First Responder, Unit 1 Preparatory Exam

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First Responder, Unit 1 Preparatory Exam - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Whenever possible, First Responders should -

    • A.

      Keep weight close to your body when lifting a patient.

    • B.

      Use their legs when lifting a patient.

    • C.

      Position their feet properly when lifting a patient.

    • D.

      Not move a patient.

    Correct Answer
    D. Not move a patient.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Not move a patient" because first responders should avoid moving a patient unless absolutely necessary. Moving a patient without proper training and equipment can potentially worsen their injuries or cause additional harm. It is important for first responders to assess the situation and call for professional medical assistance if needed, rather than attempting to move the patient themselves.

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  • 2. 

    It is far easier (when possible) to carry a patient down a flight of stairs using -

    • A.

      An ambulance stretcher

    • B.

      A Stokes basket

    • C.

      A stair chair

    • D.

      The firefighter's carry

    Correct Answer
    C. A stair chair
    Explanation
    A stair chair is the most suitable option for carrying a patient down a flight of stairs because it is specifically designed for this purpose. It is lightweight, compact, and equipped with features like straps and handles to ensure the safety and comfort of the patient during transport. The design of the stair chair allows for easy maneuverability and control while navigating stairs, reducing the risk of accidents or injuries to both the patient and the caregivers. Using a stair chair in such situations ensures efficient and safe transportation of the patient.

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  • 3. 

    The proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving patients while preventing injury to oneself and the patient is called -

    • A.

      Power lifting

    • B.

      Body mechanics

    • C.

      Power training

    • D.

      Body lifting

    Correct Answer
    B. Body mechanics
    Explanation
    Body mechanics refers to the proper use of the body while lifting and moving patients in order to prevent injury to oneself and the patient. It involves using the correct posture, body alignment, and muscle coordination to minimize strain on the body and maximize efficiency and safety during patient handling. Power lifting, power training, and body lifting do not specifically address the principles of proper body mechanics in patient handling.

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  • 4. 

    The greatest danger to a patient in an emergency move is that -

    • A.

      You may aggravate an already existing spinal injury.

    • B.

      You may trip and fall, possibly hurting yourself.

    • C.

      You may frighten the patient.

    • D.

      All the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. You may aggravate an already existing spinal injury.
    Explanation
    In an emergency move, the greatest danger to a patient is that you may aggravate an already existing spinal injury. Moving a patient without proper precautions can lead to further damage to the spinal cord, potentially causing paralysis or other serious complications. It is crucial to handle patients with suspected spinal injuries with extreme care and follow proper protocols to minimize the risk of exacerbating their condition.

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  • 5. 

    Have the patient stand.  Turn your back to her and bring her arms up and over your shoulders and across your chest. Keep her arms as straight as possible, her armpits over your shoulders.  Hold the patient's wrists, bend, and pull her onto your back.  Which carry does this describe?

    • A.

      The Cradle carry

    • B.

      The Pack Strap carry

    • C.

      The Firefighter's carry

    • D.

      The Piggy Back carry

    Correct Answer
    B. The Pack Strap carry
    Explanation
    This description explains the Pack Strap carry. It involves the caregiver turning their back to the patient and bringing their arms up and over their shoulders and across their chest. The patient's arms should be kept straight and their armpits should be positioned over the caregiver's shoulders. The caregiver then holds the patient's wrists, bends, and pulls the patient onto their back. This technique is commonly used in emergency situations or when the patient is unable to walk or stand on their own.

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  • 6. 

    The care expected of a First Responder based on local laws, administrative orders, guidelines and protocols, established by the EMS system is called  -

    • A.

      Expressed care

    • B.

      Implied care

    • C.

      Standard of care

    • D.

      Scope of practice

    Correct Answer
    C. Standard of care
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Standard of care." Standard of care refers to the level of care that is expected from a First Responder based on local laws, administrative orders, guidelines, and protocols established by the EMS system. It sets the benchmark for the quality of care that should be provided in a given situation. This standard ensures that First Responders adhere to the established protocols and guidelines to deliver consistent and appropriate care to patients.

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  • 7. 

