Embraer 190 - Engines
ENGINES QUESTIONS MADE FROM AOM VOL. 2GOOD LUCK!SANTIAGO STOCKER.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Two wing-mounted ________________________ engines produce power to the airplane.
- A.
General Electric CF34-10E
- B.
Pratt & Whitney CF34-10E
Correct Answer
A. General Electric CF34-10EExplanation
The correct answer is General Electric CF34-10E. This engine is specifically designed for use on regional jet aircraft, such as the Embraer E190 and E195. It is a high-bypass turbofan engine that provides the necessary power to propel the airplane.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Fuel supplied by the airplane fuel tanks flows to the engine fuel pumps. Upon exiting the tanks, the fuel flows through the ____________________ and then divides into two paths. One flows through the high-pressure fuel pump and returns to the fuel tank as motive flow.
- A.
Low-pressure pump
- B.
High-pressure pump
Correct Answer
A. Low-pressure pumpExplanation
The fuel supplied by the airplane fuel tanks flows through the low-pressure pump before dividing into two paths. One path goes through the high-pressure fuel pump and returns to the fuel tank as motive flow. Therefore, the correct answer is the low-pressure pump.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The second flows through the fuel/oil heat exchanger to the ____________________ . The flow leaves the pump and passes through the fuel filter. Once filtered, the fuel flows to the FMU.
- A.
Low-pressure fuel pump
- B.
High-pressure fuel pump
Correct Answer
B. High-pressure fuel pumpExplanation
The second flow of fuel passes through the fuel/oil heat exchanger and then goes to the high-pressure fuel pump. From there, it will continue its journey through the fuel system.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The _______________________________ maintains the oil temperature within an acceptable range and heats the engine fuel to prevent freezing.
- A.
Fuel-cooled oil cooler (FCOC)
- B.
Bleed air heat exchanger
Correct Answer
A. Fuel-cooled oil cooler (FCOC)Explanation
The fuel-cooled oil cooler (FCOC) is responsible for maintaining the oil temperature within an acceptable range and heating the engine fuel to prevent freezing. This component uses the fuel as a cooling medium to regulate the temperature of the oil, ensuring it does not overheat. Additionally, it heats the engine fuel to prevent it from freezing in cold temperatures, which could lead to engine malfunctions. Therefore, the FCOC plays a crucial role in maintaining the proper functioning of the engine by controlling the oil temperature and preventing fuel freezing.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The ______________________ (FMU) , controlled by the FADEC, meters and distributes the proper amount of fuel for combustion to the injectors under all operating conditions.
Correct Answer
FUEL METERING UNITExplanation
The Fuel Metering Unit (FMU), controlled by the FADEC, is responsible for measuring and distributing the correct amount of fuel for combustion to the injectors in all operating conditions. The FMU ensures that the engine receives the appropriate fuel-air mixture for efficient and safe operation.Rate this question:
- 6.
The fuel filter removes contaminants from the engine fuel. The impending bypass switch indicates _______________ and an imminent bypass condition.
- A.
Fuel filter blockage
- B.
High fuel pressure
Correct Answer
A. Fuel filter blockageExplanation
The impending bypass switch indicates that there is a fuel filter blockage and an imminent bypass condition. This means that the fuel filter is becoming clogged with contaminants, which can restrict the flow of fuel to the engine. When the filter becomes too blocked, the impending bypass switch is triggered, indicating that the filter needs to be replaced or cleaned to prevent damage to the engine.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The Variable Stator Vanes system consists of two fuel driven actuators controlled by the FADEC via FMU. The purpose of the actuators is to optimize the position of the compressor stators as a function of corrected ____ to provide optimum compressor efficiency.
- A.
EGT
- B.
