EEG Board Prep-technical Sciences
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS TO HELP NEUROTECHNOLOGISTS PREPARE FOR THEIR BOARD EXAM
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The smallest particle into which a substance can be divided and still retain its characteristics is the
- A.
Atom
- B.
Molecule
- C.
Compound
- D.
Ion
Correct Answer
B. MoleculeExplanation
A molecule is the smallest particle into which a substance can be divided and still retain its characteristics. Unlike an atom, which is the smallest unit of an element, a molecule consists of two or more atoms bonded together. A compound, on the other hand, is a substance composed of two or more different elements chemically bonded together. An ion is a charged particle that forms when an atom gains or loses electrons. Therefore, a molecule best fits the given description as the smallest particle that retains the characteristics of a substance.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Coulomb's Law deals with
- A.
Charge
- B.
Volume conduction
- C.
Frequency
- D.
Phase
Correct Answer
A. ChargeExplanation
Coulomb's Law deals with the concept of charge. It describes the interaction between charged particles and the force between them. The law states that the force between two charged objects is directly proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. This law is fundamental in understanding the behavior of electrically charged particles and is widely used in various fields of physics and engineering.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The movement of electrons through a conducter is
- A.
Resistance
- B.
Voltage
- C.
Current
- D.
Capacative reactance
Correct Answer
C. CurrentExplanation
The movement of electrons through a conductor is referred to as current. Current is the flow of electric charge, specifically the flow of electrons, in a circuit. It is measured in amperes (A) and is responsible for the transfer of energy and the operation of electrical devices. Resistance refers to the opposition to the flow of current, voltage is the potential difference that drives the current, and capacitive reactance is the opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The ability to store charge is
- A.
Inductance
- B.
Impedance
- C.
Condensor
- D.
Capacitance
Correct Answer
D. CapacitanceExplanation
Capacitance is the ability of a component or system to store electric charge. It is measured in farads (F) and is determined by the physical characteristics of the component, such as the size of the plates and the distance between them in a capacitor. When a voltage is applied across a capacitor, it stores energy in the form of an electric field. Capacitors are commonly used in electronic circuits for various purposes, such as energy storage, filtering, and timing. Therefore, the correct answer for the given question is capacitance.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following is NOT related to Ohm's Law?
- A.
Electromotive force
- B.
Impedance
- C.
Voltage
- D.
Phase
Correct Answer
D. pHaseExplanation
Phase is not related to Ohm's Law because Ohm's Law only relates to the relationship between voltage, current, and resistance in a circuit. Phase refers to the relationship in time between two or more waveforms and is not directly related to the electrical quantities described by Ohm's Law.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Input impedance should
- A.
Be very high
- B.
Be very low
- C.
Equal the common mode rejection ratio
- D.
Affect the low frequency activity
Correct Answer
A. Be very highExplanation
The input impedance should be very high because a high input impedance allows for minimal loading of the signal source, ensuring that the input voltage remains unaffected. This is particularly important in applications where the signal source has a high output impedance or when the input signal is weak. A high input impedance also helps to prevent signal distortion and loss, resulting in accurate and reliable signal processing.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Gain is
- A.
The ratio of output signal to input signal
- B.
The same as sensitivity
- C.
Always less then 100:1
- D.
Express in dB
Correct Answer
A. The ratio of output signal to input signalExplanation
Gain refers to the amplification or increase in the strength of a signal. It is calculated as the ratio of the output signal to the input signal. In other words, gain measures how much the signal is amplified or attenuated. It is often expressed in dB (decibels) to provide a logarithmic representation of the ratio. Sensitivity, on the other hand, refers to the ability of a system to detect and respond to small changes in the input signal. While gain and sensitivity are related concepts, they are not the same. The statement that gain is the ratio of output signal to input signal accurately defines the concept of gain.Rate this question:
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- 8.
In the mV/cm position, the sensivity of the amplifier is what fraction of the sensitivity on the uV/mm scale?
- A.
1/10
- B.
1/1000
- C.
1/100
- D.
