First Year Midwifery
Test your knowledge on first year midwifery!
- 1.
The number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of outcome, including the current pregnancy is defined as:
- A.
Parity
- B.
Gravida
- C.
Pregnosis
- D.
Fundus
Correct Answer
B. GravidaExplanation
Gravida is the correct answer because it refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome. It is a term commonly used in medical and obstetric fields to describe a woman's pregnancy history. Parity, on the other hand, refers to the number of pregnancies that have reached 20 weeks or more, resulting in a live birth or stillbirth. Pregnosis and Fundus are not relevant terms in this context.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Parity is defined as
- A.
The strength of the uterine muscle.
- B.
The dilation of the cervix.
- C.
The number of time a woman has been pregnant.
- D.
The number of a woman has given birth.
Correct Answer
D. The number of a woman has given birth.Explanation
Parity refers to the number of times a woman has given birth. It is a term used in obstetrics to classify women based on their reproductive history. It helps healthcare providers assess the potential risks and complications during pregnancy and delivery. Parity is important because each pregnancy and childbirth experience can impact future pregnancies, and it helps in determining the appropriate care and management for pregnant women.Rate this question:
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- 3.
LNMP stands for:
- A.
Labour Not Making Progress
- B.
Legal Natural Mother's Parity
- C.
Last Normal Menstrual Period
- D.
Ligand Neurotransmitter Myofibril Perisome
Correct Answer
C. Last Normal Menstrual PeriodExplanation
LNMP stands for Last Normal Menstrual Period. This term is commonly used in medical and obstetric contexts to refer to the date of a woman's last menstrual period. It is an important piece of information for calculating the estimated due date of a pregnancy and for monitoring the progress of the pregnancy. By knowing the LNMP, healthcare professionals can determine the gestational age of the fetus and track its development. This information is crucial for providing appropriate prenatal care and identifying any potential issues or complications that may arise during pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Excessive vomiting in early pregnancy is known as:
- A.
Morning sickness
- B.
Hyperemesis
- C.
Normal in most pregnancies.
- D.
Hypervomitus.
Correct Answer
B. HyperemesisExplanation
Hyperemesis is the correct answer because it refers to excessive vomiting in early pregnancy. While morning sickness is a common occurrence, hyperemesis is a more severe form of nausea and vomiting that can lead to dehydration and weight loss. It is important to differentiate between normal morning sickness and hyperemesis as the latter may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The term fetus is defined as:
- A.
The baby, once it is mature enough to survive outside the womb.
- B.
The maternal tissue, plus the umbilicus and placenta.
- C.
The unborn offspring, from the end of the 8th week of conception until birth,
- D.
The unborn child, as soon as conception occurs.
Correct Answer
C. The unborn offspring, from the end of the 8th week of conception until birth,Explanation
The term fetus refers to the unborn offspring from the end of the 8th week of conception until birth. This means that after the 8th week of conception, the developing organism is considered a fetus until it is born. This term is commonly used in medical and scientific contexts to describe the stage of development of a human or animal before birth.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The premature exit of the products of conception is known as:
- A.
Abortion.
- B.
Miscarriage.
- C.
Chemical pregnancy.
- D.
Stillbirth.
Correct Answer
A. Abortion.Explanation
The premature exit of the products of conception is known as abortion. This term refers to the intentional termination of a pregnancy, whether it is through medical procedures or medications. It is important to note that abortion can be induced or occur naturally. Miscarriage, on the other hand, refers to the spontaneous loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week. Chemical pregnancy is a term used to describe a very early miscarriage that occurs shortly after implantation. Stillbirth refers to the loss of a baby after the 20th week of pregnancy.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A uterine contraction is:
- A.
Sometimes referred to as "Braxton Hicks"
- B.
A tightening and shortening of the uterine muscles.
- C.
A signal to the midwife to perform an artificial rupture of membranes.
- D.
