation
Lithotomy position is the position of choice for a transurethral prostatectomy (TURP). In this position, the patient lies on their back with their legs raised and flexed, allowing for better access to the surgical site. This position provides optimal exposure and accessibility to the urethra and prostate, facilitating the procedure. The Sims position is used for rectal examinations, the lateral position is used for certain surgeries, and the supine position is commonly used for general surgeries but not specifically for TURP.

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10.

Which of the following is a normal adult white blood cell count?
- A.
  
  1000 to 2000
- B.
  
  5000 to 9000
- C.
  
  12000 to 15000
- D.
  
  20000 to 25000
Correct Answer
B. 5000 to 9000

Explanation
A normal adult white blood cell count typically ranges from 5000 to 9000 cells per microliter (µL) of blood. White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, play a crucial role in the body's immune system, defending against infections and diseases. The normal range ensures proper immune function and indicates a healthy immune response to pathogens. Deviations from this range may indicate underlying health conditions and require further evaluation.

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11.

Which of the following is the most common straight catheter used prior to laparoscopic gynecological surgery in the OR?
- A.
  
  Robinson
- B.
  
  Pezzer
- C.
  
  Malecot
- D.
  
  Foley
Correct Answer
D. Foley

Explanation
The most common straight catheter used prior to laparoscopic gynecological surgery in the operating room is the Foley catheter. Foley catheters are widely used for urinary drainage during surgical procedures due to their flexibility, ease of insertion, and ability to remain securely in place. In gynecological surgeries, including laparoscopic procedures, a Foley catheter may be inserted to drain the bladder and maintain urinary output during surgery, ensuring a clear surgical field and minimizing the risk of bladder injury.

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12.

What area of the body is prepped for an ORIF of the humerus?
- A.
  
  Arm, foot to shoulder
- B.
  
  Leg, foot to hip
- C.
  
  Arm, fingers to shoulder
- D.
  
  Arm, fingers to elbow
Correct Answer
C. Arm, fingers to shoulder

Explanation
For an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the humerus, the area of the body prepped typically extends from the fingers to the shoulder. This preparation ensures a sterile surgical field encompassing the entire arm, allowing the surgical team to access the fractured bone and perform the procedure effectively. Proper prepping of the arm minimizes the risk of infection and promotes successful surgical outcomes.

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13.

Which item may be used in positioning a patient for a total hip replacement?
- A.
  
  Stirrups
- B.
  
  Wilson frame
- C.
  
  Andrews frame
- D.
  
  Beanbag
Correct Answer
D. Beanbag

Explanation
A beanbag may be used in positioning a patient for a total hip replacement. Beanbags provide flexible support and stability, allowing the surgical team to achieve optimal positioning while minimizing pressure points and ensuring patient comfort. They can be molded and adjusted to accommodate the patient's body shape and surgical requirements, facilitating proper alignment of the hip joint during the procedure.

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14.

Instruments that touch the appendix during an appendectomy should be:
- A.
  
  Placed in a separate basin
- B.
  
  Wiped with a saline sponge
- C.
  
  Returned to the Mayo stand
- D.
  
  Wiped with an alcohol sponge
Correct Answer
A. Placed in a separate basin

Explanation
Instruments that touch the appendix during an appendectomy should be placed in a separate basin. This practice helps to prevent cross-contamination and potential infection transmission. By segregating instruments that come into contact with contaminated tissues, surgical teams maintain a sterile field and reduce the risk of postoperative complications for the patient. Proper handling and disposal of contaminated instruments are essential aspects of surgical site infection prevention protocols.

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15.

In which procedure is a microscope used?
- A.
  
  Tracheostomy
- B.
  
  Radical neck
- C.
  
  Tonsillectomy
- D.
  
  Stapedectomy
Correct Answer
D. Stapedectomy

Explanation
A microscope is used in a stapedectomy procedure. Stapedectomy is a surgical procedure performed to treat certain types of hearing loss caused by abnormalities of the stapes bone in the middle ear. The use of a microscope allows the surgeon to visualize the tiny structures of the middle ear with high magnification and precision, facilitating delicate maneuvers and ensuring optimal surgical outcomes.

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16.

Which procedure would indicate the use of a tourniquet?
- A.
  
  Patellectomy
- B.
  