1/1,000,000
Correct Answer
C. 1/100Explanation
The sensitivity of the amplifier on the mV/cm scale is 1/100 of the sensitivity on the uV/mm scale. This means that for every unit change in voltage per centimeter, there is a 1/100th unit change in voltage per millimeter. In other words, the amplifier is 100 times less sensitive on the mV/cm scale compared to the uV/mm scale.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The incoming signal of 50uV would give a deflection of 7.1mm at the standard EEG setting of 7uV/mm. If the range were set to 7mV/cm, what voltage would be needed to produce the same pen deflection of 7.1mm?
- A.
5mV
- B.
50uV
- C.
50mV
- D.
.5mV
Correct Answer
A. 5mVExplanation
At the standard EEG setting of 7uV/mm, a signal of 50uV produces a deflection of 7.1mm. This means that for every 1uV increase in voltage, there is a 1.01mm increase in deflection.
If the range were set to 7mV/cm, we need to convert the units to match the standard setting. 7mV/cm is equivalent to 70uV/mm.
To find the voltage needed to produce the same pen deflection of 7.1mm, we can set up a proportion:
(50uV / 70uV/mm) = (x / 7.1mm)
Simplifying the proportion, we find that x = 5mV. Therefore, a voltage of 5mV would be needed to produce the same pen deflection of 7.1mm.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Given a pen deflection of 8mm and an input voltage of 25uV, what would the sensitivity of that channel be?
- A.
200 uV/mm
- B.
3.1 uV/mm
- C.
17 mm
- D.
33 uV/mm
Correct Answer
B. 3.1 uV/mmExplanation
The sensitivity of a channel is calculated by dividing the input voltage by the pen deflection. In this case, the input voltage is 25uV and the pen deflection is 8mm. Therefore, the sensitivity of the channel would be 25uV / 8mm, which is equal to 3.1 uV/mm.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In a differential EEG amplifier, the common mode rejection ratio of the in phase signals (i.e. 60 hz) is at least
- A.
100:1
- B.
500:1
- C.
50:1
- D.
1000:1
Correct Answer
D. 1000:1Explanation
The common mode rejection ratio of a differential EEG amplifier refers to its ability to reject unwanted signals that are common to both input channels. A higher common mode rejection ratio indicates a better ability to reject these unwanted signals. Therefore, the correct answer is 1000:1, which suggests that the amplifier can reject unwanted signals at a ratio of 1000 to 1 compared to the desired signals.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The degree of overshoot, or "tail" allowed on a properly damped pen is what percentage of the total amount of deflection?
- A.
None is allowed
- B.
10%
- C.
5%
- D.
2%
Correct Answer
B. 10%Explanation
In EEG recording, the pen damping refers to the control of the pen's movement to prevent excessive oscillations or overshoot after a deflection. A properly damped pen should return to its baseline smoothly without excessive "tailing." The generally accepted standard for pen damping allows for a slight overshoot, typically around 10% of the total deflection. This small amount of overshoot is considered acceptable as it does not significantly distort the EEG waveform and allows for a more responsive pen movement, capturing the dynamic changes in brain activity more accurately.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The characteristic of a differential amplifier used to cancel common mode voltage is called
- A.
Input impedance
- B.
Common mode rejection
- C.
Gain
- D.
Differential input
Correct Answer
B. Common mode rejectionExplanation
The characteristic of a differential amplifier used to cancel common mode voltage is called common mode rejection. Common mode rejection refers to the ability of the amplifier to reject or cancel out any common mode voltage present in the input signal. This is achieved by amplifying the differential voltage (the difference between the two input signals) while attenuating or eliminating the common mode voltage (the voltage that is present in both input signals). By canceling out the common mode voltage, the differential amplifier can provide a more accurate and precise output signal.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The amount by which the differential amplifier increases the magnitude of the input signal is its
- A.
Sensitivity
- B.
Input impedance
- C.
Gain
- D.