N2
Correct Answer
B. N2Explanation
The Variable Stator Vanes system uses fuel driven actuators controlled by the FADEC via FMU to optimize the position of the compressor stators. This optimization is done based on the corrected N2, which is the rotational speed of the high-pressure compressor. By adjusting the position of the stators, the system can provide optimum compressor efficiency, leading to improved engine performance.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Each engine has an independent lubrication system. The oil system lubricates and cools the turbine engine main shaft bearings and the accessory gearbox. Oil is pressurized in the _________________ , it then passes through the filter, the fuel-oil heat exchanger and is then divided into several circuits to lubricate the engine.
- A.
Lubrication pump
- B.
Low pressure oil pump
Correct Answer
A. Lubrication pumpExplanation
The oil system in the engine is pressurized by the lubrication pump. This pump is responsible for maintaining the necessary oil pressure to lubricate and cool the main shaft bearings and the accessory gearbox. The oil is pressurized by the lubrication pump and then passes through various components such as the filter and the fuel-oil heat exchanger before being divided into several circuits to lubricate the engine.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Oil quantity indication is provided for each engine oil tank and is displayed on the MFD. Oil quantity sensors in the __________ detect low oil quantity and trigger the low oil level caution at a specific level.
- A.
Tank
- B.
Line
Correct Answer
A. TankExplanation
The oil quantity sensors in the tank detect low oil quantity and trigger the low oil level caution at a specific level.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The pump contains one supply and _____ scavenge pumping elements.
- A.
Two
- B.
Four
Correct Answer
B. FourExplanation
The correct answer is four. This means that the pump contains four scavenge pumping elements in addition to one supply pumping element.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The engine starting system consists of a __________________ (ATS).
Correct Answer
Air Turbine StarterExplanation
The correct answer is Air Turbine Starter. The engine starting system consists of an Air Turbine Starter (ATS). An ATS is a device that uses compressed air to start an engine. It is commonly used in aircraft engines and other large engines. The ATS spins the engine's turbine, which in turn starts the engine. It provides a reliable and efficient way to start engines, especially in situations where electric starters may not be suitable or available.Rate this question:
- 12.
The engine starting system consists also of a __________________ (SCV).
Correct Answer
Starter control valveExplanation
The engine starting system consists also of a starter control valve (SCV). The SCV is responsible for controlling the flow of fuel to the engine during the starting process. It ensures that the correct amount of fuel is delivered to the engine to facilitate a smooth start. Without the SCV, the engine may not start properly or may experience issues such as flooding or stalling. Therefore, the SCV is an essential component of the engine starting system.Rate this question:
- 13.
The _______ opens the Starter Control Valve (SCV), providing bleed air from the APU, a ground source, or the opposite engine. The Air Turbine Starter (ATS) is a turbine that accelerates the engine to a self-sustaining rpm level.
- A.
FADEC
- B.
FMU
Correct Answer
A. FADECExplanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) opens the Starter Control Valve (SCV), providing bleed air from the APU, a ground source, or the opposite engine. The FADEC system is responsible for controlling and monitoring various engine functions, including starting the engine. In this case, it opens the SCV to allow bleed air from the APU, ground source, or opposite engine to flow into the Air Turbine Starter (ATS), which is a turbine that accelerates the engine to a self-sustaining rpm level.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The FADEC closes the ______ when the starter cutout speed is reached.
- A.
ATS (Air Turbine Starter)
- B.
SCV (Starter Control Valve)
Correct Answer
B. SCV (Starter Control Valve)Explanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) closes the Starter Control Valve (SCV) when the starter cutout speed is reached. This means that once the engine reaches a certain speed, the SCV is closed, indicating that the starter is no longer needed to start the engine. This helps to ensure the safe and efficient operation of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The FADEC energizes ...
- A.
One igniter for on-ground engine starts and both igniters for in-flight engine starts.
- B.
Both igniter for on-ground engine starts and on igniters for in-flight engine starts.