  ORIF hip
- C.
  
  Arthroscopy of shoulder
- D.
  
  Femoral, popliteal bypass
Correct Answer
A. Patellectomy

Explanation
The procedure that would indicate the use of a tourniquet is a Patellectomy. A tourniquet is often applied to the upper thigh during a patellectomy to control blood flow to the lower extremity and minimize bleeding during surgery. This helps maintain a clear surgical field and allows the surgical team to perform the procedure safely and effectively. Tourniquet use is common in orthopedic surgeries involving the lower extremities to optimize surgical conditions and reduce blood loss.

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17.

Bleeding during a transurethral resection prostate (TURP) is controlled by:
- A.
  
  Gelfoam
- B.
  
  Irrigation
- C.
  
  Cauterization
- D.
  
  Suture ligature
Correct Answer
C. Cauterization

Explanation
Bleeding during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) is typically controlled by cauterization. In this procedure, an instrument called a resectoscope is inserted through the urethra to remove excess prostate tissue that is causing obstruction. Cauterization involves the use of an electrically heated wire loop or laser to coagulate blood vessels and stop bleeding. This technique helps maintain a clear surgical field and minimize the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure.

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18.

Bellucci scissors are used in which of the following specialties?
- A.
  
  Gynecology
- B.
  
  Otorhinolaryngology
- C.
  
  General
- D.
  
  Plastic and Reconstructive
Correct Answer
B. Otorhinolaryngology

Explanation
Bellucci scissors are primarily used in otorhinolaryngology, which deals with the diagnosis and treatment of conditions affecting the ear, nose, and throat (ENT). These scissors are specially designed for surgical procedures involving the delicate structures of the ENT region. Bellucci scissors have long, slender blades with a gentle curve and sharp tips, which make them ideal for precise dissection and cutting in confined spaces, such as the nasal cavities or ear canals. The fine tips allow surgeons to manipulate and navigate around delicate tissues while minimizing trauma and improving visibility during ENT procedures.

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19.

In strabismus surgery, what is the first tissue layer that must be incised?
- A.
  
  Iris
- B.
  
  Cornea
- C.
  
  Scelera
- D.
  
  Conjunctiva
Correct Answer
D. Conjunctiva

Explanation
In strabismus surgery, the first tissue layer that must be incised is the conjunctiva. This thin, transparent membrane covers the white part of the eye (sclera) and the inner surface of the eyelids. Incising the conjunctiva provides access to the underlying eye muscles that need to be adjusted or repositioned during strabismus surgery. By carefully making an incision in the conjunctiva, surgeons can perform the necessary corrective procedures to align the eyes properly.

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20.

What is the suturing technique in which short lateral stitches are taken beneath the epithelial layer of skin?
- A.
  
  Purse-string
- B.
  
  Traction
- C.
  
  Mattress
- D.
  
  Subcuticular
Correct Answer
D. Subcuticular

Explanation
The suturing technique known as subcuticular involves taking short lateral stitches beneath the epithelial layer of the skin. This technique is often used for cosmetic purposes as it results in minimal scarring. Subcuticular sutures are placed just beneath the surface of the skin, providing excellent wound approximation and promoting optimal healing. Additionally, subcuticular sutures are less likely to cause irritation or discomfort compared to other techniques, making them ideal for certain types of surgical closures.

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21.

Which of the following catheters is used for embolectomies?
- A.
  
  Foley
- B.
  
  Fogarty
- C.
  
  Malecot
- D.
  
  Angiocath
Correct Answer
B. Fogarty

Explanation
The catheter used for embolectomies is the Fogarty catheter. This catheter features an inflatable balloon tip that can be passed through blood vessels to locate and remove blood clots (emboli) causing blockages. The balloon is inflated distal to the clot, allowing it to be gently extracted from the vessel, restoring blood flow. The Fogarty catheter is specifically designed for embolectomy procedures and is widely used in vascular surgery.

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22.

Which of the following instruments should be on a set-up for a TURP?
- A.
  
  Lithotrite
- B.
  
  Urethrotome
- C.
  
  Resectoscope
- D.
  