Filter
Correct Answer
C. GainExplanation
The gain of a differential amplifier refers to the amount by which it increases the magnitude of the input signal. It represents the amplification factor of the amplifier and is typically expressed as a ratio or in decibels. A higher gain value indicates a larger amplification of the input signal, while a lower gain value indicates less amplification. Therefore, in this context, gain is the correct answer as it directly relates to the amplification capability of the differential amplifier.Rate this question:
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- 15.
In a differential amplifier, if input one(1) received a voltage of 65uV and input two(2) received a voltage of -30uV, the output voltage seen would be
- A.
35 uV
- B.
95 uV
- C.
-95uV
- D.
-35 uV
Correct Answer
B. 95 uVExplanation
In a differential amplifier, the output voltage is determined by the difference between the voltages applied to the two inputs. Since input one received a voltage of 65uV and input two received a voltage of -30uV, the difference between these two voltages is 65uV - (-30uV) = 95uV. Therefore, the output voltage seen would be 95uV.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Excessive pen pressure has the same effect on the frequency characteristics similar to a pen that is
- A.
Overdamped
- B.
Underdamped
Correct Answer
A. OverdampedExplanation
Excessive pen pressure causes the pen to create thicker and darker lines, which can be compared to the behavior of an overdamped pen. When a pen is overdamped, it takes longer for the ink to flow and create a mark, resulting in a slower response time. Similarly, excessive pen pressure restricts the ink flow, causing a slower and heavier mark to be made, affecting the frequency characteristics in a similar manner as an overdamped pen.Rate this question:
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- 17.
At a paper speed of 30mm/second, 5 division of EEG paper equal one second in time. At a paper speed of 15mm/second, one division would equal
- A.
40 milliseconds
- B.
200 milliseconds
- C.
400 milliseconds
- D.
500 milliseconds
Correct Answer
B. 200 millisecondsExplanation
At a paper speed of 30mm/second, 5 divisions equal one second, meaning each division represents 200 milliseconds (1 second = 1000 milliseconds, and 1000ms / 5 = 200ms per division). At a slower paper speed of 15mm/second, each division will still represent 200 milliseconds because the time per division remains constant; the only difference is the physical spacing on the paper.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following EEG patterns would be enhanced by a paper speed of 15 mm/second?
- A.
14 and 6/second positive spikes
- B.
FIRDA
- C.
Mirror focus
- D.
Photic driving
Correct Answer
B. FIRDAExplanation
A FIRDA (Frontal Intermittent Rhythmic Delta Activity) is an abnormal EEG pattern characterized by intermittent delta waves in the frontal region of the brain. A paper speed of 15 mm/second would enhance the visibility and amplitude of these delta waves, making it easier to identify and diagnose FIRDA. Increasing the paper speed allows for a faster recording of brain activity, which can help highlight specific patterns or abnormalities in the EEG.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following is attenuated by a time constant of .03 seconds?
- A.
10 Hz
- B.
15 Hz
- C.
25 Hz
- D.
3 Hz
Correct Answer
D. 3 HzExplanation
A time constant of .03 seconds means that the circuit's response to a change in input will decay or attenuate over time. The lower the frequency, the longer it takes for the circuit to respond to the change. Since 3 Hz is the lowest frequency among the options, it will be attenuated the most by the time constant of .03 seconds.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following is MOST attenuated by a high frequency filter of 35 Hz?
- A.
10 Hz
- B.
15 Hz
- C.
25 Hz
- D.
35 Hz
Correct Answer
D. 35 HzExplanation
A high frequency filter of 35 Hz will attenuate frequencies above 35 Hz. Since the filter is designed to attenuate higher frequencies, the frequency that will be most affected or attenuated by the filter is the highest frequency listed, which is 35 Hz.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is attenuated by a high pass filter of 5 Hz?
- A.
1 Hz
- B.
10 Hz
- C.
15 Hz
- D.
20 Hz
Correct Answer
A. 1 HzExplanation
A high pass filter allows frequencies above a certain cutoff frequency to pass through while attenuating frequencies below that cutoff. In this case, the cutoff frequency is 5 Hz. Since 1 Hz is below the cutoff frequency, it will be attenuated by the high pass filter.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Nasopharyngeal electrodes are used to record from the medial surface of the temporal lobe where as sphenoidal electrodes record from the
- A.