    Which federal agency is charged with the development of a modern Emergency Medical Services system?

    • A.

      The American Red Cross

    • B.

      Department of Transportation (DOT)

    • C.

      Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

    • D.

      Federal Food And Drug Administration (FDA)

    Correct Answer
    B. Department of Transportation (DOT)
    Explanation
    The Department of Transportation (DOT) is responsible for the development of a modern Emergency Medical Services system. This agency oversees various modes of transportation, including emergency medical transportation, and works to ensure the safety and efficiency of these systems. They establish regulations, provide funding, and coordinate with other agencies and organizations to improve emergency medical services nationwide. The American Red Cross focuses on providing humanitarian aid and assistance during emergencies, while the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) deals with aviation safety and regulations. The Federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for regulating and ensuring the safety of food, drugs, and medical devices.

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  • 8. 

    A First Responder who does not provide the standard of care, and causes physical or psychological harm,  may be accused of -

    • A.

      Failure to act

    • B.

      Abandonment

    • C.

      Negligence

    • D.

      Malpractice

    Correct Answer
    C. Negligence
    Explanation
    Negligence is the correct answer because it refers to the failure to exercise the level of care that a reasonable person would in similar circumstances, resulting in harm to another person. In the context of a First Responder, if they fail to provide the standard of care expected of them and this leads to physical or psychological harm, they can be accused of negligence. This means that they did not act in a reasonable and responsible manner, causing harm to the individual they were supposed to help.

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  • 9. 

    Touching an adult patient against his or her will can be described as -

    • A.

      Battery and a civil rights violation.

    • B.

      Expressed Consent

    • C.

      Implied Consent

    • D.

      Negligence

    Correct Answer
    A. Battery and a civil rights violation.
    Explanation
    Touching an adult patient against his or her will can be described as battery, which refers to the intentional and unauthorized physical contact with another person that causes harm or offense. In addition, it can also be considered a civil rights violation as it infringes upon the patient's right to bodily autonomy and personal integrity. Both battery and civil rights violation are applicable in this scenario as they accurately describe the act of touching an adult patient without their consent.

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  • 10. 

    A conscious and mentally competent adult patient, who gives you oral consent to provide care, is giving you -

    • A.

      Expressed consent

    • B.

      Implied consent

    • C.

      Informed consent

    • D.

      Involuntary consent

    Correct Answer
    A. Expressed consent
    Explanation
    Expressed consent refers to the explicit verbal or written permission given by a conscious and mentally competent adult patient to provide care. In this scenario, the patient has orally given consent for the healthcare provider to provide care. Expressed consent is considered valid and legally binding as long as the patient is fully aware of the nature, risks, and benefits of the proposed care or treatment. It is important for healthcare providers to obtain expressed consent in order to respect the patient's autonomy and ensure ethical and legal practice.

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  • 11. 

    What is the purpose of a Critical Incident Stress Management team?

    • A.

      They provide emotional support for victims after an emergency.

    • B.

      They help prehospital care providers, in-hospital providers, and police agencies deal with stress from a difficult emergency.

    • C.

      They provide emergency equipment to prehospital care providers during emergency situations.

    • D.

      They provide government funding to victims of emergency situations, and other natural disasters.

    Correct Answer
    B. They help prehospital care providers, in-hospital providers, and police agencies deal with stress from a difficult emergency.
    Explanation
    The purpose of a Critical Incident Stress Management team is to assist and support prehospital care providers, in-hospital providers, and police agencies in coping with the stress and emotional challenges that arise from difficult emergencies. These teams are trained to provide psychological support, counseling, and debriefing sessions to help individuals process their experiences and manage the emotional toll of their work. This support is crucial in ensuring the well-being and mental health of these professionals who frequently encounter traumatic situations in their line of duty.

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  • 12. 

    When dealing with patients or family members who are confronted with death and dying, what should the First Responder never do?

    • A.

      Recognize the patient's needs.

    • B.

      Offer comfort.

    • C.

      Give the patient or family members false hope.

    • D.

      Be tolerant of the angry reactions from the patients or their family members.

