Daily Updates Mock Test 25

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 227

Questions: 50 | Attempts: 227 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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MOCK TEST 25 ( WB POLICS SPECIAL )
SYLLABUS : GK , REASONING , ARITHMETIC
TIME : 40 MINUTES FULL MARKS : 50*5 =250
EACH QUESTION CARRIES 5 MARKS , - VE MARKING : - 1 / WRONG ANSWER
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Questions and Answers

1.

A and B can do a job together in 7 days. A is 1 times as efficient as B. The same job can be done by A alone in :
- A.
  
  28/3 DAYS
- B.
  
  11 DAYS
- C.
  
  49/4 DAYS
- D.
  
  49/3 DAYS
Correct Answer
B. 11 DAYS

Explanation
Since A is 1 times as efficient as B, it means that A can do the job in the same amount of time as B, but A can do more work in that time. If A and B can do the job together in 7 days, it means that A can do 7/8 of the job in 7 days, and B can do 1/8 of the job in 7 days. Therefore, A can do the entire job alone in 8 times the time it takes for both A and B to do the job together, which is 8 * 7 = 56 days. So, A can do the job alone in 56 days, which is equivalent to 56/5 = 11 days.

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2.

A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole work alone?
- A.
  
  30 days
- B.
  
  40 days
- C.
  
  60 days
- D.
  
  70 days
Correct Answer
C. 60 days

Explanation
A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. This means that in one day, their combined work rate is 1/30. A worked for 16 days, so the remaining work is completed by B alone in 44 days. Let's assume that B can complete the work alone in x days. So, B's work rate is 1/x. We can set up the equation (16/30) + (44/x) = 1 to represent the work done by A and B together. Solving this equation, we find that x = 60 days. Therefore, B can finish the whole work alone in 60 days.

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3.

Robert is travelling on his cycle and has calculated to reach point A at 2 P.M. if he travels at 10 kmph, he will reach there at 12 noon if he travels at 15 kmph. At what speed must he travel to reach A at 1 P.M.?
- A.
  
  8 kmph
- B.
  
  11 kmph
- C.
  
  12 kmph
- D.
  
  14 kmph
Correct Answer
C. 12 kmpH

Explanation
Robert needs to travel at a speed that will allow him to reach point A at 1 P.M. Since he calculated that he would reach there at 2 P.M. if he travels at 10 kmph and at 12 noon if he travels at 15 kmph, it means that the distance between the starting point and point A is 20 km (2 hours at 10 kmph) and 30 km (2 hours at 15 kmph) respectively. To reach point A at 1 P.M., Robert needs to travel the distance of 20 km in 3 hours, which means he needs to travel at a speed of 12 kmph (20 km / 3 hours). Therefore, the correct answer is 12 kmph.

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4.

In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Sameer. Abhay's speed is:
- A.
  
  5 kmph
- B.
  
  6 kmph
- C.
  
  6.25 kmph
- D.
  
  7.5 kmph
Correct Answer
A. 5 kmpH

Explanation
Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer to cover a distance of 30 km. Let's assume Sameer's speed is S kmph and Abhay's speed is A kmph. We can set up the equation: 30/S = 30/A + 2.

If Abhay doubles his speed, his new speed will be 2A kmph. We can set up another equation: 30/S = 30/(2A) - 1.

Simplifying both equations, we get 2A = S + 60 and S = 2A - 30.

Substituting the value of S in the first equation, we get 30/(2A - 30) = 30/A + 2.

Solving this equation, we find A = 5 kmph. Therefore, Abhay's speed is 5 kmph.

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5.

It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes more, if 200 km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the cars is:
- A.
  
  2 : 3
- B.
  
  3 : 2
- C.
  
  3 : 4
- D.
  
