3d052 Cyber Systems Operations Journeyman Volume 1
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
5
- D.
10
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
A minimum of two computers is needed for a computer network because a network requires at least two devices to establish a connection and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, resulting in no network. Therefore, two computers are necessary for a basic computer network.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized peronnel called?
- A.
Homogeneous Network
- B.
Internetwork
- C.
Intranetwork
- D.
Local Area Network (LAN)
Correct Answer
C. IntranetworkExplanation
An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that restricts access to authorized personnel only. It is a network that is specifically designed for internal use within an organization, allowing employees to securely share information and resources. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a single organization. It is also different from a local area network (LAN), as a LAN refers to a network that covers a small geographical area, whereas an intranetwork can span multiple locations. Therefore, the correct answer is intranetwork.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
- A.
Internetwork
- B.
Intranetwork
- C.
Homogeneous Network
- D.
Heterogeneous Network
Correct Answer
D. Heterogeneous NetworkExplanation
A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. The systems may have different configurations and require special compatibility measures to ensure seamless communication and interoperability.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?
- A.
Internetwork
- B.
Intranetwork
- C.
Homogeneous network
- D.
Heterogeneous network
Correct Answer
C. Homogeneous networkExplanation
A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and software in the network are designed to work together seamlessly, making management and troubleshooting easier. It also allows for better integration and compatibility between different network components, leading to improved performance and reliability.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
- A.
Global area network (GAN)
- B.
Local are network (LAN)
- C.
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
- D.
Wide area network (WAN)
Correct Answer
B. Local are network (LAN)Explanation
A Local Area Network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It typically covers a small area such as a home, office, or campus. LANs are commonly used to connect computers, printers, and other devices to share resources and information locally.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN)
- B.
Local area network (LAN)
- C.
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
- D.
Wide area network (WAN)
Correct Answer
C. Metropolitan area network (MAN)Explanation
A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a type of communications network that links a broad geographical region. It covers a larger area than a local area network (LAN) but is smaller than a wide area network (WAN). MANs are typically used to connect multiple LANs within a city or metropolitan area, providing high-speed data transmission and communication between different locations.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
- A.
Global area network (GAN)
- B.
Local area network (LAN)
- C.
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
- D.
Wide area network (WAN)
Correct Answer
A. Global area network (GAN)Explanation
A global area network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a small area, a GAN allows for communication between networks that are spread across different regions or even continents. This type of network is commonly used by multinational corporations or organizations that have branches or offices in various locations around the world.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
How many users are nomally in a peer to peer network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1000
Correct Answer
A. 2-10Explanation
In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This means that there are usually only a small number of users connected to the network at any given time. This range is common for peer-to-peer networks because they are often used for small-scale file sharing or collaboration among a small group of individuals. Having a limited number of users helps to ensure efficient and effective communication and sharing of resources within the network.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
How many users are in a single server network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1000
Correct Answer
B. 10-50Explanation
A single server network typically refers to a network setup where there is only one server responsible for managing and providing resources to a group of users. The range of 10-50 users suggests that this type of network is designed to support a relatively small number of users. This range allows for a sufficient number of users to connect to the server and utilize its resources without overwhelming it. It strikes a balance between having enough users to make the network efficient and cost-effective, while also ensuring that the server can handle the workload effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
How many users are in a multi-server network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1000
Correct Answer
C. 50-250Explanation
The correct answer is 50-250. In a multi-server network, there can be a varying number of users depending on the size and capacity of the network. The range of 50-250 suggests that the network can accommodate a moderate number of users, making it suitable for medium-sized organizations or businesses. This range allows for scalability and flexibility in terms of accommodating user growth and network expansion.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
How many users are in a multi server high speed backbone network?
- A.
2-10
- B.
10-50
- C.
50-250
- D.
250-1000
Correct Answer
D. 250-1000Explanation
The correct answer is 250-1000. This range indicates that there can be anywhere between 250 to 1000 users in a multi server high speed backbone network. The network is designed to handle a large number of users, making it suitable for organizations or institutions with a significant user base.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?
- A.
Local area network (LAN)
- B.
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
- C.
Multi-server high-speed backbone network
- D.
Enterprise network
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise networkExplanation
An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support the communication needs of a large organization, such as a multinational corporation. This network allows employees in different locations to share resources, collaborate on projects, and access centralized data and applications. It typically includes a combination of local area networks (LANs), wide area networks (WANs), and other networking technologies to provide reliable and secure connectivity across multiple sites.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
- A.
Media access control address
- B.
Network server name
- C.
Subnet mask address
- D.