Correct Answer
A. One igniter for on-ground engine starts and both igniters for in-flight engine starts.Explanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) system is responsible for controlling the ignition of the engine. During on-ground engine starts, only one igniter is energized to ignite the engine. However, during in-flight engine starts, both igniters are energized to ensure a reliable ignition in the air. This is because in-flight engine starts can be more challenging due to factors like high altitude and cold temperatures. Therefore, the correct answer is that one igniter is used for on-ground engine starts, and both igniters are used for in-flight engine starts.Rate this question:
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- 16.
The FADEC initiates ignition at approximately ...
- A.
20% N2 and the fuel flow (metering valve opens) from 30% to 35% N2, depending on the engine start altitude.
- B.
7% N2 and the fuel flow (metering valve opens) from 20% to 25% N2, depending on the engine start altitude.
Correct Answer
B. 7% N2 and the fuel flow (metering valve opens) from 20% to 25% N2, depending on the engine start altitude.Explanation
The correct answer is 7% N2 and the fuel flow (metering valve opens) from 20% to 25% N2, depending on the engine start altitude. This means that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) system initiates ignition when the engine reaches 7% N2 and adjusts the fuel flow by opening the metering valve to increase the N2 level from 20% to 25%, depending on the altitude at which the engine is started. This ensures proper fuel-air mixture for ignition and optimal engine performance based on the altitude.Rate this question:
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- 17.
If no light off is detected within ...
- A.
15 s of fuel on, FADEC will automatically turn off ignition and fuel, continue dry motoring for 30 s, then turn on both igniters and turn on fuel again.
- B.
20 s of fuel on, FADEC will automatically turn off ignition and fuel, continue dry motoring for 40 s, then turn on both igniters and turn on fuel again.
Correct Answer
A. 15 s of fuel on, FADEC will automatically turn off ignition and fuel, continue dry motoring for 30 s, then turn on both igniters and turn on fuel again.Explanation
If no light off is detected within 15 seconds of fuel being turned on, the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) system will automatically turn off the ignition and fuel. It will then continue dry motoring (running the engine without fuel) for 30 seconds. After the dry motoring period, the FADEC system will turn on both igniters and turn on the fuel again. This process is likely a safety measure to prevent any potential issues or malfunctions that may occur if the engine does not start properly within the initial 15-second period.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Subsequently, if no light off is detected after the reintroduction of fuel, the FADEC will not turn off fuel or ignition and the start must be manually aborted ... ...
- A.
15 s after the reintroduction of fuel flow or start duty limit, whichever occurs first.
- B.
30 s after the reintroduction of fuel flow or start duty limit, whichever occurs first.
Correct Answer
A. 15 s after the reintroduction of fuel flow or start duty limit, whichever occurs first.Explanation
The correct answer is "15 s after the reintroduction of fuel flow or start duty limit, whichever occurs first." This means that if there is no light off (ignition) detected within 15 seconds after fuel flow is reintroduced or the start duty limit is reached, the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) system will not turn off the fuel or ignition automatically. Instead, the start must be manually aborted.Rate this question:
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- 19.
After a light off occurs, the FADEC commands the starter to cutout at approximately ________ , and commands the FMU fuel metering valve to accelerate the engine to ground idle speed.
- A.
40% N2
- B.
50% N2
- C.
60% N2
Correct Answer
B. 50% N2Explanation
After a light off occurs, the FADEC commands the starter to cutout at approximately 50% N2, and commands the FMU fuel metering valve to accelerate the engine to ground idle speed.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Engine ...
- A.
Cross-bleed air or windmilling can be used for in flight engine starts.
- B.
Cross-bleed air, APU bleed air, or windmilling can be used for in flight engine starts.
- C.
APU bleed air or windmilling can be used for in flight engine starts.
Correct Answer
B. Cross-bleed air, APU bleed air, or windmilling can be used for in flight engine starts. -
- 21.
An in flight cross-bleed start is identical to an on ground start, but the FADEC automatically controls fuel flow to initiate (Metering valve opens) if _____ has not reached 15% after 15 s.
- A.
N2
- B.