  Gaylor biopsy forceps
Correct Answer
C. Resectoscope

Explanation
A TURP (transurethral resection of the prostate) is a surgical procedure used to treat an enlarged prostate. During this procedure, the surgeon uses a resectoscope, which is a specialized instrument that allows them to remove excess prostate tissue. The resectoscope has a long, thin tube with a light and a camera attached to it, as well as a cutting tool that can be used to remove the tissue. Therefore, the correct instrument that should be on a set-up for a TURP is a resectoscope.

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23.

Which of the following instruments has teeth?
- A.
  
  Allis
- B.
  
  Mixter
- C.
  
  Babcock
- D.
  
  Mosquito
Correct Answer
A. Allis

Explanation
The Allis forceps is the instrument that has teeth. It is a grasping instrument commonly used in surgical procedures to hold and manipulate tissues, such as skin or fascia. The Allis forceps features sharp, interlocking teeth along its jaws, which provide a firm grip on the tissue without slipping during manipulation. This allows surgeons to securely grasp and retract tissues during various surgical procedures, facilitating precise dissection and manipulation.

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24.

Which of the following is the active electrode on the electrosurgical unit?
- A.
  
  Wall plug
- B.
  
  Grounding pad
- C.
  
  Pencil
- D.
  
  Voltage intensity dial
Correct Answer
C. Pencil

Explanation
The active electrode on the electrosurgical unit is the pencil. The electrosurgical pencil, also known as the handpiece or active electrode, is the tool held by the surgeon during the procedure. It delivers the electrical current to the target tissue for cutting or coagulation purposes. The pencil allows the surgeon to control the application of electrical energy directly to the surgical site with precision, enabling efficient tissue manipulation.

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25.

When a cholecystectomy is performed, what anatomical structure must always be preserved?
- A.
  
  Cystic duct
- B.
  
  Cystic vein
- C.
  
  Common duct
- D.
  
  Cystic artery
Correct Answer
C. Common duct

Explanation
During a cholecystectomy (surgical removal of the gallbladder), the common bile duct must be carefully preserved. This duct is essential for the transport of bile from the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine, where it aids in digestion. Damage to the common bile duct can lead to serious complications, including bile leaks, jaundice, and pain.

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26.

Kelly clamps are primarily used for:
- A.
  
  Grasping
- B.
  
  Crushing
- C.
  
  Exposure
- D.
  
  Hemostasis
Correct Answer
D. Hemostasis

Explanation
Kelly clamps are primarily used for hemostasis, which refers to the control or stopping of bleeding. These clamps are designed to securely grasp blood vessels, allowing for temporary closure and preventing excessive bleeding during surgical procedures. By applying pressure to the vessels, Kelly clamps help to achieve hemostasis and maintain a clear surgical field, ensuring safe and successful surgeries.

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27.

In order to prevent a loop colostomy from sliding back into the abdominal cavity, it may be supported with a(n):
- A.
  
  Stone clamp
- B.
  
  Adaptic gauze
- C.
  
  Montgomery strap
- D.
  
  Plastic or glass rod
Correct Answer
D. Plastic or glass rod

Explanation
To prevent a loop colostomy from sliding back into the abdominal cavity, it can be supported with a plastic or glass rod. This rod provides stability and prevents the colostomy from retracting. Stone clamps are used to grasp and remove stones, not for supporting a colostomy. Adaptic gauze is a non-adherent dressing used for wound care, not for supporting a colostomy. Montgomery strap is used to secure dressings or tubes, not for supporting a colostomy. Therefore, the most appropriate option is a plastic or glass rod.

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28.

In preparation for a cranial aneurysm, which of the following pieces of equipment would MOST likely be used?
- A.
  
  Microscope
- B.
  
  Cryoprobe
- C.
  
  Jordan Day drill
- D.
  
  Crutchfield tongs
Correct Answer
A. Microscope

Explanation
In preparation for a cranial aneurysm, a microscope would most likely be used. A microscope is commonly used in neurosurgery to provide magnification and visualization of delicate structures in the brain. It allows surgeons to accurately identify and manipulate the blood vessels involved in the aneurysm, increasing the precision and safety of the procedure. The other options, cryoprobe, Jordan Day drill, and Crutchfield tongs, are not typically used in the preparation phase of a cranial aneurysm.

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29.

A resectoscope is used to resect the
- A.
  
  Ovaries
- B.
  
  Prostate
- C.
  