    Correct Answer
    C. Give the patient or family members false hope.
    Explanation
    When dealing with patients or family members who are confronted with death and dying, the First Responder should never give false hope. This is because false hope can lead to unrealistic expectations and can prevent the patient and their family members from accepting the reality of the situation. It is important for the First Responder to recognize the patient's needs and offer comfort, as well as be tolerant of any angry reactions from the patients or their family members. However, giving false hope can be detrimental to the emotional well-being of everyone involved.

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  • 13. 

    The practice of using specific barriers to minimize the contact with a patient's blood and body fluids is known as -  

    • A.

      Infectious disease prevention.

    • B.

      Body substance isolation.

    • C.

      Immunity.

    • D.

      Universal precautions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Body substance isolation.
    Explanation
    Body substance isolation is the practice of using specific barriers to minimize contact with a patient's blood and body fluids. This includes wearing gloves, gowns, masks, and eye protection to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases. It is an important measure taken by healthcare professionals to protect themselves and others from potential infections. Universal precautions refer to the approach of treating all patients as potentially infectious, while immunity refers to the body's ability to resist infections. Therefore, the correct answer is body substance isolation.

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  • 14. 

    It is estimated that as many as __ health care workers die each year from Hepatitis B, or it's complications.

    • A.

      50

    • B.

      100

    • C.

      150

    • D.

      250

    Correct Answer
    D. 250
    Explanation
    It is estimated that as many as 250 healthcare workers die each year from Hepatitis B, or its complications. This suggests that the number of healthcare workers who succumb to Hepatitis B is quite significant, emphasizing the importance of preventive measures and vaccinations for healthcare professionals to protect themselves from this potentially fatal disease.

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  • 15. 

    As a First Responder, it is important -

    • A.

      To learn as much medical terminology as possible, in order to effectively communicate with EMTs and Paramedics.

    • B.

      To know the major internal structures and the general locations of these structures.

    • C.

      To have a strong knowledge of the anatomical internal structure of the human body.

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    B. To know the major internal structures and the general locations of these structures.
    Explanation
    As a First Responder, it is important to know the major internal structures and the general locations of these structures. This knowledge allows the First Responder to have a better understanding of the human body and to effectively assess and communicate about injuries or medical conditions. By knowing the major internal structures, the First Responder can provide more accurate information to EMTs and Paramedics, leading to better coordination and care for the patient. Additionally, this knowledge helps the First Responder to identify potential life-threatening situations and provide appropriate initial treatment.

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  • 16. 

    The anatomical position can best be described as a person -

    • A.

      Standing, facing forward, with hands and palms facing forward.

    • B.

      Standing, facing forward, with hands and palms facing backward.

    • C.

      Lying supine, with hands and palms facing upward.

    • D.

      Lying prone, with hands and palms facing downward.

    Correct Answer
    A. Standing, facing forward, with hands and palms facing forward.
    Explanation
    The anatomical position refers to the standard position in which the body is described. In this position, the person is standing upright, facing forward, and their hands and palms are also facing forward. This position is used as a reference point for describing the location and orientation of various body parts.

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  • 17. 

    The front of the body, or a body part, is described as which of the following?

    • A.

      Posterior

    • B.

      Medial

    • C.

      Lateral

    • D.

      Anterior

    Correct Answer
    D. Anterior
    Explanation
    The front of the body, or a body part, is described as the anterior. This term is used to refer to the front or forward-facing side of the body or a specific body part. It is the opposite of posterior, which refers to the back or rear-facing side. Medial and lateral are used to describe positions closer to or farther away from the midline of the body, respectively.

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  • 18. 

    The chest is __ to the abdomen.

    • A.

      Distal

    • B.

      Proximal

    • C.

      Superior

    • D.

      Inferior

    Correct Answer
    C. Superior
    Explanation
    The chest is superior to the abdomen because it is located above the abdomen. In anatomical terms, superior refers to a position that is higher or above another structure. The chest is positioned higher than the abdomen, hence making it the correct answer.

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  • 19. 

    The spleen, pancreas, and stomach are located in what quadrant?

    • A.

      Right upper quadrant

    • B.

      Left upper quadrant

    • C.