  4 : 3
Correct Answer
C. 3 : 4

Explanation
Let the speed of the train be x km/h and the speed of the car be y km/h. We can set up two equations based on the given information. The first equation is 120/x + (600-120)/y = 8, as it takes 8 hours to complete the journey when 120 km is done by train. The second equation is 200/x + (600-200)/y = 8 hours and 20 minutes, as it takes 20 minutes more to complete the journey when 200 km is done by train. Solving these equations, we find that x/y = 3/4. Therefore, the ratio of the speed of the train to that of the cars is 3 : 4.

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6.

A began a business with Rs. 85,000. He was joined afterwards by B with Rs. 42,500. For how much period does B join, if the profits at the end of the year are divided in the ratio of 3 : 1?
- A.
  
  4 months
- B.
  
  5 months
- C.
  
  6 months
- D.
  
  8 months
Correct Answer
D. 8 months

Explanation
Since the profits are divided in the ratio of 3:1, it means that A's investment is three times B's investment. Therefore, A's initial investment must be three times B's initial investment.

Let's assume that B joins the business for 'x' months.

So, A's investment for the entire year is Rs. 85,000 and B's investment for 'x' months is Rs. 42,500.

Since A's investment is three times B's investment, we can set up the equation:

85,000 = 3 * (42,500 * x)

Simplifying this equation, we get:

85,000 = 127,500 * x

Dividing both sides by 127,500, we find:

x = 8

Therefore, B joins the business for 8 months.

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7.

Aman started a business investing Rs. 70,000. Rakhi joined him after six months with an amount of Rs.. 1,05,000 and Sagar joined them with Rs. 1.4 lakhs after another six months. The amount of profit earned should be distributed in what ratio among Aman, Rakhi and Sagar respectively, 3 years after Aman started the business?
- A.
  
  7 : 6 : 10
- B.
  
  12 : 15 : 16
- C.
  
  42 : 45 : 56
- D.
  
  Cannot be determined
Correct Answer
B. 12 : 15 : 16

Explanation
The ratio in which the profit should be distributed among Aman, Rakhi, and Sagar can be determined by considering the amount of time each of them has invested in the business. Aman has invested for the entire 3 years, Rakhi has invested for 2.5 years (6 months + 3 years - 6 months), and Sagar has invested for 2 years (6 months + 6 months + 3 years - 6 months). Therefore, the ratio of their profit distribution will be in the same ratio as the time they have invested. Hence, the correct answer is 12 : 15 : 16.

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8.

Arun, Kamal and Vinay invested Rs. 8000, Rs. 4000 and Rs. 8000 respectively in a business. Arun left after six months. If after eight months, there was a gain of Rs. 4005, then what will be the share of Kamal?
- A.
  
  Rs. 890
- B.
  
  Rs. 1335
- C.
  
  Rs. 1602
- D.
  
  Rs. 1780
Correct Answer
A. Rs. 890

Explanation
Since Arun left after 6 months, his share of the profit will be calculated for only 6 months. Kamal and Vinay both invested for 8 months. To calculate the share of Kamal, we need to find the ratio of their investments and multiply it by the total profit. The ratio of their investments is (4000+8000) : 8000 = 12000 : 8000 = 3 : 2. Therefore, Kamal's share of the profit will be (3/5) * 4005 = Rs. 2403. Kamal's share for 8 months will be (2403/6) * 8 = Rs. 3204. But since Kamal invested for only 8 months, his actual share will be (3204/8) * 8 = Rs. 890. Therefore, the answer is Rs. 890.

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9.

Simran started a software business by investing Rs. 50,000. After six months, Nanda joined her with a capital of Rs. 80,000. After 3 years, they earned a profit of Rs. 24,500. What was Simran's share in the profit?
- A.
  
  Rs. 9,423
- B.
  
  Rs. 10,250
- C.
  
  Rs. 12,500
- D.
  
  Rs. 10,500
Correct Answer
D. Rs. 10,500

Explanation
Simran invested Rs. 50,000 for the entire duration of 3 years, while Nanda joined after 6 months with a capital of Rs. 80,000. Since Nanda joined halfway through the duration, her share in the profit would be calculated based on the time she was involved. Simran's share would be calculated based on her entire investment period. To find Simran's share, we can use the formula: Simran's share = (Simran's investment / Total investment) * Total profit. Plugging in the values, we get (50000 / (50000 + 80000)) * 24500 = Rs. 10,500. Hence, Simran's share in the profit is Rs. 10,500.