Olfactory nerve
- B.
Anterior tip of the temporal lobe
- C.
Zygomatic arch
- D.
Posterior portion of the frontal lobe
Correct Answer
B. Anterior tip of the temporal lobeExplanation
Nasopharyngeal electrodes are used to record from the medial surface of the temporal lobe. The anterior tip of the temporal lobe is the correct answer because it is the location where sphenoidal electrodes are used to record from. The other options, olfactory nerve, zygomatic arch, and posterior portion of the frontal lobe, are not correct locations for recording with sphenoidal electrodes.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Needle electrodes are composed of
- A.
Platinum
- B.
Ag-AgCl
- C.
Gold
- D.
Tin
Correct Answer
A. PlatinumExplanation
Needle electrodes are commonly used in medical procedures such as electromyography (EMG) and nerve conduction studies. These electrodes need to be made of a material that is biocompatible, conductive, and durable. Platinum is an ideal choice for needle electrodes as it meets all these requirements. It is a highly conductive metal that does not corrode or react with bodily fluids, making it safe for use in medical applications. Additionally, platinum electrodes have good mechanical strength, allowing them to be easily inserted into the body without breaking or bending. Therefore, platinum is the preferred material for needle electrodes.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The best electrode for recording DC potentials is composed of
- A.
Platinum
- B.
Ag-AgCl
- C.
Gold
- D.
Tin
Correct Answer
B. Ag-AgClExplanation
Ag-AgCl is the best electrode for recording DC potentials because it is a stable and inert material that does not react with the electrolyte or the surrounding environment. It provides a low resistance interface between the electrode and the electrolyte, allowing for accurate and reliable measurements. Additionally, Ag-AgCl electrodes have a wide potential range and are biocompatible, making them suitable for various applications in biomedical research and clinical settings.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Referential recording is better than bipolar recording for measuring
- A.
Phase reversals
- B.
Voltage
- C.
Phase
- D.
Frequency
Correct Answer
B. VoltageExplanation
Referential recording is better than bipolar recording for measuring voltage because in referential recording, the voltage is measured with respect to a fixed reference electrode, which provides a stable baseline for accurate measurements. On the other hand, bipolar recording measures the voltage difference between two electrodes, which can introduce noise and variability into the measurements. Therefore, referential recording is preferred when precise and reliable voltage measurements are required.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Bipolar recording is better than referential recording for recording
- A.
Phase reversals
- B.
Voltage
- C.
Phase
- D.
Frequency
Correct Answer
A. pHase reversalsExplanation
Bipolar recording is better than referential recording for recording phase reversals because bipolar recording uses two electrodes, one for recording and one as a reference, which allows for a more accurate measurement of the phase difference between the two signals. This is important for capturing phase reversals, as they represent a change in the direction of the electrical activity being recorded. In contrast, referential recording uses only one electrode as a reference, which may not provide sufficient information to accurately detect and measure phase reversals.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Where is the focus and what is its polarity?
- A.
+ F7
- B.
- T3
- C.
+ T5
- D.
+ T3
Correct Answer
B. - T3Explanation
The focus is on T3 and its polarity is negative.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the MOST critical link in the whole recording chain of the EEG?
- A.
Relaxation of the patient
- B.
Electrode application
- C.
Calibration
- D.
Montages
Correct Answer
B. Electrode applicationExplanation
The electrode application is the most critical link in the whole recording chain of the EEG because it directly affects the quality and accuracy of the recorded signals. Proper placement and attachment of the electrodes on the scalp are essential for capturing the electrical activity of the brain effectively. Any errors or inconsistencies in electrode application can lead to distorted or unreliable EEG readings, making it crucial to ensure accurate and precise electrode placement for an accurate diagnosis and interpretation of the brain's electrical activity.Rate this question:
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- 29.
An artifact that may be mistaken for a rhythmical cerebral discharge can be caused by
- A.