Node seriel number
Correct Answer
A. Media access control addressExplanation
The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. It is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to control access to the network media. The MAC address is essential for communication between devices on the same network and is used by routers to forward data packets to the correct destination.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
B. 4Explanation
The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information consisting of 8 bits, and in the case of the internet protocol, each octet represents a part of the IP address. The IP address is divided into four sections, with each section represented by an octet, allowing for a total of 32 bits in the IP address. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
- A.
01100000
- B.
01100110
- C.
00001100
- D.
10000001
Correct Answer
A. 01100000Explanation
The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What is the network id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120
- B.
0.10.230.0
- C.
131.10.230.0
- D.
255.255.255.0
Correct Answer
C. 131.10.230.0Explanation
The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to zero. In this case, the given IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, where the subnet mask is /24. This means that the first 24 bits of the IP address are the network bits, and the remaining 8 bits are the host bits. Therefore, to find the network ID, we set the host bits to zero, resulting in the network ID of 131.10.230.0.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
What is the host id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?
- A.
0.0.0.120
- B.
0.10.230.0
- C.
131.10.230.0
- D.
255.255.255.0
Correct Answer
A. 0.0.0.120 -
- 18.
How many bits are typically covered in an IPv6 subnet mask?
- A.
24
- B.
48
- C.
64
- D.
128
Correct Answer
C. 64Explanation
An IPv6 subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long, and the subnet mask is used to divide the address into network and host portions. In a typical configuration, the first 64 bits represent the network portion, while the remaining 64 bits represent the host portion. This allows for a large number of unique network addresses and a large number of unique host addresses within each network.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
What series of AF instruction series covers communications and information?
- A.
10
- B.
29
- C.
30
- D.
33
Correct Answer
D. 33 -
- 20.
What air force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG)?
- A.
AFPD 33-1
- B.
AFI 33-112
- C.
AFI 33-115v1
- D.
AFI 29-2603v2
Correct Answer
C. AFI 33-115v1Explanation
AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it is the air force instruction that provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing information systems within the air force, ensuring the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of information. It establishes the roles and responsibilities of personnel involved in the AF-GIG and provides guidance on the implementation of information technology systems and networks.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
According to the air force network structure, what tier is the air force network operations center (AFNOSC)?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
A. 1Explanation
The air force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1 in the air force network structure. This means that it is the highest level of the network hierarchy and is responsible for the overall management and control of the air force network. Tier 1 is typically made up of centralized command centers that handle strategic planning, policy development, and coordination of network operations.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
What network entitiy provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?
- A.
Network control center (NCC)
- B.
Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)
- C.
Network operations center (NOSC)
- D.
Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)
Correct Answer
A. Network control center (NCC)Explanation
The network control center (NCC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. The NCC is typically located at a fixed site and is responsible for monitoring, controlling, and maintaining the network infrastructure. It ensures that the network is functioning properly, troubleshoots any issues that arise, and implements security measures to protect the network and its users. The NCC plays a critical role in ensuring that base level customers have access to a reliable and secure network environment.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?
- A.
Fault management server
- B.
Network management server
- C.
Performance management server
- D.
Security management server
Correct Answer
B. Network management serverExplanation
A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It is responsible for monitoring and controlling network components, ensuring smooth network operations, and optimizing network performance. This server helps in identifying and resolving network faults, managing network security, and enhancing overall network productivity.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
- A.
Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed
- B.
Centralized, hybrid, and distributed
- C.
Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid
- D.
Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed
Correct Answer
A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributedExplanation
The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are performed by a single entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, network management functions are divided into different layers or levels, with each level responsible for specific tasks. In a distributed architecture, network management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for more flexibility and scalability.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
What network architecture has a network mangement platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network mangement duties?
- A.
Centralized
- B.
Distributed
- C.
Hierarchical
- D.
Hybrid
Correct Answer
A. CentralizedExplanation
Centralized network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties. In this architecture, all the network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from a single central location. This allows for easier management and control of the network, as all the management functions are consolidated in one place.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
What network architecture use multiple systems for network mangement, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients?
- A.
Centralized
- B.
Hierarchical
- C.
Interactive
- D.
Proactive
Correct Answer
B. HierarchicalExplanation
Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients. This architecture is structured in a hierarchical manner, where the central server controls and manages the client systems. The central server holds the authority and decision-making power, while the client systems follow the instructions and policies set by the central server. This architecture allows for efficient management and control of the network, as well as the ability to easily scale and expand the network as needed.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
What level of network mangement activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
- A.
Inactive
- B.
Interactive
- C.
Proactive
- D.
Reactive
Correct Answer
B. InteractiveExplanation
When the network manager is monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, they are working at an interactive level of network management activity. This means that they are actively engaged in monitoring and resolving issues in real-time, interacting with the network components and making necessary adjustments to ensure smooth operation.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
What level of network mangement activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?
- A.
Inactive
- B.
Reactive
- C.
Interactive
- D.
