Practice Exam III
Practice Exam III focuses on key topics for surgical technologists, covering patient safety, preoperative procedures, and specific treatments.
- 1.
Patient safety and hospital efficiency and effectiveness are related to ____.
- A.
The type of computer system in use
- B.
The size of the hospital
- C.
Consistent communication
- D.
Clearer printing on all paper work
Correct Answer
C. Consistent communicationExplanation
CHAPTER 1—ORIENTATION TO SURGICAL TECHNOLOGYRate this question:
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- 2.
Preoperative diagnostic studies are performed by the ____.
- A.
Medical laboratory
- B.
Diagnostic imaging department
- C.
Pathology department
- D.
Emergency department
Correct Answer
B. Diagnostic imaging departmentExplanation
CHAPTER 1—ORIENTATION TO SURGICAL TECHNOLOGYRate this question:
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- 3.
Treatment that might provide assistance for stereotactic surgery is the ____.
- A.
Medical laboratory
- B.
Diagnostic imaging department
- C.
ICU
- D.
Central supply department
Correct Answer
B. Diagnostic imaging departmentExplanation
CHAPTER 1—ORIENTATION TO SURGICAL TECHNOLOGYRate this question:
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- 4.
When wWhen was the first national certifying exam for the surgical technologist offered?
- A.
Dec. 1970
- B.
Jan. 1954
- C.
Sept. 1992
- D.
Mar. 1981
Correct Answer
A. Dec. 1970Explanation
CHAPTER 1—ORIENTATION TO SURGICAL TECHNOLOGYRate this question:
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- 5.
The needs or activities related to one’s identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being?
- A.
Social
- B.
Psychological
- C.
Physical
- D.
Physiological
Correct Answer
A. SocialExplanation
CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENTRate this question:
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- 6.
A uterine fibroid is an example of what type of factor causing surgical intervention?
- A.
Trauma
- B.
Genetic malformation
- C.
Nonmalignant neoplasm
- D.
Metabolic disease
Correct Answer
C. Nonmalignant neoplasmExplanation
CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENTRate this question:
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- 7.
One of O One of the advantages to the life stage approach is that it ____.
- A.
Focuses on sexual development
- B.
Explains cognitive development
- C.
Does not require advanced levels of education to apply
- D.
Explains affective learning
Correct Answer
C. Does not require advanced levels of education to applyExplanation
CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENTRate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following considerations may be more relevant to the elderly patient than to an adolescent?
- A.
Patient’s skin condition
- B.
Informed consent
- C.
Environmental safety
- D.
Anesthetic agent
Correct Answer
A. Patient’s skin conditionExplanation
CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENTRate this question:
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- 9.
When positioning the elderly patient, the team must be especially aware of ____.
- A.
The patient’s need to do things independently
- B.
An overly modest attitude
- C.
The need for speed
- D.
Loss of mobility in joints
Correct Answer
D. Loss of mobility in jointsExplanation
CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENTRate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following cannot be performed by the child of less than 6 months of age?
- A.
Shiver
- B.
Cry loudly
- C.
Urinate
- D.
Vomit
Correct Answer
A. ShiverExplanation
CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENTRate this question:
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- 11.
Wha The What is the number of air exchanges required to keep the amount of airborne contamination in the OR to a minimum?
- A.
20
- B.
30
- C.
60
- D.
120
Correct Answer
A. 20Explanation
CHAPTER 3—THE SURGICAL PATIENTRate this question:
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- 12.
The area where patients wait within the department before entering the OR is called____.
- A.
Anesthesia holding
- B.
Same day surgery
- C.
Postoperative holding
- D.
Preoperative holding
Correct Answer
D. Preoperative holdingExplanation
CHAPTER 5—PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENT AND SAFETY STANDARDSRate this question:
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- 13.
The abse The Absence of microbes or infection is called ____. The a
- A.
Sterile
- B.
Surgically clean
- C.
Decontamination
- D.
Disinfection
Correct Answer
A. SterileExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 14.
The abs TThe contamination of a person or object by another person or object is called ____.
- A.
Cross contamination
- B.
Infection
- C.
Sepsis
- D.
Pathogenesis
Correct Answer
A. Cross contaminationExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 15.
Methods used to prevent contamination of the sterile field are referred to as ____.
- A.
sporicidal
- B.
Sterile technique
- C.
Antisepsis
- D.
surgical conscience
Correct Answer
B. Sterile techniqueExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 16.
Escherichia coli normally resides in the lumen of the ____.