Baseline sway
- B.
Swallow
- C.
Electrode pops
- D.
60 Hz
Correct Answer
C. Electrode popsExplanation
Electrode pops can cause an artifact that may be mistaken for a rhythmical cerebral discharge. These pops occur when there is a sudden movement or displacement of the electrode, resulting in a brief electrical signal. This can create a rhythmic pattern on the EEG recording, which may be confused with a cerebral discharge. It is important to identify and differentiate these artifacts from actual cerebral activity to ensure accurate interpretation of the EEG data.Rate this question:
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- 30.
AC impedance should be measured rather than DC resistance because
- A.
Measuring resistance causes electrode polarization
- B.
Measuring resistance is a time saver to the technologist
- C.
Measuring impedance causes electrode polarization
- D.
Measuring impedance causes discomfort to the patient
Correct Answer
A. Measuring resistance causes electrode polarizationExplanation
When measuring resistance, electrode polarization occurs. This is because the flow of current through the electrodes causes a buildup of charge at the electrode-electrolyte interface, leading to polarization. This polarization can affect the accuracy of the measurement and cause errors in the impedance reading. Therefore, it is more appropriate to measure AC impedance instead of DC resistance to avoid electrode polarization and obtain more accurate results.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Why is it advantageous to chloride electrodes?
- A.
Movement artifact is not as readily recorded
- B.
Preferred for DC recordings
- C.
Lower polarizing potentials are obtained
- D.
The electrodes will not require an electrolyte
Correct Answer
C. Lower polarizing potentials are obtainedExplanation
Chloride electrodes are advantageous because they allow for lower polarizing potentials to be obtained. This means that the electrodes produce a smaller electrical current, reducing interference and improving the accuracy of recordings. Lower polarizing potentials also minimize the risk of tissue damage or irritation.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Where is the focus and what is its polarity?
- A.
-F3
- B.
+P3
- C.
-C3
- D.
+C3
Correct Answer
D. +C3Explanation
The focus is at electrode C3 and its polarity is positive.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Where is the focus and what is its polarity?
- A.
+T4
- B.
+F8
- C.
-F8, +T6
- D.
-F8, -T4
Correct Answer
D. -F8, -T4Explanation
The focus is on electrode F8 and electrode T4. Both electrodes have a negative polarity.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Where is the focus and what is its polarity?
- A.
-T4
- B.
+F8
- C.
+A2
- D.
+O2
Correct Answer
A. -T4Explanation
The focus is located at electrode T4. The polarity of the focus is negative.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The steady potential difference between the aqueous and vitreous humors of the eye is
- A.
80 mV
- B.
60 mV
- C.
100 mV
- D.
50 mV
Correct Answer
C. 100 mVExplanation
The steady potential difference between the aqueous and vitreous humors of the eye is 100 mV. This potential difference is important for maintaining the proper functioning of the eye. It helps in transmitting electrical signals between the cells of the retina, allowing for the detection and processing of visual information. The 100 mV potential difference ensures that the electrical signals are transmitted efficiently and accurately, contributing to clear vision.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Cross communication between blood vessels is called
- A.
Bifurcation
- B.
Decussation
- C.
Anastamosis
- D.
Arteriosclerosis
Correct Answer
C. AnastamosisExplanation
Anastomosis refers to the cross communication between blood vessels. It is a connection or opening between two blood vessels, allowing blood to flow between them. This can occur naturally or be created surgically. Bifurcation, on the other hand, refers to the division of a blood vessel into two branches. Decussation is the crossing of nerve fibers from one side of the body to the other. Arteriosclerosis is the hardening and narrowing of arteries due to plaque buildup.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following blood vessels is most frequently involved in cerebrovascular accidents?
- A.
External carotid artery
- B.
Jugular vein
- C.
Basilar artery
- D.