      Right lower quadrant

    • D.

      Left lower quadrant

    Correct Answer
    B. Left upper quadrant
    Explanation
    The spleen, pancreas, and stomach are located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. This quadrant is situated just below the left rib cage and includes the left portion of the liver, the stomach, the spleen, the left kidney, and parts of the small and large intestines. The pancreas is also located in this quadrant, specifically in the upper left portion of the abdomen, behind the stomach.

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  • 20. 

    Extending care to a patient through a chain of human resources linked together, to provide continuous pre-hospital care, is known as the -

    • A.

      Pre-hospital Care Chain (PCC)

    • B.

      Chain Of Life (COL)

    • C.

      Emergency Medical Services system (EMS)

    • D.

      Emergency Human Resource Chain (EHRC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Emergency Medical Services system (EMS)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Emergency Medical Services system (EMS). This is because the term "Emergency Medical Services system" refers to the network of healthcare professionals and resources that work together to provide pre-hospital care to patients. It involves a chain of human resources, such as paramedics, emergency medical technicians, and other healthcare professionals, who are linked together to ensure continuous care for patients in emergency situations. The EMS system plays a crucial role in delivering timely and appropriate medical care to individuals in need.

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  • 21. 

    Which level of emergency training emphasizes activating the EMS system,  providing immediate care for life threatening injuries or illnesses, controlling the emergency scene, and preparing for the arrival of an ambulance?

    • A.

      First Responder

    • B.

      EMT-Basic

    • C.

      EMT-Intermediate

    • D.

      EMT-Paramedic

    Correct Answer
    A. First Responder
    Explanation
    The correct answer is First Responder. First Responders are trained to activate the EMS system, provide immediate care for life-threatening injuries or illnesses, control the emergency scene, and prepare for the arrival of an ambulance. They are often the first on the scene and play a crucial role in stabilizing the patient and ensuring their safety until more advanced medical personnel arrive. EMT-Basics, EMT-Intermediates, and EMT-Paramedics have more advanced levels of training and responsibilities.

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  • 22. 

    The physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for medical direction, or oversight of the patient care aspects of the EMS system,  is kn

    • A.

      Designated Agent

    • B.

      Medical Director

    • C.

      Medical Agent

    • D.

      Standing Orders Physician

    Correct Answer
    B. Medical Director
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Medical Director. The medical director is the physician who assumes the ultimate responsibility for medical direction and oversight of the patient care aspects of the EMS system. They provide guidance and supervision to EMS providers, develop protocols and standing orders, and ensure that the highest standards of care are maintained. The medical director plays a crucial role in ensuring the quality and safety of pre-hospital care.

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  • 23. 

    __ medical direction consists of standing orders, issued by the Medical Director,  that allow EMS personnel to give certain medications or perform certain procedures without speaking to the Medical Director or other physician.

    • A.

      On-line

    • B.

      Off-line

    • C.

      Remote

    • D.

      Standard

    Correct Answer
    B. Off-line
    Explanation
    Off-line medical direction refers to standing orders that are issued by the Medical Director, which allow EMS personnel to administer specific medications or perform certain procedures without needing direct communication with the Medical Director or any other physician. This means that the EMS personnel can independently make decisions and provide appropriate treatment based on the established protocols and guidelines set by the Medical Director.

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  • 24. 

    What a First Responder is allowed and suppose to do according to the National Standard Curriculum is known as the -

    • A.

      Standard of care.

    • B.

      Scope of care.

    • C.

      Scope of practice.

    • D.

      Standard of practice.

    Correct Answer
    B. Scope of care.
    Explanation
    The term "scope of care" refers to the specific responsibilities and actions that a First Responder is allowed and expected to perform, as outlined in the National Standard Curriculum. It encompasses the range of skills, procedures, and protocols that a First Responder is trained to carry out in order to provide appropriate and effective care in emergency situations. This includes assessing and stabilizing patients, administering basic medical treatments, and coordinating with other healthcare professionals. The scope of care defines the boundaries within which a First Responder can operate and ensures that they provide care within their level of training and expertise.

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  • 25. 