  Vas deferens
- D.
  
  Fallopian tubes
Correct Answer
B. Prostate

Explanation
A resectoscope is used to resect the prostate

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30.

What has the most accurate method of checking the effectiveness of an autoclave?
- A.
  
  Heat indicators
- B.
  
  Swab culture tests
- C.
  
  Heat-sensitive tape
- D.
  
  Biological controls
Correct Answer
D. Biological controls

Explanation
Biological controls are the most accurate method of checking the effectiveness of an autoclave because they involve using live microorganisms that are known to be resistant to the sterilization process. These controls are placed in the autoclave along with the items being sterilized, and if the autoclave is working properly, the controls should be killed off. By monitoring the survival or death of these controls, it can be determined if the autoclave is effectively sterilizing the items. Heat indicators, swab culture tests, and heat-sensitive tape can provide some indication of sterilization, but they do not provide the same level of accuracy as biological controls.

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31.

Which of the following destroys vegetative organisms and spores?
- A.
  
  Germicide
- B.
  
  Antiseptic
- C.
  
  Sterilizing agent
- D.
  
  Bacteriostatic agent
Correct Answer
C. Sterilizing agent

Explanation
A sterilizing agent is capable of destroying both vegetative organisms and spores. This is because sterilization is the process of completely eliminating all forms of microbial life, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and their spores. Sterilizing agents are designed to achieve this level of microbial destruction, making them effective in eliminating both vegetative organisms and spores. Germicides, antiseptics, and bacteriostatic agents may be effective against certain types of microorganisms, but they may not be capable of completely destroying spores, which makes sterilizing agents the correct answer in this context.

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32.

Which of the following solutions should be used for disinfecting endoscopic instruments?
- A.
  
  Iodophors
- B.
  
  Ethyl alcohol 70%
- C.
  
  Phenolic compounds
- D.
  
  Activated glutaraldehyde
Correct Answer
D. Activated glutaraldehyde

Explanation
Activated glutaraldehyde should be used for disinfecting endoscopic instruments. Glutaraldehyde is a powerful disinfectant that can effectively kill a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. When glutaraldehyde is activated, it becomes even more potent and can provide high-level disinfection. This makes it an ideal choice for disinfecting endoscopic instruments, which require thorough and effective sterilization to prevent the transmission of infections. Iodophors, ethyl alcohol 70%, and phenolic compounds may have disinfectant properties but are not as effective or suitable for disinfecting endoscopic instruments as activated glutaraldehyde.

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33.

Which of the following is the MOST resistant to the sterilization processes?
- A.
  
  Virus
- B.
  
  Spore
- C.
  
  Spirochete
- D.
  
  Tubercle bacillus
Correct Answer
B. Spore

Explanation
Spores are the most resistant to sterilization processes because they have a protective outer layer that allows them to withstand extreme conditions, such as high temperatures, chemicals, and radiation. This outer layer acts as a shield, preventing the sterilization agents from reaching and destroying the spore. In contrast, viruses, spirochetes, and tubercle bacilli are not as resistant to sterilization processes because they lack this protective layer.

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34.

One factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization is:
- A.
  
  Indirect contact
- B.
  
  Gravity displacement
- C.
  
  Humidity
- D.
  
  Saturated steam
Correct Answer
C. Humidity

Explanation
Humidity is a factor that affects ethylene oxide sterilization. Ethylene oxide is a gas sterilant that requires a certain level of humidity to be effective. The presence of moisture in the sterilization process helps to facilitate the penetration of the gas into the material being sterilized. Without sufficient humidity, the ethylene oxide may not be able to fully penetrate the items being sterilized, leading to incomplete sterilization. Therefore, humidity is an important factor to consider when using ethylene oxide sterilization.

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35.

Which of the following would an antiseptic be used on?
- A.
  
  Skin surface
- B.
  
  Anesthesia masks
- C.
  
  Intravenous tubing
- D.
  
  Operating room table
Correct Answer
A. Skin surface

Explanation
An antiseptic is a substance that is used to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the skin surface. It is commonly used to clean and disinfect wounds, cuts, and abrasions. Therefore, an antiseptic would be used on the skin surface to prevent infection and promote healing. Anesthesia masks, intravenous tubing, and operating room tables are not typically treated with antiseptics as they serve different purposes in medical procedures.