Internal carotid artery
Correct Answer
D. Internal carotid arteryExplanation
The internal carotid artery is most frequently involved in cerebrovascular accidents because it is one of the main blood vessels that supply blood to the brain. Cerebrovascular accidents, also known as strokes, occur when there is a blockage or rupture in a blood vessel in the brain, leading to a lack of blood flow and oxygen to certain areas of the brain. The internal carotid artery is a common site for blockages, such as blood clots or plaques, which can result in a stroke.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Myxedema is a disorder of
- A.
Liver finction
- B.
Muscles
- C.
Thyroid function
- D.
The eyes
Correct Answer
C. Thyroid functionExplanation
Myxedema is a disorder that occurs due to the underactive thyroid gland, also known as hypothyroidism. The thyroid gland plays a crucial role in regulating metabolism, energy levels, and various bodily functions. When the thyroid gland is not functioning properly, it can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, and swelling of the skin, known as myxedema. Therefore, the correct answer is "thyroid function."Rate this question:
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- 39.
Thiamine deficiency may produce which of the following disorders?
- A.
Wernicke's encephalopathy
- B.
Parkinson's disease
- C.
Wilson's disease
- D.
Myxedema
Correct Answer
A. Wernicke's encepHalopathyExplanation
Thiamine deficiency can lead to Wernicke's encephalopathy, a neurological disorder characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. This condition is caused by a lack of thiamine (vitamin B1), which is essential for proper brain function. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder unrelated to thiamine deficiency. Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder that causes copper accumulation in the body. Myxedema is a condition caused by severe hypothyroidism.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Inflammation of the coverings of the brain or spinal cord is called
- A.
Encephalitis
- B.
Meningitis
- C.
Cerebritis
- D.
Myelitis
Correct Answer
B. MeningitisExplanation
Meningitis is the correct answer because it refers to the inflammation of the coverings of the brain or spinal cord. Encephalitis refers to inflammation of the brain itself, not the coverings. Cerebritis refers specifically to inflammation of the cerebrum, which is just one part of the brain. Myelitis refers to inflammation of the spinal cord, not the coverings. Therefore, meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of the coverings of the brain or spinal cord.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is the most common type of brain tumor?
- A.
Glioma
- B.
Angioma
- C.
Meningioma
- D.
Neurofibroma
Correct Answer
A. GliomaExplanation
Glioma is the most common type of brain tumor. Gliomas originate from glial cells, which are supportive cells in the brain. These tumors can occur in different parts of the brain and can be either benign or malignant. Gliomas are often difficult to treat due to their location and invasive nature. They can cause various symptoms depending on their size and location, such as headaches, seizures, and neurological deficits. Treatment options for gliomas include surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy, depending on the type and stage of the tumor.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Visual evoked potential have the greatest amplitude in the following age group
- A.
Adult
- B.
Newborn
- C.
Pre-school
- D.
Adolescence
Correct Answer
C. Pre-schoolExplanation
Visual evoked potentials (VEPs) are electrical signals generated by the brain in response to visual stimuli. The amplitude of VEPs reflects the strength of the brain's response. In general, VEP amplitudes are higher in children compared to adults. This is because the visual system of children is still developing and is more sensitive to visual stimuli. Among the given age groups, the pre-school age group (typically 3-5 years old) is likely to have the highest VEP amplitudes, making it the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Anorexia
- A.
A respiratory disease
- B.
Inability to read
- C.
Loss of appetite
- D.
Oxygen deficiency
Correct Answer
C. Loss of appetiteExplanation
Anorexia refers to the loss of appetite, which is the correct answer. It is a condition characterized by a decreased desire to eat, resulting in significant weight loss and potential health complications. Anorexia is not a respiratory disease, inability to read, or oxygen deficiency, as mentioned in the other options.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Meniere's disease
- A.
A disease of the auditory cortex
- B.
Caused by meningitis
- C.
A type of cancer
- D.
An inner ear disturbance
Correct Answer
D. An inner ear disturbanceExplanation
Meniere's disease is characterized by recurring episodes of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ears), and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the affected ear. It is caused by an inner ear disturbance, specifically an abnormal buildup of fluid in the inner ear. This fluid imbalance disrupts the normal functioning of the inner ear, leading to the symptoms associated with Meniere's disease. It is not related to the auditory cortex, meningitis, or cancer.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following is a symptom of a narcoleptic patient?