    The body system that protects the body from disease-causing organisms is referred to as the -

    • A.

      Endocrine system.

    • B.

      Immune system.

    • C.

      Nervous system.

    • D.

      Auto-immune system.

    Correct Answer
    B. Immune system.
    Explanation
    The immune system is responsible for protecting the body from disease-causing organisms. It is a complex network of cells, tissues, and organs that work together to defend the body against harmful pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. The immune system recognizes and destroys these foreign invaders, helping to maintain the overall health and well-being of the body. The endocrine system, nervous system, and auto-immune system do not have the primary function of protecting the body from disease-causing organisms, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 26. 

    The largest organ in the body is the -

    • A.

      Heart

    • B.

      Lungs.

    • C.

      Liver

    • D.

      Skin.

    Correct Answer
    D. Skin.
    Explanation
    The skin is the largest organ in the body. It covers the entire external surface and protects the body from external elements. It also helps regulate body temperature, stores fat, and produces important substances like vitamin D. The heart, lungs, and liver are all vital organs, but they are not the largest organ in the body.

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  • 27. 

    A patient found lying on their side is in which position?

    • A.

      Prone.

    • B.

      Supine.

    • C.

      Lateral recumbent.

    • D.

      Medial recumbent.

    Correct Answer
    C. Lateral recumbent.
    Explanation
    A patient found lying on their side is in the lateral recumbent position. This position is characterized by the patient lying on their side with their upper leg flexed at the hip and knee, while their lower leg remains straight. The lateral recumbent position is often used for procedures such as lumbar punctures or when a patient is unable to lie flat on their back.

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  • 28. 

    The four major body cavities are the -

    • A.

      Thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial and spinal cavities

    • B.

      Thoracic, cervical, cranial and spinal cavities

    • C.

      Right upper, left upper, right lower and left lower cavities

    • D.

      Anterior, posterior, distal and proximal cavities

    Correct Answer
    A. Thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial and spinal cavities
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial and spinal cavities. These are the four major body cavities in human anatomy. The thoracic cavity contains the heart and lungs, the abdominopelvic cavity contains the digestive organs and reproductive organs, the cranial cavity contains the brain, and the spinal cavity contains the spinal cord. These cavities house and protect vital organs and allow for their proper functioning.

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  • 29. 

    Which body structure is used as a quick reference point in order to find the location of the heart?

    • A.

      Sternum

    • B.

      Xiphoid process

    • C.

      Collar bones

    • D.

      Ribs

    Correct Answer
    B. XipHoid process
    Explanation
    The xiphoid process is a small, cartilaginous extension at the lower end of the sternum. It serves as a reference point for locating the heart because it lies directly above the heart in the midline of the chest. By palpating or feeling for the xiphoid process, healthcare professionals can easily determine the approximate location of the heart.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following would NOT be considered skills of a First Responder?

    • A.

      Gathering information from patients or bystanders.

    • B.

      Gaining access to patients in cars by way of doors or windows.

    • C.

      Performing basic dressing and bandaging techniques.

    • D.

      Administering drugs at the request of the Medical Director.

    Correct Answer
    D. Administering drugs at the request of the Medical Director.
    Explanation
    Administering drugs at the request of the Medical Director would not be considered a skill of a First Responder because First Responders are typically not authorized to administer drugs without direct medical supervision or a specific order from a physician. First Responders are trained to provide immediate medical care, including gathering information, gaining access to patients, and performing basic dressing and bandaging techniques, but the administration of drugs is usually reserved for higher-level medical professionals.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statements regarding the duties of the First Responder is NOT true?

    • A.

      The First Responder should realize that every patient is unique.

    • B.

      The First Responder should always reassure the patient by telling them that, "Everything will be all right."

    • C.

      The First Responder must be honest and realistic.

    • D.

      The First Responder must be able to control his feelings at an emergency scene.

    Correct Answer
    B. The First Responder should always reassure the patient by telling them that, "Everything will be all right."
    Explanation
    The First Responder should always reassure the patient by telling them that, "Everything will be all right." This statement is not true because the First Responder should be honest and realistic in their communication with the patient. It is important for the First Responder to provide accurate information and not make false promises or give false reassurances. They should focus on providing necessary medical care and support while maintaining a calm and professional demeanor.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following levels of certification would be considered the highest level in the EMS system?