N1
Correct Answer
A. N2Explanation
An in-flight cross-bleed start is similar to an on-ground start, with the only difference being that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) automatically regulates the fuel flow to initiate the start if N2 (the rotational speed of the high-pressure spool) has not reached 15% after 15 seconds. N1 (the rotational speed of the low-pressure spool) is not relevant in this context.Rate this question:
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- 22.
For windmill starting, the SCV configures the pneumatic system. The engine start is controlled by the START/STOP selector knob and the FADEC commands ignition at 7% N2 and fuel flow at a minimum of 7.2% N2, or after _____ , whichever occurs first.
- A.
15 s
- B.
30 s
Correct Answer
A. 15 sExplanation
The correct answer is 15 s. The explanation for this answer is that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) commands ignition at 7% N2 and fuel flow at a minimum of 7.2% N2. The phrase "whichever occurs first" suggests that either the ignition or the fuel flow will occur first. Therefore, if the fuel flow reaches a minimum of 7.2% N2 before 15 seconds, the engine start will be controlled by the FADEC. If not, the engine start will be controlled by the START/STOP selector knob.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The FADEC has no protection for hot starts, hung starts or failure to light off for in flight engine starts. If no light off is detected within _____ after fuel flow is started, the start should be manually aborted.
- A.
15 s
- B.
30 s
Correct Answer
B. 30 sExplanation
The correct answer is 30 seconds. The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) system does not have any protection for hot starts, hung starts, or failure to light off during in-flight engine starts. If no light off is detected within 30 seconds after fuel flow is started, the start should be manually aborted.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The FADEC monitors N2 and automatically turns on both igniters and schedules the relight fuel flow in the event of an engine flameout. In addition a __________ is displayed next to the respective engine N2 and represents an auto relight actuation during the engine auto relight attempts.
- A.
WML icon
- B.
LMW icon
Correct Answer
A. WML iconExplanation
The correct answer is WML icon. The WML icon is displayed next to the respective engine N2 when an auto relight actuation occurs during engine auto relight attempts. This icon indicates that the FADEC has automatically turned on both igniters and scheduled the relight fuel flow in response to an engine flameout.Rate this question:
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- 25.
If the engine relight does not occur within ____ or N2 falls below 7.2% , the automatic relight can be considered unsuccessful and should be manually terminated by moving the START/STOP selector knob to the STOP position.
- A.
60 s
- B.
30 s
Correct Answer
B. 30 sExplanation
If the engine relight does not occur within 30 seconds or N2 falls below 7.2%, the automatic relight can be considered unsuccessful and should be manually terminated by moving the START/STOP selector knob to the STOP position.Rate this question:
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- 26.
During ground operations, auto relight attempts are terminated and fuel is shutoff if the engine rpm falls below _____ N2.
- A.
52 %
- B.
32 %
Correct Answer
A. 52 %Explanation
During ground operations, auto relight attempts are terminated and fuel is shut off if the engine rpm falls below 52% N2.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The Thrust Reverser System is ________________ actuated and controlled from the cockpit via the thrust lever.
Correct Answer
hydraulicallyExplanation
The Thrust Reverser System is hydraulically actuated and controlled from the cockpit via the thrust lever. This means that the system uses hydraulic power to activate and control the thrust reversers, which are used to redirect the thrust of the engines during landing to help slow down the aircraft. The pilot can control the activation and intensity of the thrust reversers by manipulating the thrust lever in the cockpit.Rate this question:
- 28.
The ________ provides an interlock function to protect against inadvertent thrust reverser deployment and also to protect against inadvertent thrust reverser stowing. A locking system consists of two actuator locks and the independent cowl lock. The cowl lock prevents inadvertent deployment of the thrust reverser.
- A.
FADEC
- B.