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10.

The present ages of three persons in proportions 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years).
- A.
  
  8, 20, 28
- B.
  
  16, 28, 36
- C.
  
  20, 35, 45
- D.
  
  None of these
Correct Answer
B. 16, 28, 36

Explanation
Let the present ages of the three persons be 4x, 7x, and 9x.
Eight years ago, their ages would have been 4x-8, 7x-8, and 9x-8.
According to the given information, the sum of their ages eight years ago was 56.
So, (4x-8) + (7x-8) + (9x-8) = 56.
Simplifying this equation, we get 20x - 24 = 56.
Adding 24 to both sides, we get 20x = 80.
Dividing both sides by 20, we get x = 4.
Therefore, their present ages are 4x = 16, 7x = 28, and 9x = 36.

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11.

Ayesha's father was 38 years of age when she was born while her mother was 36 years old when her brother four years younger to her was born. What is the difference between the ages of her parents?
- A.
  
  2 years
- B.
  
  4 years
- C.
  
  6 years
- D.
  
  8 years
Correct Answer
C. 6 years

Explanation
Ayesha's father was 38 years old when she was born, and her mother was 36 years old when her brother, who is four years younger than Ayesha, was born. This means that the age difference between Ayesha's father and mother is 2 years (38 - 36). Since Ayesha's brother is four years younger than her, the age difference between her parents must be 6 years (4 + 2). Therefore, the correct answer is 6 years.

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12.

A person's present age is two-fifth of the age of his mother. After 8 years, he will be one-half of the age of his mother. How old is the mother at present?
- A.
  
  32 years
- B.
  
  36 years
- C.
  
  40 years
- D.
  
  48 years
Correct Answer
C. 40 years

Explanation
Let's assume the person's present age is x and his mother's present age is y. According to the given information, x = (2/5)y. After 8 years, the person's age will be x+8 and his mother's age will be y+8. It is also given that x+8 = (1/2)(y+8). By substituting the value of x from the first equation, we get (2/5)y + 8 = (1/2)(y+8). Solving this equation, we find y = 40. Therefore, the mother is currently 40 years old.

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13.

Look at this series: 80, 10, 70, 15, 60, ... What number should come next?
- A.
  
  20
- B.
  
  25
- C.
  
  30
- D.
  
  50
Correct Answer
A. 20

Explanation
The pattern in the series is that the first number decreases by 10 and the second number increases by 5. So, starting with 80, the next number would be 10 (80-10), followed by 70 (10+5), then 15 (70-10), and so on. Therefore, the next number in the series would be 60 (15+5).

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14.

Look at this series: 2, 6, 18, 54, ... What number should come next?
- A.
  
  108
- B.
  
  148
- C.
  
  162
- D.
  
  216
Correct Answer
C. 162

Explanation
The series is formed by multiplying each number by 3. Starting with 2, the next number is obtained by multiplying 2 by 3, which gives 6. Similarly, 6 is multiplied by 3 to get 18, 18 is multiplied by 3 to get 54, and so on. Therefore, the next number in the series should be obtained by multiplying 54 by 3, which gives 162.

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15.

Look at this series: 5.2, 4.8, 4.4, 4, ... What number should come next?
- A.
  
  3
- B.
  
  3.3
- C.
  
  3.5
- D.
  
  3.6
Correct Answer
D. 3.6

Explanation
The series is decreasing by 0.4 each time. Starting with 5.2, subtracting 0.4 gives 4.8, then 4.4, and finally 4. Subtracting 0.4 again gives the next number in the series, which is 3.6.

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16.

Look at this series: 8, 6, 9, 23, 87 , ... What number should come next?
- A.
  
  128
- B.
  
  226
- C.
  