    • A.

      EMT- Paramedic.

    • B.

      EMT- Basic.

    • C.

      EMT - Intermediate.

    • D.

      First Responder.

    Correct Answer
    A. EMT- Paramedic.
    Explanation
    The EMT-Paramedic level of certification is considered the highest level in the EMS system. Paramedics undergo extensive training and education, which includes advanced medical skills and knowledge. They are able to perform advanced life support interventions, administer medications, and make critical decisions in emergency situations. EMT-Basic and EMT-Intermediate levels have less training and fewer responsibilities compared to Paramedics. First Responders are the first on the scene of an emergency, but they have limited medical training and primarily focus on providing initial care and stabilizing the patient until advanced medical help arrives.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following would NOT be described as a duty of a First Responder?

    • A.

      Sizing up the scene.

    • B.

      Determining what is wrong with the patient and providing emergency care using a minimum amount of equipment.

    • C.

      Lifting or moving the patient only if required, and without causing further injury to the patient.

    • D.

      Transporting the patient to the hospital.

    Correct Answer
    D. Transporting the patient to the hospital.
    Explanation
    The duty of a First Responder is to provide immediate emergency care to the patient at the scene, assess the situation, and stabilize the patient's condition using the available equipment. They are responsible for sizing up the scene, determining the patient's condition, and providing necessary care without causing further harm. However, transporting the patient to the hospital is typically the responsibility of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) or ambulance personnel, not the First Responder.

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  • 34. 

    The primary concern of a First Responder at all times should be which of the following?

    • A.

      Personal Safety.

    • B.

      The safety of the patient.

    • C.

      Knowing how to contact and initiate the EMS system.

    • D.

      Assisting rescuers with a higher level of certification at an emergency scene.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personal Safety.
    Explanation
    The primary concern of a First Responder at all times should be personal safety. This is because if the First Responder is not safe, they will not be able to effectively help others. Personal safety includes wearing appropriate personal protective equipment, assessing the scene for any potential hazards, and ensuring that the First Responder is not putting themselves in harm's way. By prioritizing personal safety, the First Responder can then focus on providing the necessary assistance to the patient and coordinating with the EMS system if needed.

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  • 35. 

    A patient who does not react  to verbal or painful stimuli is known as -

    • A.

      Unconscious.

    • B.

      D.O.A.

    • C.

      Unresponsive.

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Unresponsive.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unresponsive." This term refers to a patient who does not react to either verbal or painful stimuli. It indicates a lack of response or consciousness, suggesting that the person is not aware or responsive to their surroundings or stimuli.

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  • 36. 

    The ability of the patient to understand a First Responder's questions and the implications of decisions made is known as -

    • A.

      Competence.

    • B.

      Consciousness.

    • C.

      Level of consciousness.

    • D.

      Intelligence.

    Correct Answer
    A. Competence.
    Explanation
    The ability of the patient to understand a First Responder's questions and the implications of decisions made is known as competence. Competence refers to the capacity of an individual to comprehend and make informed decisions. In the context of medical emergencies, it is crucial for a patient to be competent in order to understand and respond appropriately to the questions and instructions provided by a First Responder. This ensures effective communication and enables the First Responder to provide the necessary care and treatment.

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  • 37. 

    In which of the following situations are First Responders required by law to break the code of patient confidentiality? (1) Rape  (2) Diabetes  (3) Abuse  (4) Gunshot wounds  (5) Broken limbs

    • A.

      1, 3, 4

    • B.

      2, 5

    • C.

      1, 2, 3, 4

    • D.

      1, 2, 3, 4, 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 3, 4
    Explanation
    First Responders are required by law to break the code of patient confidentiality in situations involving rape, abuse, and gunshot wounds. These situations involve serious harm or danger to the patient or others, and it is necessary for First Responders to disclose information to protect the well-being and safety of individuals involved.

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  • 38. 

    At crime scenes, EMS personnel and police officers often must work together. Sometimes disagreements arise between the two. What is the best way to handle these situations?