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36.

Which of the following types of connective tissue fastens muscle to the bone?
- A.
  
  Tendon
- B.
  
  Ligament
- C.
  
  Cartilage
- D.
  
  Areolar
Correct Answer
A. Tendon

Explanation
Tendons are the correct answer because they are a type of connective tissue that attaches muscles to bones. They are strong and flexible, allowing for movement and providing stability to the joints. Tendons transmit the force generated by the muscle to the bone, allowing for movement and mobility.

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37.

A fluid-filled sac or cavity that prevents friction within a joint is known as a:
- A.
  
  Bursa
- B.
  
  Tendon
- C.
  
  Ganglion
- D.
  
  Ligament
Correct Answer
A. Bursa

Explanation
A bursa is a fluid-filled sac or cavity that acts as a cushion or padding between bones, tendons, and muscles. It helps to reduce friction and allows smooth movement within a joint. Bursae are found in various parts of the body, including the shoulder, knee, and elbow joints. They provide lubrication and help to absorb shock, thereby preventing damage to the joint.

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38.

Cancer cells MOST often migrate to other parts of the body through which of the following systems?
- A.
  
  Skeletal
- B.
  
  Lymphatic
- C.
  
  Endocrine
- D.
  
  Respiratory
Correct Answer
B. LympHatic

Explanation
Cancer cells most often migrate to other parts of the body through the lymphatic system. The lymphatic system is responsible for transporting lymph, a fluid that contains white blood cells, throughout the body. Cancer cells can enter the lymphatic vessels and travel to nearby lymph nodes or to distant organs through the lymphatic system. This is a common pathway for the spread of cancer, known as metastasis.

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39.

The parathyroid gland regulates
- A.
  
  Protein
- B.
  
  Calcium
- C.
  
  Sodium
- D.
  
  Bicarbonate
Correct Answer
B. Calcium

Explanation
The parathyroid gland regulates calcium levels in the body. It produces parathyroid hormone (PTH), which acts to increase blood calcium levels. PTH stimulates the release of calcium from bones, enhances calcium absorption in the intestines, and reduces calcium excretion by the kidneys. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining calcium homeostasis, which is vital for various physiological processes such as nerve function, muscle contraction, and bone health.

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40.

Aerobic organisms are BEST characterized as:
- A.
  
  Pathogenic
- B.
  
  Non-pathogenic
- C.
  
  Oxygen-requiring
- D.
  
  Non-oxygen-requiring
Correct Answer
C. Oxygen-requiring

Explanation
Aerobic organisms are characterized as oxygen-requiring because they require oxygen to carry out their metabolic processes. These organisms use oxygen in a process called aerobic respiration, which produces energy for their survival. Without oxygen, they would not be able to generate enough energy to sustain their life functions. Therefore, oxygen-requiring is the most accurate characterization for aerobic organisms.

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41.

When an aseptic break technique occurs, the scrub should:
- A.
  
  Notify the circulator and leave the decision to him/her.
- B.
  
  Notify the person who broke the technique and correct the problem.
- C.
  
  Notify the OR supervisor and leave the decision to him/her.
- D.
  
  Say nothing
Correct Answer
B. Notify the person who broke the technique and correct the problem.

Explanation
In the event of an aseptic break technique, it is important for the scrub to notify the person who broke the technique and correct the problem. This is because the person who caused the break needs to be made aware of their mistake and take immediate action to rectify it. Leaving the decision to the circulator or OR supervisor may cause unnecessary delays and potentially compromise patient safety. Therefore, it is crucial for the scrub to address the issue directly with the person responsible for the break and ensure that proper aseptic technique is followed.

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42.

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a disease is a:
- A.
  
  Fomite
- B.
  
  Vector
- C.
  
  Carrier
- D.
  
  Arthropod
Correct Answer
A. Fomite

Explanation
A fomite is an inanimate object that can harbor and transmit a disease. Unlike a vector, which is usually a living organism that carries and transmits a disease, a fomite does not have any biological activity. It can include objects such as doorknobs, countertops, or clothing that can become contaminated with pathogens and pass them on to individuals who come into contact with them. A carrier refers to an individual who has the pathogen in their body but may not show symptoms, while an arthropod is a type of invertebrate animal, such as a mosquito or tick, that can transmit diseases.