Proactive
Correct Answer
D. ProactiveExplanation
When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is at a proactive level. This means that the system is actively monitoring and analyzing potential issues before they occur, allowing for preemptive actions to be taken to prevent or mitigate any problems.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Performance mangement can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
- A.
Monitoring and analyzing
- B.
Monitoring and replacing
- C.
Monitoring and tuning
- D.
Analyzing and tuning
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring and tuningExplanation
Performance management involves monitoring and assessing the performance of various aspects within an organization. Monitoring refers to the continuous observation and measurement of performance indicators to identify any issues or areas of improvement. Tuning, on the other hand, involves making adjustments and optimizations to enhance performance based on the insights gained from monitoring. Therefore, monitoring and tuning are the two separate functional categories that make up performance management.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Which function of performance mangement tracks historical data by tracking activites on the network?
- A.
Tuning
- B.
Analyzing
- C.
Gathering
- D.
Monitoring
Correct Answer
D. MonitoringExplanation
Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and collecting historical data. This function of performance management helps in identifying any issues or anomalies in the network, monitoring network performance, and making informed decisions based on the collected data. It allows for proactive management and optimization of network resources.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?
- A.
Configuration
- B.
Performance
- C.
Accounting
- D.
Security
Correct Answer
D. SecurityExplanation
The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are put in place to protect the network from unauthorized access and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. This includes implementing authentication mechanisms, encryption, firewalls, and other security measures to control access to sensitive data and prevent unauthorized users from gaining access to the network.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?
- A.
Fault parameters
- B.
Tolerance parameters
- C.
Low-level software alarms
- D.
Low-level hardware alarms
Correct Answer
B. Tolerance parametersExplanation
Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors due to a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations that can be tolerated without triggering an alarm or indicating a fault. By setting specific tolerance limits, it becomes possible to differentiate between normal variations and abnormal behavior, helping to identify and address faults when they occur.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Network mangement protocols are designed(in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI model?
- A.
Session
- B.
Transport
- C.
Presentation
- D.
Application
Correct Answer
A. SessionExplanation
Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between devices. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and control network devices and services. These protocols require a reliable and established connection, which is provided by the Session layer. Therefore, they operate above this layer in the OSI model.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network mangement information available from network devices?
- A.
Object identifier
- B.
Network device map
- C.
Network protocol list
- D.
Management information base
Correct Answer
D. Management information baseExplanation
A Management Information Base (MIB) is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It is a database containing information about the devices on a network, such as their configuration, performance, and status. The MIB provides a standardized way for network management systems to communicate with network devices and retrieve information for monitoring and controlling the network.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
What area of the simple network mangement protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
- A.
Management
- B.
Private
- C.
Directory
- D.
Experimental
Correct Answer
B. PrivateExplanation
The area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure that is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment is called "Private". This area allows vendors to define their own management objects and labels within the SNMP tree structure, allowing for customization and specific monitoring and management of their equipment.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
What SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system?
- A.
Primary domain controller (PDC)
- B.
Backup domain controller
- C.
Manager
- D.
Agent
Correct Answer
D. AgentExplanation
The SNMP agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. SNMP agents are software modules that run on network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers. They collect and store management information, respond to SNMP queries from the management system, and send SNMP traps to report critical events or conditions. The agent acts as an intermediary between the management system and the managed device, providing the necessary data for monitoring and managing network devices.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
What operational SNMP message asks for a specific instance of management information?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
Getnext
Correct Answer
A. GetExplanation
The operational SNMP message that asks for a specific instance of management information is the "Get" message. This message is used to retrieve the value of a specific variable or object from a managed device. It allows the SNMP manager to request specific information from the SNMP agent by specifying the Object Identifier (OID) of the desired variable. The SNMP agent then responds with the current value of that variable.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
What operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of info with minimal overhead?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
GetNext
Correct Answer
D. GetNextExplanation
The correct answer is GetNext. GetNext is an operational SNMP message that is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to retrieve the next variable in the MIB (Management Information Base) table, which makes it efficient for retrieving sequential data. By using GetNext, the manager can retrieve multiple variables in a single request without having to send separate Get requests for each variable. This reduces the overhead and improves the efficiency of the SNMP communication.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
What operational SNMP message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management info?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
GetNext
Correct Answer
B. SetExplanation
The operational SNMP message used to modify the value of one or more instances of management info is the "Set" message. This message is sent from the SNMP manager to the SNMP agent to request the agent to change the value of specific variables or objects in the managed device. It allows for the remote configuration and control of network devices by modifying their settings and parameters.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
What operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?
- A.
Get
- B.
Set
- C.
Trap
- D.