FMU
Correct Answer
A. FADECExplanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) system is responsible for controlling and monitoring the engine's parameters, including the thrust reverser. It provides an interlock function to prevent accidental deployment or stowing of the thrust reverser. This is achieved through the use of actuator locks and the independent cowl lock, which work together to ensure that the thrust reverser can only be operated intentionally and safely.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Thrust reverser deployment occurs only if the airplane is on the ground. The thrust reverser trigger can be lift up to ____________ after an engine inoperative condition is detected. After 30 seconds the engine inoperative condition does not release the thrust reverse trigger, so the respective thrust lever cannot be moved to reverse position.
- A.
30 seconds
- B.
60 seconds
Correct Answer
A. 30 secondsExplanation
After an engine inoperative condition is detected, the thrust reverser trigger can be lifted up to 30 seconds. However, if after 30 seconds the engine inoperative condition is still present, the thrust reverse trigger will not release, and the respective thrust lever cannot be moved to the reverse position.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The FADEC has two identical but isolated channels. One operates as the in-control channel and the other as a standby. The standby channel constantly processes all the data ...
- A.
And is always ready to take control of the engine in case the active channel fails.
- B.
And is not always ready to take control of the engine in case the active channel fails.
Correct Answer
A. And is always ready to take control of the engine in case the active channel fails.Explanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) system has two channels, one serving as the active or in-control channel and the other as the standby channel. The standby channel continuously processes data and is prepared to assume control of the engine if the active channel fails. This redundancy ensures that there is always a backup channel ready to take over in case of any failure, enhancing the safety and reliability of the engine control system.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The FADEC in-control channel is switched ...
- A.
Manually.
- B.
On every engine start.
Correct Answer
B. On every engine start.Explanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) in-control channel is switched on every engine start. This means that every time the engine is started, the FADEC system activates the in-control channel, which is responsible for controlling and managing the engine's performance. This ensures that the engine is properly controlled and monitored during operation.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Above approximately 50% N2 the FADEC is powered by the ____________ _____________ ________ (PMA). Below this value or in case the PMA becomes inoperative; the airplane’s electrical system provides the backup power.
Correct Answer
Permanent Magnet AlternatorExplanation
Above approximately 50% N2, the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) is powered by the Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA). Below this value, or if the PMA becomes inoperative, the airplane's electrical system provides the backup power.Rate this question:
- 33.
The Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System (ATTCS) is controlled by the FADEC and is available on ...
- A.
Takeoff and go around.
- B.
Takeoff only
Correct Answer
A. Takeoff and go around.Explanation
The correct answer is "Takeoff and go around." This means that the Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System (ATTCS) is used during both the takeoff phase and the go-around phase of a flight. It is controlled by the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) system.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The ATTCS automatically commands RSV whenever it is armed, thrust levers are at TOGA position, and one of following conditions occurs:
- A.
Difference between both engine N1 values is greater than 15%;
- B.
One engine failure during takeoff;
- C.
One engine failure during go-around;
- D.
Windshear detection.
- E.
All of above
Correct Answer
E. All of aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "all of above". This means that the ATTCS (Autothrust Takeoff and Go-Around Control System) will automatically command the RSV (Reverse Thrust) in all of the mentioned conditions. These conditions include a difference between both engine N1 values greater than 15%, one engine failure during takeoff or go-around, and windshear detection. In each of these situations, the ATTCS will activate the RSV to ensure the appropriate response and control of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The RSV mode is manually activated by moving the thrust levers to ______ position whenever the ATTCS is armed.
Correct Answer
MAX - 36.
The minimum flex takeoff thrust is limited to _____ maximum rated takeoff thrust or CLB-2 + 1% N1, whichever is higher.
- A.
75%
- B.
95%
Correct Answer
A. 75%Explanation
The minimum flex takeoff thrust is limited to 75% of the maximum rated takeoff thrust or CLB-2 + 1% N1, whichever is higher. This means that the flex takeoff thrust cannot be lower than 75% of the maximum rated takeoff thrust.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Flexible takeoff is possible with ATTCS ...
- A.
ON.
- B.
OFF.
- C.
ON or OFF.