  324
- D.
  
  429
Correct Answer
D. 429

Explanation
The pattern in the series is not immediately obvious, but upon closer inspection, it can be observed that each number is obtained by multiplying the previous number by a certain factor and then adding a specific number. In this case, the pattern seems to be multiplying by 0.5 and then adding 4, resulting in the sequence: 8, 6, 9, 23, 87. Following this pattern, the next number in the series would be obtained by multiplying 87 by 0.5 and then adding 4, which gives us 43.5 + 4 = 47.5. However, since the given options only include whole numbers, the closest option to 47.5 is 429, which is the correct answer.

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17.

ZA₅, Y₄B, XC₆, W₃D, _____
- A.
  
  E7V
- B.
  
  V2E
- C.
  
  VE5
- D.
  
  VE7
Correct Answer
D. VE7

Explanation
The pattern in the given sequence is that the first letter decreases by one in alphabetical order, while the second letter increases by one in alphabetical order. The third character alternates between a number that is one less than the position of the letter in the alphabet and a letter that is one less than the position of the number in the alphabet. Applying this pattern, the next term would be VE7.

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18.

QPO, NML, KJI, _____, EDC
- A.
  
  HGF
- B.
  
  CAB
- C.
  
  JKL
- D.
  
  GHI
Correct Answer
A. HGF

Explanation
The given sequence follows a pattern where each letter in the sequence is three letters before the corresponding letter in the alphabet. Starting from Q, the next letter is H, then G, and so on. Therefore, the missing sequence should start with the letter H, followed by the letter before H (G), and then the letter before G (F). Hence, the correct answer is HGF.

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19.

JAK, KBL, LCM, MDN, _____
- A.
  
  OEP
- B.
  
  NEO
- C.
  
  MEN
- D.
  
  PFQ
Correct Answer
B. NEO

Explanation
The given sequence follows a pattern where each letter is shifted one position forward in the alphabet. Starting with "JAK", the next letter in the sequence is "KBL", where each letter is shifted one position forward. Continuing this pattern, the next letter after "MDN" would be "NEO", where each letter is shifted one position forward from the previous letter.

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20.

BCB, DED, FGF, HIH, ___
- A.
  
  JKJ
- B.
  
  HJH
- C.
  
  IJI
- D.
  
  JHJ
Correct Answer
A. JKJ

Explanation
The pattern in the given sequence is that each letter is repeated twice, with the second letter being the next letter in the alphabet. Following this pattern, the missing sequence would be J, K, J, where the second J is the next letter after I in the alphabet. Therefore, the correct answer is JKJ.

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21.

P₅QR, P₄QS, P₃QT, _____, P₁QV
- A.
  
  PQW
- B.
  
  PQV2
- C.
  
  P2QU
- D.
  
  PQ3U
Correct Answer
C. P2QU

Explanation
The pattern in the given sequence is that the first letter remains the same (P), the second letter decreases by one (5, 4, 3), the third letter increases by one (Q, R, S), and the fourth letter remains the same (R, S, T). Therefore, the missing term should have the second letter as 2 (P2) and the third letter as U. The correct answer is P2QU.

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22.

The Kingston Mall has more stores than the Galleria. The Four Corners Mall has fewer stores than the Galleria. The Kingston Mall has more stores than the Four Corners Mall. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
- C.
  
  Uncertain
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The first statement states that the Kingston Mall has more stores than the Galleria, and the second statement states that the Four Corners Mall has fewer stores than the Galleria. Therefore, it can be inferred that the Kingston Mall has more stores than the Four Corners Mall, making the third statement true.

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23.

All the tulips in Zoe's garden are white. All the pansies in Zoe's garden are yellow. All the flowers in Zoe's garden are either white or yellow If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
- C.
  
  Uncertain
- D.
  
  Option 4
Correct Answer
C. Uncertain

Explanation
The third statement is uncertain because it is possible that there are other flowers in Zoe's garden that are neither white nor yellow. The given information only tells us about the color of tulips and pansies, but it does not provide any information about other types of flowers in the garden. Therefore, we cannot determine for certain whether all the flowers in Zoe's garden are either white or yellow.