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43.

When two individuals in sterile attire pass one another in the sterile field, they should:
- A.
  
  Pass back-to-back
- B.
  
  Both face the wall
- C.
  
  Pass side-to-side
- D.
  
  Both face the sterile field.
Correct Answer
A. Pass back-to-back

Explanation
When two individuals in sterile attire pass one another in the sterile field, they should pass back-to-back. This is because passing side-to-side or facing the wall would increase the risk of contamination as their bodies or attire may come into contact with each other or with non-sterile surfaces. By passing back-to-back, they minimize the chance of contamination and maintain the sterility of the environment. Both facing the sterile field is not necessary as it does not provide any additional benefit in terms of preventing contamination.

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44.

What is the local tissue reaction of the body to injury?
- A.
  
  Fever
- B.
  
  Infection
- C.
  
  Inflammation
- D.
  
  Immune reaction
Correct Answer
C. Inflammation

Explanation
Inflammation is the local tissue reaction of the body to injury. When the body is injured, it responds by releasing chemicals that cause blood vessels to dilate, leading to increased blood flow to the affected area. This results in redness, heat, swelling, and pain. Inflammation is a natural response that helps the body to remove harmful stimuli, initiate the healing process, and restore normal tissue function.

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45.

Which of the following characterize bacteria of the genus Clostridium?
- A.
  
  Aerobic
- B.
  
  Anaerobic
- C.
  
  Coagulase-negative
- D.
  
  Nonspore-forming
Correct Answer
B. Anaerobic

Explanation
Bacteria of the genus Clostridium are characterized as anaerobic, meaning they do not require oxygen for growth and can even be harmed by its presence. This is a key characteristic of Clostridium bacteria and distinguishes them from aerobic bacteria that require oxygen for survival.

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46.

Cleaning the operating room prior to the first scheduled procedure of the day should:
- A.
  
  Include flat surfaces of tables and equipment.
- B.
  
  Be done with a dry towel.
- C.
  
  Be done with an antiseptic.
- D.
  
  Concentrate on anesthetic equipment.
Correct Answer
A. Include flat surfaces of tables and equipment.

Explanation
Cleaning the operating room prior to the first scheduled procedure of the day should include flat surfaces of tables and equipment. This is important because these surfaces can harbor bacteria and other pathogens that can potentially cause infections. By cleaning these surfaces, the risk of contamination and infection can be minimized, ensuring a safe and sterile environment for the surgical procedure. Using a dry towel or an antiseptic may not be sufficient for thorough cleaning, and concentrating only on anesthetic equipment may neglect other potential sources of contamination.

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47.

Sodium bicarbonate is administered to treat which of the following?
- A.
  
  Acidosis
- B.
  
  Alkalosis
- C.
  
  Hypotension
- D.
  
  Hypertension
Correct Answer
A. Acidosis

Explanation
Sodium bicarbonate is administered to treat acidosis because it acts as a buffer and helps to neutralize excess acid in the body. Acidosis occurs when there is an accumulation of acid or a loss of bicarbonate in the body, leading to a decrease in pH levels. By administering sodium bicarbonate, the bicarbonate ions can combine with hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid, which can then be easily eliminated from the body, restoring the pH balance.

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48.

In an emergency, which of the following drugs may be used to raise the patient's blood pressure?
- A.
  
  Morphine sulfate
- B.
  
  Procaine (Novocaine)
- C.
  
  Succinylcholine (Anectine)
- D.
  
  Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
Correct Answer
D. EpinepHrine (Adrenalin)

Explanation
Epinephrine (Adrenalin) can be used to raise a patient's blood pressure in an emergency situation. Epinephrine is a hormone that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, leading to increased heart rate and vasoconstriction, which can elevate blood pressure. It is commonly used in emergency medicine to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) and cardiac arrest. By activating the body's "fight or flight" response, epinephrine helps to improve blood flow and maintain vital organ perfusion during critical situations.

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Current Version
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Dec 08, 2009

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Which of the following characterize bacteria of the genus Clostridium?

Cleaning the operating room prior to the first scheduled procedure of the day should:

Sodium bicarbonate is administered to treat which of the following?

In an emergency, which of the following drugs may be used to raise the patient's blood pressure?