The stretching of the pelvic floor muscles.
Correct Answer
B. A tightening and shortening of the uterine muscles.Explanation
A uterine contraction refers to the tightening and shortening of the uterine muscles. This is a natural process that occurs during pregnancy and is commonly referred to as "Braxton Hicks" contractions. These contractions help prepare the uterus for labor and delivery by strengthening the uterine muscles and promoting blood flow to the placenta. They are usually painless and irregular, unlike true labor contractions. The other options, such as performing an artificial rupture of membranes or stretching of the pelvic floor muscles, are not accurate descriptions of uterine contractions.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Labour is defined as:
- A.
The voluntary pushing and effort of the mother during childbirth.
- B.
The process during which the maternal hormones relax the uterine tissue.
- C.
The process during which the uterus contracts and the cervix opens to allow the passage of the fetus into the vagina.
- D.
Contractions closer than five minutes apart, causing the waters to break, signaling birth is immanent.
Correct Answer
C. The process during which the uterus contracts and the cervix opens to allow the passage of the fetus into the vagina.Explanation
Labour is the correct answer because it accurately describes the process during childbirth where the uterus contracts and the cervix opens to allow the fetus to pass through the vagina. This process is a crucial part of childbirth and signifies the beginning of the delivery stage. The other options mentioned in the question, such as the voluntary pushing and effort of the mother, the relaxation of uterine tissue by maternal hormones, and contractions closer than five minutes apart, do not fully encompass the entire process of labour.Rate this question:
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- 9.
According to the Births, Deaths & Marriages Registration Act, 2003 Qld, a live birth is:
- A.
The expulsion or extraction of a child from its mother, who shows signs of respiration, heartbeat or other sign of life.
- B.
A child born vaginally, rather than by Cesarean Section.
- C.
A child who survives for longer than one minute, without medical assistance, outside the womb.
- D.
A baby born after the second trimester.
Correct Answer
A. The expulsion or extraction of a child from its mother, who shows signs of respiration, heartbeat or other sign of life.Explanation
According to the Births, Deaths & Marriages Registration Act, 2003 Qld, a live birth is defined as the expulsion or extraction of a child from its mother, who shows signs of respiration, heartbeat or other sign of life. This means that for a birth to be considered live, the child must exhibit some form of life, such as breathing, having a heartbeat, or other signs of life. The other options mentioned, such as being born vaginally, surviving for longer than one minute without medical assistance, or being born after the second trimester, are not the determining factors for a live birth as per the given act.Rate this question:
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- 10.
According to the Births, Deaths & Marriages Registration Act, 2003 Qld, a still birth is:
- A.
A child born before the second trimester and weighing less than 1 kilogram.
- B.
A baby who stops breathing after being born.
- C.
A neonate who does not show signs of movement upon exiting the birth canal.
- D.
The birth of a child who shows no sign of respiration, heartbeat or other sign of life after completely leaving the child's mother after 20 weeks gestation or weighing 400 grams or more.
Correct Answer
D. The birth of a child who shows no sign of respiration, heartbeat or other sign of life after completely leaving the child's mother after 20 weeks gestation or weighing 400 grams or more.Explanation
According to the Births, Deaths & Marriages Registration Act, 2003 Qld, a still birth is defined as the birth of a child who shows no sign of respiration, heartbeat or other sign of life after completely leaving the child's mother after 20 weeks gestation or weighing 400 grams or more. This means that if a baby is born after 20 weeks of gestation and weighs at least 400 grams, but does not show any signs of life, it is considered a still birth.Rate this question:
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- 11.
According to the Births, Deaths & Marriages Registration Act, 2003 Qld, a spontaneous abortion is:
- A.
A sudden miscarriage, by a women who has experienced physical or psychological trauma.
- B.
A medically induced termination of pregnancy.
- C.
Pregnancy loss before the 20th week of pregnancy.
- D.