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24.

During the past year, Josh saw more movies than Stephen. Stephen saw fewer movies than Darren. Darren saw more movies than Josh. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
- C.
  
  Uncertain
- D.
  
  Option 4
Correct Answer
C. Uncertain

Explanation
Based on the given information, it is unclear whether the third statement is true or false. While it is established that Josh saw more movies than Stephen and Stephen saw fewer movies than Darren, it does not provide enough information to determine whether Darren saw more movies than Josh. Therefore, the answer is uncertain.

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25.

Rover weighs less than Fido. Rover weighs more than Boomer. Of the three dogs, Boomer weighs the least. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
- C.
  
  Uncertain
- D.
  
  Option 4
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
Based on the given information, Rover weighs less than Fido and Rover weighs more than Boomer. Therefore, it can be inferred that Fido weighs more than Boomer. Since Boomer is the lightest of the three dogs, the third statement is true.

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26.

In fireworks, the green flame is produced because of
- A.
  
  Sodium
- B.
  
  Barium
- C.
  
  Mercury
- D.
  
  Potassium
Correct Answer
B. Barium

Explanation
Barium is responsible for producing the green flame in fireworks. When barium compounds are heated, they release energy in the form of light, and this light appears green to our eyes. This phenomenon is known as barium's characteristic green emission. By incorporating barium compounds into the fireworks, the green color is achieved when the compounds are ignited, resulting in a visually appealing display of green flames.

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27.

Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding
- A.
  
  Chlorine
- B.
  
  Washing soda
- C.
  
  Potassium permanganate
- D.
  
  Bleaching powder
Correct Answer
B. Washing soda

Explanation
Permanent hardness of water is caused by the presence of calcium and magnesium ions. Washing soda, also known as sodium carbonate, can remove permanent hardness by reacting with these ions to form insoluble precipitates of calcium and magnesium carbonates. This process is known as precipitation or chemical softening. Chlorine, potassium permanganate, and bleaching powder are not effective in removing permanent hardness of water.

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28.

Marsh gas is
- A.
  
  Nitrogen
- B.
  
  Ethane
- C.
  
  Methane
- D.
  
  Hydrogen
Correct Answer
C. Methane

Explanation
Marsh gas refers to the gas that is commonly found in marshes, swamps, and other wetland areas. It is primarily composed of methane, which is a colorless and odorless gas. Methane is the main component of natural gas and is produced through the decomposition of organic matter by bacteria in oxygen-deprived environments. Therefore, the correct answer is methane.

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29.

LPG consists of mainly
- A.
  
  Methane, ethane and hexane
- B.
  
  Ethane, hexane and nonane
- C.
  
  Methane, hexane and nonane
- D.
  
  Methane, butane and propane
Correct Answer
D. Methane, butane and propane

Explanation
The correct answer is methane, butane, and propane. LPG stands for liquefied petroleum gas, which is a mixture of hydrocarbon gases that are liquefied under pressure for easy storage and transportation. Methane, butane, and propane are the main components of LPG and are commonly used as fuel for heating, cooking, and transportation purposes.

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30.

Air is a/an
- A.
  
  Compound
- B.
  
  Element
- C.
  
  Electrolyte
- D.
  
  Mixture
Correct Answer
D. Mixture

Explanation
Air is considered a mixture because it is composed of various gases such as nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and others. These gases are not chemically bonded together, but rather exist in the air as separate entities. This is why air can be separated into its individual components through processes like filtration or distillation.

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31.

Production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) gas which is proposed to be banned in India, is used in which of the following domestic products?
- A.
  
  Television
- B.
  
  Refrigerator
- C.
  
  Tube light
- D.
  