- A.
Enuresis
- B.
Sleep walking
- C.
Hypnagogic hallucinations
- D.
Emotional instability
Correct Answer
C. Hypnagogic hallucinationsExplanation
Hypnagogic hallucinations are a symptom of narcolepsy. These hallucinations occur during the transitional period between wakefulness and sleep. They are vivid and often frightening visual or auditory experiences that can be difficult to distinguish from reality. This symptom is commonly experienced by narcoleptic patients and can contribute to disrupted sleep patterns and excessive daytime sleepiness. Enuresis refers to bedwetting and is not specifically associated with narcolepsy. Sleep walking and emotional instability can occur in various sleep disorders but are not exclusive to narcolepsy.Rate this question:
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- 46.
In which psychotic disorder will a patient have periods of high elation and periods of deep withdrawal?
- A.
Schizophrenia
- B.
Paranoia
- C.
Manic-depressive
- D.
Conversion reaction
Correct Answer
C. Manic-depressiveExplanation
Manic-depressive disorder, also known as bipolar disorder, is characterized by periods of high elation (mania) and periods of deep withdrawal (depression). During manic episodes, individuals may experience elevated mood, increased energy, and impulsive behavior. On the other hand, during depressive episodes, they may feel sad, hopeless, and lose interest in activities. This alternating pattern of extreme mood swings is a hallmark feature of manic-depressive disorder. Schizophrenia, paranoia, and conversion reaction do not typically involve such distinct periods of high elation and deep withdrawal.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Lower motor neurons are located in the
- A.
Anterior horn cells of the spinal cord
- B.
Cortico-spinal tract
- C.
Basal ganglia
- D.
Pyramidal tract
Correct Answer
A. Anterior horn cells of the spinal cordExplanation
Lower motor neurons are located in the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. The anterior horn cells are responsible for transmitting signals from the spinal cord to the muscles, allowing for voluntary movement. These motor neurons are part of the peripheral nervous system and play a crucial role in motor control and coordination. The cortico-spinal tract, basal ganglia, and pyramidal tract are not locations of lower motor neurons.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Afferent fibers conduct
- A.
Toward the cell body
- B.
Away from the cell body
- C.
Only in the brain
- D.
Only in the spinal cord
Correct Answer
A. Toward the cell bodyExplanation
Afferent fibers conduct signals or information from the peripheral nervous system towards the cell body located in the central nervous system. These fibers transmit sensory information from various sensory receptors in the body to the brain or spinal cord for processing and interpretation. Therefore, the correct answer is "toward the cell body."Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following is NOT part of the brain stem?
- A.
Medulla
- B.
Pons
- C.
Cerebellum
- D.
Diencephalon
Correct Answer
C. CerebellumExplanation
The cerebellum is not part of the brain stem. The brain stem consists of the medulla, pons, and midbrain. The cerebellum is a separate structure located at the back of the brain, beneath the cerebral hemispheres. It is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary movements, maintaining balance, and regulating muscle tone. While the brain stem is involved in basic life functions such as breathing, heart rate, and consciousness, the cerebellum has a more specialized role in motor control.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The primary auditory receptive area at the cortex is the
- A.
Lateral lemniscus
- B.
Anterior temporal transverse gyrus
- C.
Medial geniculate body
- D.
Hippocampus
Correct Answer
B. Anterior temporal transverse gyrusExplanation
The anterior temporal transverse gyrus is the correct answer because it is the primary auditory receptive area in the cortex. This region is responsible for processing and interpreting auditory information received from the ears. It plays a crucial role in our ability to perceive and understand sounds. The lateral lemniscus is a pathway that carries auditory information from the brainstem to the thalamus, while the medial geniculate body is a relay station in the thalamus for auditory signals. The hippocampus is primarily associated with memory and spatial navigation, not auditory processing.Rate this question:
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Oct 17, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Apr 29, 2010Quiz Created by
NEURODXMOM1
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