- A.
Esophagus
- B.
Trachea
- C.
Intestine
- D.
Urethra
Correct Answer
C. IntestineExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 17.
The primary source of airborne bacteria transmission in the operating room is the ____.
- A.
Patient
- B.
Anesthesia equipment
- C.
Surgical team
- D.
Electrocautery
Correct Answer
C. Surgical teamExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 18.
Nonsterile items and individuals may ____.
- A.
Only contact nonsterile items
- B.
NOT contact any other item
- C.
Contact sterile items
- D.
Contact disinfected items
Correct Answer
A. Only contact nonsterile itemsExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 19.
The basis for the practice of strict adherence to sterile technique is called ____.
- A.
Microbiology
- B.
A positive care approach
- C.
Surgical conscience
- D.
Liability
Correct Answer
C. Surgical conscienceExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 20.
The process that assures that all microorganisms including spores are killed is called ____.
- A.
High-level disinfection
- B.
Antisepsis
- C.
Virucidal
- D.
Sterilization
Correct Answer
D. SterilizationExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 21.
Filtered air from the decontamination room is exhausted to the ____.
- A.
Operating room
- B.
Patient’s room
- C.
Outside of the health care facility
- D.
Air filter system
Correct Answer
C. Outside of the health care facilityExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 22.
A catalyst used to aid in the breakdown of organic material such as blood and tissue is a/an ____.
- A.
Iodine solution
- B.
Quaternary solution
- C.
Enzyme
- D.
Antiseptic
Correct Answer
C. EnzymeExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 23.
The ultrasonic washer is an example of a/an
- A.
Sterilizer
- B.
Mechanical decontamination unit
- C.
physical decontamination method
- D.
Bioburden
Correct Answer
B. Mechanical decontamination unitExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 24.
The ____ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.
- A.
Ultrasonic washer
- B.
CUSA
- C.
Wire brush
- D.
Gas sterilizer
Correct Answer
A. Ultrasonic washerExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 25.
An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for ____.
- A.
Semicritical items
- B.
Critical items
- C.
Microsurgical instruments
- D.
GI instruments
Correct Answer
A. Semicritical itemsExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 26.
Low-level disinfection may be appropriate for ____.
- A.
Semicritical items
- B.
Noncritical items
- C.
critical items
- D.
Low use items
Correct Answer
B. Noncritical itemsExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 27.
To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins (double basin) what must be done?
- A.
Separate with towel
- B.
Do not nest
- C.
Ensure metal to metal contact
- D.
Separate with plastic sheet
Correct Answer
A. Separate with towelExplanation
CHAPTER 7—ASEPSIS AND STERILE TECHNIQUESRate this question:
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- 28.
The informed consent cannot be signed by the patient after ____.
- A.
Taking preoperative medications
- B.
Admission to the hospital
- C.
Preoperative education
- D.
preoperative shave
Correct Answer
A. Taking preoperative medicationsExplanation
CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETYRate this question:
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- 29.
The presence of food or fluid in the stomach during surgery increases the danger of ____.
- A.
Postoperative infection
- B.
Increased blood pressure
- C.
Aspiration
- D.
Heart attack
Correct Answer
C. AspirationExplanation
CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETYRate this question:
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- 30.
The Kraske position is sometimes referred to as the ____ position.
- A.
Lateral kidney
- B.
Prone
- C.
Knee-chest
- D.
Jackknife
Correct Answer
D. JackknifeExplanation
CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETYRate this question:
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- 31.
When utilizing the lateral kidney position, where should the kidney rest be positioned?
- A.
Under iliac crest
- B.
Under pelvic girdle
- C.
Under acetabulum
- D.
Under 12th rib
Correct Answer
A. Under iliac crestExplanation
CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETYRate this question:
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- 32.
Approximately 60% of all surgical patients are affected by ____.
- A.
Surgical site infection
- B.
preoperative hypertension
- C.
Hypothermia
- D.
Dehydration
Correct Answer
C. HypothermiaExplanation
CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETYRate this question:
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- 33.
A heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute may indicate NOT pathology but ____.
- A.
Heart attack
- B.
Hemorrhage
- C.
Fit athlete
- D.
Angina
Correct Answer
C. Fit athleteExplanation
CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETYRate this question:
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- 34.
The ____ provides a ray and concentrated beam of light that is able to cut and coagulate tissues at the same time.
- A.
Cryo unit
- B.
Laser
- C.
Electrocautery
- D.