  Cooking gas
Correct Answer
B. Refrigerator

Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) gas is used in refrigerators. CFCs are commonly used as refrigerants in cooling systems, including refrigerators and air conditioners. These gases are known to deplete the ozone layer, which is why their production and use have been banned or restricted in many countries, including India. Therefore, it is proposed to ban the use of CFCs in refrigerators in India.

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32.

Balloons are filled with
- A.
  
  Nitrogen
- B.
  
  Helium
- C.
  
  Oxygen
- D.
  
  Argon
Correct Answer
B. Helium

Explanation
Helium is the correct answer because it is commonly used to fill balloons. Unlike nitrogen, oxygen, and argon, helium is lighter than air, which allows balloons to float when filled with it. Helium is also non-flammable and non-toxic, making it a safe choice for filling balloons.

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33.

Which of the following does not contain a coinage metal?
- A.
  
  Silver and Gold
- B.
  
  Zinc and Gold
- C.
  
  Copper and Silver
- D.
  
  Copper and Gold
Correct Answer
B. Zinc and Gold

Explanation
Zinc and Gold is the correct answer because zinc is not considered a coinage metal. Coinage metals are typically used to make coins and have specific properties such as being easily malleable, resistant to corrosion, and having a high electrical conductivity. Silver and Gold, Copper and Silver, and Copper and Gold are all examples of coinage metals as they have been historically used to make coins due to their desirable properties. However, zinc is not commonly used in coin production and therefore does not fall under the category of coinage metals.

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34.

Which metal pollute the air of a big city?
- A.
  
  Copper
- B.
  
  Chromium
- C.
  
  Lead
- D.
  
  Cadmium
Correct Answer
C. Lead

Explanation
Lead is the correct answer because it is a metal that is commonly found in the air of big cities due to various human activities. Lead pollution can occur from industrial processes, vehicle emissions, and the burning of fossil fuels. Inhaling lead particles can be harmful to human health and can lead to various health issues such as respiratory problems, neurological damage, and developmental disorders. Therefore, lead is a metal that can significantly contribute to air pollution in big cities.

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35.

Bell metal is an alloy of
- A.
  
  Nickel and copper
- B.
  
  Zinc and copper
- C.
  
  Brass and nickel
- D.
  
  Tin and copper
Correct Answer
D. Tin and copper

Explanation
Bell metal is an alloy of tin and copper. This is because bell metal is known for its sonorous quality, which is achieved by combining tin and copper in specific proportions. Tin provides the hardness and strength to the alloy, while copper adds malleability and resonance. This combination creates a durable and resonant material that is ideal for making bells.

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36.

The use of spinning wheel (Charkha) became common during the
- A.
  
  9th Century AD
- B.
  
  10th Century AD
- C.
  
  12th Century AD
- D.
  
  14th Century AD
Correct Answer
D. 14th Century AD

Explanation
During the 14th Century AD, the use of spinning wheel (Charkha) became common. This invention revolutionized the process of spinning fibers into thread or yarn, making it much faster and more efficient compared to traditional methods. The spinning wheel allowed for continuous spinning, which greatly increased the production of textiles. This advancement in spinning technology played a significant role in the growth of the textile industry and had a profound impact on the economy and society during that time.

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37.

The language of discourses of Gautama Buddha was
- A.
  
  Bhojpuri
- B.
  
  Magadhi
- C.
  
  Pali
- D.
  
  Sanskrit
Correct Answer
C. Pali

Explanation
The language of discourses of Gautama Buddha was Pali. Pali is a Middle Indo-Aryan language that was used as a lingua franca during the time of Buddha. It was the language in which the Buddhist scriptures, known as the Pali Canon, were written. Pali was chosen as the language of the discourses because it was a vernacular language that was widely understood by the people of the region. It allowed for the teachings of Buddha to be accessible to a larger audience and played a significant role in the spread of Buddhism.

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38.

There were widespread risings against the British in the 1820s. Which one of the following did not revolt in the 1820s?
- A.
  
  Santhals
- B.
  
  Ahoms
- C.
  
  Pagal Panthis
- D.
  