Correct Answer
C. ON or OFF.Explanation
The explanation for the correct answer "ON or OFF" is that flexible takeoff is possible with ATTCS in either of these two modes. The system can be turned on or off depending on the specific requirements or conditions of the takeoff. This flexibility allows for greater adaptability and customization in the takeoff process, ensuring optimal performance and safety.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Whenever the ATTCS is triggered, TO-x RSV automatically becomes the maximum ____ , as long as the thrust levers are set to TO/GA.
- A.
N1
- B.
N2
Correct Answer
A. N1Explanation
When the ATTCS (Autothrust Takeoff/Go-Around Thrust Control System) is activated and the thrust levers are set to TO/GA (Takeoff/Go-Around), the TO-x RSV (Thrust Rating Select Variable) is automatically set to the maximum N1 (Low Pressure Compressor Speed) value. This means that the engine will provide maximum power output for takeoff or go-around operations. N1 represents the rotational speed of the low-pressure compressor in the engine, and setting it to the maximum ensures optimal performance during these critical phases of flight.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The go around mode is activated in flight whenever the ______________________ .
- A.
Landing gear is up.
- B.
Landing gear is down.
Correct Answer
B. Landing gear is down.Explanation
The go around mode is activated in flight whenever the landing gear is down. This means that when the aircraft is in the process of landing and the landing gear is extended, the go around mode can be activated to abort the landing and initiate a climb back into the air.Rate this question:
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- 40.
However the go around thrust can be achieved anytime in flight when the thrust rate mode is other than takeoff and the thrust levers are set to _______ .
- A.
TO/GA.
- B.
MAX.
Correct Answer
A. TO/GA.Explanation
The correct answer is TO/GA. The question is asking for the condition in which the go around thrust can be achieved anytime in flight. The answer is TO/GA, which stands for Takeoff/Go-Around. This means that when the thrust rate mode is not in takeoff mode and the thrust levers are set to TO/GA, the go around thrust can be achieved.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The ________ is the highest engine thrust possible and it is to be used in extreme situations where extra thrust is required when maneuvering for landing.
- A.
CONT
- B.
GA RSV
Correct Answer
B. GA RSVExplanation
The term "GA RSV" refers to the "Go-Around Reserve" thrust. This is the highest engine thrust setting that can be used in emergency situations during landing maneuvers. It is reserved for extreme situations where additional thrust is needed to safely maneuver the aircraft during landing.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The maximum continuous thrust is to be used on emergency situation where thrust higher than usual is required. It is the highest thrust the engines can operate ...
- A.
For a given limit of time.
- B.
Continuously without reducing the time between overhauls.
Correct Answer
B. Continuously without reducing the time between overhauls.Explanation
The maximum continuous thrust is the highest level of thrust that the engines can operate at continuously without reducing the time between overhauls. This means that the engines can maintain this level of thrust for an extended period of time without causing any damage or reducing their overall lifespan. It is important to have this capability in emergency situations where a higher level of thrust is needed for a sustained period of time.Rate this question:
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- 43.
During aircraft power up, _________________________. Whenever the selected takeoff thrust is lower than CLB-1 the CLB-2 mode becomes the default until the next airplane power down / power up.
- A.
CLB-1 is the default mode setting
- B.
CLB- 2 is the default mode setting
Correct Answer
A. CLB-1 is the default mode settingExplanation
During aircraft power up, the default mode setting for thrust is CLB-1. However, if the selected takeoff thrust is lower than CLB-1, the default mode setting becomes CLB-2 until the next power down/power up of the airplane.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Manual switching between the climb modes is possible anytime in flight on the MCDU - TRS page. On ground the CLB-1 mode is inhibited if the take off thrust selected is lower than _____ thrust.
- A.
CLB-1
- B.