    • A.

      Ignore the police officers and continue with patient care.

    • B.

      Engage the police officers in an argument, while providing care to the patient. Patient care must come first.

    • C.

      EMS workers should calmly, and as quickly as possible, explain to police officers the need to provide patient care. Any disputes should be handled at a later time in a joint critique of the incident.

    • D.

      None of the above, police officers govern all decisions made in any emergency situation.

    Correct Answer
    C. EMS workers should calmly, and as quickly as possible, explain to police officers the need to provide patient care. Any disputes should be handled at a later time in a joint critique of the incident.
    Explanation
    In situations where disagreements arise between EMS personnel and police officers at crime scenes, the best approach is for EMS workers to calmly and quickly explain the importance of providing patient care to the police officers. It is crucial to prioritize patient care while maintaining a professional and respectful attitude towards law enforcement. Any disputes or conflicts should be addressed later in a joint critique of the incident, allowing for a constructive discussion and resolution of the issues. This approach ensures that the focus remains on the well-being of the patient while fostering collaboration between the two parties involved.

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  • 39. 

    After a crime scene has been made safe by police,  your first priority is -

    • A.

      Not to touch anything until the police are able to take fingerprints .

    • B.

      Patient care.

    • C.

      To give a statement to the police concerning the patient's injuries.

    • D.

      To allow the police to interview the patient before you transport.

    Correct Answer
    B. Patient care.
    Explanation
    After a crime scene has been made safe by police, your first priority is patient care. This means that the immediate concern should be providing medical assistance and ensuring the well-being of any injured individuals. It is important to prioritize the health and safety of the patient before any other actions, such as giving a statement or allowing the police to interview the patient. Touching anything at the crime scene can wait until the necessary medical attention has been provided.

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  • 40. 

    The first concern of responders at an accident scene should be:

    • A.

      Helping injured people

    • B.

      Assessing scene safety

    • C.

      Removing bystanders

    • D.

      Identifying victims

    Correct Answer
    B. Assessing scene safety
    Explanation
    The first concern of responders at an accident scene should be assessing scene safety. This is because ensuring the safety of everyone involved, including the responders themselves, is crucial before any further actions can be taken. By assessing the scene for any potential hazards or dangers, responders can make informed decisions on how to proceed and provide help to the injured individuals. This step helps to prevent further accidents or injuries and ensures a safer environment for everyone involved.

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  • 41. 

    One of the best ways to deal wtih First Responder stress is to do all the following except -

    • A.

      Develop a more healthy diet

    • B.

      Exercise on a regular basis

    • C.

      Spend more time relaxiing

    • D.

      Keep your emotions hidden

    Correct Answer
    D. Keep your emotions hidden
    Explanation
    Keeping your emotions hidden is not a recommended way to deal with First Responder stress. It is important for First Responders to acknowledge and express their emotions in a healthy manner. By keeping emotions hidden, it can lead to increased stress and potential long-term negative effects on mental and emotional well-being. Therefore, it is important for First Responders to find healthy outlets to express and manage their emotions, such as talking to a trusted friend or seeking professional help if needed.

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  • 42. 

    The practice of using specific barriers to minimize the contact with a patient's blood and body fluids is know as -

    • A.

      Infectious disease prevention

    • B.

      Body substance isolation

    • C.

      Immunity

    • D.

      Universal precautions

    Correct Answer
    B. Body substance isolation
    Explanation
    Body substance isolation refers to the practice of using specific barriers, such as gloves, masks, and gowns, to minimize contact with a patient's blood and body fluids. This is done to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases from the patient to healthcare workers and vice versa. It is an important measure in healthcare settings to ensure the safety of both patients and healthcare providers. Universal precautions, on the other hand, refer to the practice of treating all patients as potentially infectious and taking the necessary precautions to prevent the spread of infection. Immunity refers to the body's ability to resist or fight off infection.

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  • 43. 

    Organisms, such viruses, and bacteria, that cause infection are commonly known as -

    • A.

      Pathogens

    • B.

      Antigens

    • C.

      Allergens

    • D.