  Ramosi
Correct Answer
A. Santhals

Explanation
The Santhals did not revolt against the British in the 1820s.

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39.

Velu Thampi led a revolt against the British in state of
- A.
  
  Travancore
- B.
  
  Baroda
- C.
  
  Hyderabad
- D.
  
  Mysore
Correct Answer
A. Travancore

Explanation
Velu Thampi led a revolt against the British in the state of Travancore. Travancore was a princely state located in the southern part of India, which was under British control during the time of the revolt. Velu Thampi was a prominent figure in the state and played a crucial role in organizing and leading the rebellion against British rule. His efforts and leadership were instrumental in challenging British authority and striving for independence in Travancore.

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40.

Under the Mountbatten Plan of 1947 the people of ___ were given the right to decide through a plebiscite whether they wished to join Pakistan or India.
- A.
  
  Assam
- B.
  
  Punjab
- C.
  
  Bengal
- D.
  
  N.W.F.P and the Sylhet district of Assam
Correct Answer
D. N.W.F.P and the Sylhet district of Assam

Explanation
Under the Mountbatten Plan of 1947, the people of N.W.F.P (North-West Frontier Province) and the Sylhet district of Assam were given the right to decide through a plebiscite whether they wished to join Pakistan or India. This plan aimed to determine the future of these regions and allow the people to choose their political affiliation based on their preferences. The plebiscite was a democratic process that allowed the residents to exercise their right to self-determination and decide their own fate.

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41.

Radioactivity is a phenomenon of the spontaneous emission of
- A.
  
  Protons (alpha particles)
- B.
  
  Electrons (beta particles)
- C.
  
  Gamma rays (short wave electromagnetic waves)
- D.
  
  All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above

Explanation
Radioactivity is a phenomenon in which unstable atomic nuclei undergo spontaneous decay, emitting various types of particles and waves. Protons (alpha particles), electrons (beta particles), and gamma rays (short wave electromagnetic waves) are all examples of the emissions that can occur during radioactivity. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all three types of emissions can be observed in radioactive decay.

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42.

Organic Substances which, in very small amounts, control growth and development called
- A.
  
  Vitamins
- B.
  
  Hormones
- C.
  
  Enzymes
- D.
  
  None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Hormones

Explanation
Hormones are organic substances that play a crucial role in controlling growth and development in organisms. They are produced by various glands in the body and are released into the bloodstream, where they travel to target cells or organs to regulate their functions. Unlike vitamins and enzymes, which also have important roles in the body, hormones specifically act as chemical messengers to coordinate and regulate various physiological processes, such as metabolism, reproduction, and behavior. Therefore, the correct answer is hormones.

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43.

Our major foods, fibres, spices, fruits and beverage crops are
- A.
  
  Flowering plants
- B.
  
  Gymnosperms plants
- C.
  
  Pteridophytes
- D.
  
  Bryophytes
Correct Answer
A. Flowering plants

Explanation
The correct answer is flowering plants because they are the major source of our foods, fibres, spices, fruits, and beverages. Flowering plants, also known as angiosperms, produce seeds enclosed within a fruit or ovary. They have a more advanced reproductive system compared to gymnosperms, pteridophytes, and bryophytes, which makes them more efficient in producing the crops that we rely on for sustenance and other purposes.

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44.

Movements due to light are shown by
- A.
  
  Flowering plants
- B.
  
  Lower plants
- C.
  
  All land plants
- D.
  
  All the plants
Correct Answer
A. Flowering plants

Explanation
Flowering plants exhibit movements due to light. This is because they possess a hormone called auxin, which helps in regulating their growth and response to light. When exposed to light, auxin redistributes within the plant, causing differential growth on the shaded side, resulting in bending towards the light source. This phenomenon is known as phototropism. Therefore, flowering plants specifically demonstrate movements in response to light.

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45.

Outer covering of virus made up of protein is
- A.
  
  Capsid
- B.
  
  Coat
- C.
  
  Virion
- D.
  