CLB-2
Correct Answer
A. CLB-1Explanation
The CLB-1 mode is inhibited on the ground if the takeoff thrust selected is lower than a certain threshold. This means that if the thrust selected for takeoff is below this threshold, the aircraft will not enter the CLB-1 climb mode during the initial climb after takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The ________ modes are automatically adjusted by the FADEC in order to maintain the minimum thrust necessary to provide the required bleed pressure to the airplane.
- A.
IDLE
- B.
TO/GA
- C.
MAX
Correct Answer
A. IDLEExplanation
The IDLE mode is automatically adjusted by the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) to maintain the minimum thrust necessary to provide the required bleed pressure to the airplane. This means that when the engine is in idle mode, the FADEC system will automatically adjust the engine's thrust to ensure that the minimum amount of power is being used to maintain the necessary bleed pressure.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Flight Idle ___ varies with altitude and can change as a function of ECS and anti-ice bleed requirements.
- A.
N1
- B.
N2
Correct Answer
A. N1Explanation
The correct answer is N1. N1 refers to the low-pressure compressor speed, which is a measure of the engine power output. In flight, the N1 setting can vary with altitude and can change based on the requirements of the aircraft's environmental control system (ECS) and anti-ice bleed. Therefore, N1 is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the statement provided.Rate this question:
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- 47.
The idle mode selections are the following: (Check all the correct IDLE MODES)
- A.
Flight Idle.
- B.
Approach Idle.
- C.
Final Approach Idle.
- D.
Ground Idle.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Flight Idle.
B. Approach Idle.
C. Final Approach Idle.
D. Ground Idle.Explanation
The correct answer is Flight Idle, Approach Idle, Final Approach Idle, and Ground Idle. These are the different idle modes that can be selected. Flight Idle is used during normal cruising flight, Approach Idle is used during the approach phase of a flight, Final Approach Idle is used during the final approach to landing, and Ground Idle is used when the aircraft is on the ground and not in flight.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Whenever ICE CONDITION is sensed the ___ for the FLIGHT IDLE and APPROACH IDLE is automatically increased to maintain the minimum bleed pressure required for the ANTI ICE system operation.
- A.
N1
- B.
N2
Correct Answer
A. N1Explanation
Whenever ice conditions are detected, the N1 (fan speed) for the flight idle and approach idle is automatically increased to maintain the minimum bleed pressure required for the anti-ice system to operate effectively. This is necessary to prevent ice from forming on critical parts of the aircraft, such as the engine inlets, which could disrupt airflow and potentially cause engine damage. Increasing the N1 helps to maintain the necessary pressure and ensure the anti-ice system functions properly in icy conditions.Rate this question:
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- 49.
With the _______________________ there is no N1 automatic increase but a cyan dash is displayed on both EICAS N1 dial to show the minimum thrust required to maintain the bleed pressure required by the ANTI ICE system.
- A.
APPROACH IDLE
- B.
FINAL APPROACH IDLE
Correct Answer
B. FINAL APPROACH IDLEExplanation
During final approach idle, there is no automatic increase in N1 (fan speed) but a cyan dash is displayed on both EICAS N1 dials. This cyan dash indicates the minimum thrust required to maintain the bleed pressure needed for the ANTI ICE system. This means that the engines are operating at a low power setting to maintain the necessary pressure for the anti-ice system without any automatic increase in thrust. Therefore, the correct answer is "FINAL APPROACH IDLE".Rate this question:
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- 50.
Approach Idle is used in flight to enable rapid acceleration to go-around thrust. Approach idle is activated as follows: • Altitude less than ________ ft; • In flight; • Flaps 1 or greater; and • Landing gear down.
- A.
15000
- B.
10000
Correct Answer
A. 15000Explanation
Approach idle is activated when the aircraft meets the following conditions: altitude less than 15,000 ft, in flight, flaps 1 or greater, and landing gear down. This means that when the altitude is below 15,000 ft and the other conditions are met, the aircraft will use approach idle to enable rapid acceleration for a go-around thrust.Rate this question:
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Jul 21, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jun 08, 2011Quiz Created by
Santisfaction