CUSA
Correct Answer
B. LaserExplanation
CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETYRate this question:
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- 35.
When using a tourniquet, the surgeon should be notified when the tourniquet has been inflated for ____.
- A.
45 minutes
- B.
1 hour
- C.
90 minutes
- D.
2 hours
Correct Answer
B. 1 hourExplanation
CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETYRate this question:
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- 36.
A vasoconstrictor that is often mixed with local anesthetics is ____.
- A.
Hyaluronidase
- B.
Epinephrine
- C.
Cocaine
- D.
Bacitracin
Correct Answer
B. EpinephrineExplanation
CHAPTER 8—GENERAL PATIENT CARE AND SAFETYRate this question:
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- 37.
Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological and/or physical dependence and abuse are called ____.
- A.
Over the counter
- B.
Chemical
- C.
Prescription
- D.
Controlled substances
Correct Answer
D. Controlled substancesExplanation
CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIARate this question:
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- 38.
The transport of the drug substance that occurs once it enters the circulatory system is ____.
- A.
Binding
- B.
Distribution
- C.
Barrier
- D.
Absorption
Correct Answer
B. DistributionExplanation
CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIARate this question:
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- 39.
What organ is primarily responsible for the excretion of a drug?
- A.
Liver
- B.
Lungs
- C.
Kidneys
- D.
Intestines
Correct Answer
C. KidneysExplanation
CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIARate this question:
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- 40.
Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain?
- A.
Opioids
- B.
Dissociative
- C.
Induction
- D.
Tranquilizers
Correct Answer
B. DissociativeExplanation
CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIARate this question:
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- 41.
Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ____.
- A.
Opioids
- B.
Dissociative agents
- C.
Narcotic antagonists
- D.
Hypnotic agents
Correct Answer
A. OpioidsExplanation
CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIARate this question:
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- 42.
Patient position, and agent baricity can influence the effect of ____.
- A.
Nerve plexus
- B.
Local anesthetic
- C.
Spinal anesthetic
- D.
Caudal block
Correct Answer
C. Spinal anestheticExplanation
CHAPTER 9—SURGICAL PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIARate this question:
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- 43.
Lane, Kern, Lowman, and Lewin are examples of ____.
- A.
Grasping instruments
- B.
Tissue forceps
- C.
Bone-holding clamps
- D.
Hemostats
Correct Answer
C. Bone-holding clampsExplanation
CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIESRate this question:
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- 44.
Instruments used to hold a curved suture needle for suturing are called ____.
- A.
Dilators
- B.
Probes
- C.
Retractors
- D.
Needle holders
Correct Answer
D. Needle holdersExplanation
CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIESRate this question:
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- 45.
General abdominal procedures typically require a(an) ____ instrument set.
- A.
OB-GYN
- B.
Laparotomy
- C.
Otorhinolaryngology
- D.
Peripheral vascular
Correct Answer
B. LaparotomyExplanation
CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIESRate this question:
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- 46.
What surgical specialty requires an instrument set specifically for dilatation and curettage?
- A.
Abdominal
- B.
OB-GYN
- C.
Orthopedic
- D.
Cardiac
Correct Answer
B. OB-GYNExplanation
CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIESRate this question:
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- 47.
Sets that include instruments for exposure of the heart and great vessels are used for ____ procedures.
- A.
genitourinary
- B.
Orthopedic
- C.
Coronary bypass
- D.
OB-GYN
Correct Answer
C. Coronary bypassExplanation
CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIESRate this question:
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- 48.
Scopes typically used for cystoscopy, laparoscopy, and thoracoscopy are called ____.
- A.
Rigid
- B.
Semiflexible
- C.
Flexible
- D.
Lensed
Correct Answer
A. RigidExplanation
CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIESRate this question:
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- 49.
The scope used for exploration of the biliary system is called a(an) ____.
- A.
Choledochoscope
- B.
Mediastinoscope
- C.
Ureteroscope
- D.
Angioscope
Correct Answer
A. CholedochoscopeExplanation
CHAPTER 10—INSTRUMENTATION, EQUIPMENT, AND SUPPLIESRate this question:
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- 50.
An intentional cut through intact tissue for the purpose of exposing or excising underlying structures is called a/an ____.
- A.
Excision
- B.
Incision
- C.
Laceration
- D.
Cut
Correct Answer
B. IncisionExplanation
CHAPTER 11—WOUND HEALING, SUTURES, NEEDLES, AND STAPLING DEVICESRate this question:
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Nov 23, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 09, 2008Quiz Created by
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