      Diseases

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathogens
    Explanation
    Pathogens are organisms, such as viruses and bacteria, that cause infection. They invade the body and can cause harm or disease. Pathogens are able to multiply and spread within the body, leading to various symptoms and illnesses. They can be transmitted through direct contact, airborne particles, contaminated food or water, or through vectors like mosquitoes. Understanding pathogens is crucial in developing effective treatments and preventive measures to combat infections and protect public health.

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  • 44. 

    The federal agency responsible for issuing guidelines for employee safety at the workplace is known as -

    • A.

      OSHA

    • B.

      FDA

    • C.

      FAA

    • D.

      OHSA

    Correct Answer
    A. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) is the federal agency responsible for issuing guidelines for employee safety at the workplace. It sets and enforces standards to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees across various industries. OSHA's guidelines cover a wide range of areas including hazard communication, personal protective equipment, machinery safety, and ergonomics. The agency conducts inspections, provides training and education, and imposes penalties for non-compliance with its regulations. OSHA plays a crucial role in protecting workers from workplace hazards and promoting a safe working environment.

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  • 45. 

    The greatest danger to a patient in an emergency move is that -

    • A.

      You may aggravate an already existing spinal injury

    • B.

      You may trip and fall, possibly hurting yourself

    • C.

      You may frighten the patient

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. You may aggravate an already existing spinal injury
    Explanation
    In an emergency move, there is a risk of aggravating an already existing spinal injury in a patient. This is because sudden movements or improper handling during the move can put additional stress on the spine, potentially causing further damage. It is crucial to exercise caution and follow proper protocols to minimize the risk of worsening the patient's condition.

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  • 46. 

    Special spinal immobilization boards which are made to fit infants and children are called -

    • A.

      Infant boards

    • B.

      Short boards

    • C.

      Pedi-boards

    • D.

      Peti-boards

    Correct Answer
    C. Pedi-boards
    Explanation
    Special spinal immobilization boards designed specifically for infants and children are commonly referred to as "pedi-boards". These boards are tailored to fit the smaller bodies of young patients, providing the necessary support and immobilization during transportation or medical procedures. The term "pedi" is derived from the word "pediatric", which pertains to the medical care of children. Therefore, "pedi-boards" is the correct term for these specialized spinal immobilization boards for infants and children.

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  • 47. 

    The best means of moving a patient with a possible spinal injury is with a -

    • A.

      Scoop stretcher

    • B.

      Basket stretcher

    • C.

      Ambulance stretcher

    • D.

      Long spine board

    Correct Answer
    D. Long spine board
    Explanation
    A long spine board is the best means of moving a patient with a possible spinal injury because it provides rigid support to the entire length of the spine. This helps to immobilize the spine and prevent further damage or injury during transportation. The long spine board allows for safe and secure transfer of the patient without compromising the stability of the spine. It is specifically designed for spinal immobilization and is commonly used by emergency medical personnel in cases of suspected spinal injuries.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following best describes the recovery position?

    • A.

      Patient lying on his back

    • B.

      Patient lying on his stomach

    • C.

      Patient lying on his side

    • D.

      Patient semi-seated

    Correct Answer
    C. Patient lying on his side
    Explanation
    The recovery position is a position in which a patient lies on their side. This position is used to maintain an open airway and prevent choking or aspiration in an unconscious or injured individual. It helps to keep the airway clear by allowing any fluids or vomit to drain out of the mouth. Additionally, it helps to prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway. Lying on the side also helps to prevent the patient from rolling onto their back, which could further compromise their breathing.

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  • 49. 

    All of the following are examples of patient drags except -

    • A.

      Decline drag

    • B.

      Blanket drag

    • C.

      Shoulder drag

    • D.

      Foot drag

    Correct Answer
    A. Decline drag
    Explanation
    A decline drag is not an example of a patient drag. Patient drags typically involve moving or repositioning a patient, such as using a blanket drag to move a patient across a surface, a shoulder drag to assist a patient in a seated position, or a foot drag to help a patient walk. A decline drag, however, does not refer to a commonly used technique for moving patients.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 16, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 30, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Crichardson
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