GetNext
Correct Answer
C. TrapExplanation
A trap is an unsolicited message from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred on the network device being monitored. Traps are sent by the agent without any request from the manager, making them unsolicited. They provide real-time information about events such as link status changes, system reboots, or high CPU usage, allowing the manager to take appropriate actions.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
What is the type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity info using proprietary topology management info bases (MIB)?
- A.
Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.
- B.
Neighbor probe
- C.
Containment probe
- D.
System information probe
Correct Answer
B. Neighbor probeExplanation
A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is used to discover and monitor neighboring devices in a network, allowing for the identification of connected devices and their connectivity status. This information is crucial for network management and troubleshooting purposes.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?
- A.
Broker
- B.
Clients
- C.
Map console
- D.
Domain Manager
Correct Answer
D. Domain ManagerExplanation
The centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is the Domain Manager. The Domain Manager is responsible for managing and organizing the various components of the system, including brokers, clients, and the map console. It acts as the central hub for monitoring and controlling the entire SMARTS application, ensuring efficient and effective management of the system's resources and operations.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
What component of the SMARTS application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
- A.
Broker
- B.
Clients
- C.
Map console
- D.
Domain Manager
Correct Answer
A. BrokerExplanation
The correct answer is "Broker." In the SMARTS application, the Broker component is responsible for managing and coordinating communication between different components, including the Domain Managers. It contains the knowledge of available Domain Managers and facilitates their interaction with other parts of the application.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
What are the 3 types of SMARTS notifications?
- A.
Compound events, alarm, and trend
- B.
Compound events, problems, and network
- C.
Auto-discovery, compund, and symptomatic events
- D.
Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events
Correct Answer
D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic eventsExplanation
The correct answer is compound events, problems, and symptomatic events. This is because SMARTS notifications can be categorized into these three types. Compound events refer to events that are made up of multiple underlying events. Problems are notifications that indicate a potential issue or error in the system. Symptomatic events are notifications that indicate symptoms of a larger problem or issue. Therefore, these three types cover a range of notifications that can be generated by SMARTS.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
What color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events?
- A.
Blue
- B.
Orange
- C.
Purple
- D.
Yellow
Correct Answer
C. PurpleExplanation
Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
How many different categories of infomation does the performance monitor provide you about your network?
- A.
7
- B.
14
- C.
19
- D.
21
Correct Answer
D. 21Explanation
The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?
- A.
Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)
- B.
Protocol analyzer
- C.
Network root router
- D.
Windows advanced server
Correct Answer
B. Protocol analyzerExplanation
A protocol analyzer is a device that allows for digital network diagnostics and the development of communications software. It is used to capture and analyze network traffic, helping to troubleshoot and debug network issues. By examining the packets of data being transmitted over a network, a protocol analyzer can provide insights into the performance and functionality of the network, as well as identify any errors or anomalies. This makes it an essential tool for network administrators and developers working with digital networks.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
What provides info concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocl?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics
- B.
Connection statistics
- C.
Protocol statistics
- D.
Node discovery
Correct Answer
C. Protocol statisticsExplanation
Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This data helps in analyzing the performance and efficiency of the protocol, identifying any issues or errors, and making necessary improvements or adjustments to optimize network performance. By monitoring protocol statistics, network administrators can gain insights into how the protocol is functioning and take appropriate actions to ensure smooth and reliable network communication.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics
- B.
Connection statistics
- C.
Protocol statistics
- D.
Node discovery
Correct Answer
A. Media access control (MAC) node statisticsExplanation
Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. The MAC layer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium and ensuring that data is transmitted correctly. By monitoring MAC node statistics, errors occurring at the physical layer can be identified and addressed, ensuring the integrity of data transmission.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
What automatically runs in the background when the protocol anaylyzer application is activated?
- A.
Media access control (MAC)
- B.
Connection statistics
- C.
Procotol statistics
- D.
Node discovery
Correct Answer
D. Node discoveryExplanation
When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is a process that identifies and maps the network nodes or devices present in a network. It helps in discovering and identifying all the devices connected to the network, allowing the protocol analyzer to collect data and analyze the network traffic accurately.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 02, 2012Quiz Created by
YourAlibi
- 1W0510 Quizzes
- 2A552 Quizzes
- 2A652 Quizzes
- 2A654 Quizzes
- 2A656 Quizzes
- 2A671 Quizzes
- 2A672 Quizzes
- 2A6X1 Quizzes
- 2A753 Quizzes
- 2AX5X Quizzes
- 2AX7X Quizzes
- 2s071 Quizzes
- 2T251 Quizzes
- 3d054 Quizzes
- 3D151 Quizzes
- 3D152 Quizzes
- 3D153 Quizzes
- 3d1x3 Quizzes
- 3e451 Quizzes
- 3e6x1 Quizzes
- 4a051 Quizzes
- 5j0x1 Quizzes
- Z3D153 Quizzes
- Z3p051 Quizzes