  Viriod
Correct Answer
A. Capsid

Explanation
The outer covering of a virus is called the capsid. The capsid is made up of proteins and serves to protect the genetic material of the virus. It also plays a role in attaching the virus to host cells and facilitating the entry of the virus into the host. The capsid can have various shapes and structures, depending on the type of virus.

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46.

Radish is a
- A.
  
  Bulb
- B.
  
  Conn
- C.
  
  Modified root
- D.
  
  Tuber
Correct Answer
C. Modified root

Explanation
The correct answer is "modified root." This is because a radish is a type of vegetable that is formed from the swollen root of the plant. The root undergoes modifications in its structure and function to store nutrients and water, making it a modified root. It is not a bulb, conn, or tuber, as these terms refer to different types of plant structures.

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47.

The metal does not give H₂ on treatment with dilute HCL is
- A.
  
  Zn
- B.
  
  Fe
- C.
  
  Ag
- D.
  
  Ca
Correct Answer
C. Ag
48.

The number of g-molecule of oxygen in 6.02 x 10²⁴CO molecules is
- A.
  
  1 gram of molecule
- B.
  
  0.5 gram of molecule
- C.
  
  5 gram of molecule
- D.
  
  10 gram of molecule
Correct Answer
C. 5 gram of molecule

Explanation
The correct answer is 5 gram of molecule. This is because 6.02 x 10^24 CO molecules is equal to 1 mole of CO molecules. In 1 mole of CO molecules, there are 6.02 x 10^23 oxygen atoms. Since the molar mass of oxygen is 16 grams per mole, the mass of oxygen in 1 mole of CO molecules is 16 grams. Therefore, in 6.02 x 10^24 CO molecules, there would be 5 grams of oxygen molecules.

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49.

The most extensive, commercially useful source of thorium as monazite sand occurs in India at
- A.
  
  Orissa coast
- B.
  
  Travancore coast
- C.
  
  West Bengal coast
- D.
  
  Gujarat coast
Correct Answer
B. Travancore coast

Explanation
The correct answer is Travancore coast. The Travancore coast in India is known for having the most extensive and commercially useful source of thorium as monazite sand. Monazite sand is a mineral that contains high amounts of thorium, which is a valuable resource used in various industries such as nuclear energy and electronics manufacturing.

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50.

The main active constituent of tea and coffee is
- A.
  
  Nicotine
- B.
  
  Chlorophyll
- C.
  
  Caffeine
- D.
  
  Aspirin
Correct Answer
C. Caffeine

Explanation
Caffeine is the correct answer because it is the main active constituent found in tea and coffee. Nicotine is found in tobacco, not tea or coffee. Chlorophyll is a pigment responsible for the green color in plants and has no relation to tea or coffee. Aspirin is a medication used to relieve pain and has no connection to tea or coffee. Therefore, caffeine is the correct answer as it is the primary active component in tea and coffee.

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Daily Updates Mock Test 25

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Bell metal is an alloy of

The use of spinning wheel (Charkha) became common during the

The language of discourses of Gautama Buddha was

There were widespread risings against the British in the 1820s. Which one of the following did not revolt in the 1820s?

Velu Thampi led a revolt against the British in state of

Under the Mountbatten Plan of 1947 the people of ___ were given the right to decide through a plebiscite whether they wished to join Pakistan or India.

Radioactivity is a phenomenon of the spontaneous emission of

Organic Substances which, in very small amounts, control growth and development called

Our major foods, fibres, spices, fruits and beverage crops are

Movements due to light are shown by

Outer covering of virus made up of protein is

Radish is a

The metal does not give H2 on treatment with dilute HCL is

The number of g-molecule of oxygen in 6.02 x 1024CO molecules is

The most extensive, commercially useful source of thorium as monazite sand occurs in India at

The main active constituent of tea and coffee is

ZA₅, Y₄B, XC₆, W₃D, _____

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The metal does not give H₂ on treatment with dilute HCL is

The number of g-molecule of oxygen in 6.02 x 10²⁴CO molecules is