Pregnancy loss before a woman knows she is pregnant.
Correct Answer
C. Pregnancy loss before the 20th week of pregnancy.Explanation
The correct answer is "Pregnancy loss before the 20th week of pregnancy." This is because according to the Births, Deaths & Marriages Registration Act, 2003 Qld, a spontaneous abortion refers to the loss of pregnancy before reaching the 20th week. It is important to note that this definition does not include any specific causes or conditions for the pregnancy loss, such as physical or psychological trauma.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Define what is meand by the term "therapeutic communication" and explain why it is essential in midwifery.
- A.
It is important for a midwife to have good rapport with her patient, after many conversations, they have a professional friendship and the physical touch of the midwife has therapeutic value.
- B.
It is an interactive process between a midwife and a woman to fulfill the woman's needs. It promotes understanding and is aimed at being therapeutic for the woman and developmental in relation to the therapeutic relationship.
- C.
The midwife must as open ended questions, be non judgmental, and empathetic. The woman will develop a sense of trust with the midwife if she feels that the midwife is empathetic to her emotions.
- D.
The midwife must strive to find a balance between the medical and legal requirements of the clinical setting and the wants and needs of the mother. As an advocate for the woman, she will listen, display empathy and take the family's concerns into consideration when delivering care.
Correct Answer
B. It is an interactive process between a midwife and a woman to fulfill the woman's needs. It promotes understanding and is aimed at being therapeutic for the woman and developmental in relation to the therapeutic relationship.Explanation
The answer is correct because it accurately defines therapeutic communication in midwifery as an interactive process between a midwife and a woman to fulfill the woman's needs. It highlights the importance of promoting understanding and being therapeutic for the woman, while also emphasizing the developmental aspect of the therapeutic relationship. The answer also mentions the key qualities and approaches that a midwife should possess, such as asking open-ended questions, being non-judgmental, empathetic, and finding a balance between medical/legal requirements and the wants/needs of the mother.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is a barrier to effective communication:
- A.
Sitting at eye level with the client.
- B.
Using clarifying statements.
- C.
Using terms of endearment.
- D.
Paraphrasing what the patient has said.
Correct Answer
C. Using terms of endearment.Explanation
Using terms of endearment can be a barrier to effective communication because it can create a sense of familiarity or intimacy that may not be appropriate in a professional setting. It can also be perceived as unprofessional or disrespectful, especially if the terms used are not welcomed or desired by the client. Effective communication requires maintaining appropriate boundaries and using respectful language that promotes understanding and trust between the parties involved.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit for the midwife of quality documentation in clinical records:
- A.
Prevention of cross contamination from patient to patient.
- B.
Evidence of care.
- C.
Reflective practice.
- D.
Communication of information with other HCPs.
Correct Answer
A. Prevention of cross contamination from patient to patient.Explanation
Quality documentation in clinical records provides several benefits for midwives, such as evidence of care, reflective practice, and communication of information with other healthcare professionals. However, it does not directly prevent cross contamination from patient to patient. This benefit is more related to proper infection control practices, including hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, and adherence to isolation protocols. While quality documentation may indirectly contribute to patient safety by ensuring accurate and up-to-date information, it is not specifically aimed at preventing cross contamination.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What information would you gather and document when taking the history from a multigravida woman at her first antenatal visit?
- A.
Previous pregnancy outcomes
- B.
Current lifestyle habits
- C.
Maternal medical history
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
During the first antenatal visit, it is essential to gather comprehensive information from a multigravida woman. This includes details about previous pregnancy outcomes to assess potential risk factors, current lifestyle habits that may impact the pregnancy, and the maternal medical history to ensure personalized care and effective management.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What information would you gather and document when obtaining the maternal health history from a multi-gravida woman during her first antenatal visit?
- A.
Pre-existing medical conditions
- B.
Previous complications during pregnancy
- C.
History of surgeries or medical procedures
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
When taking the maternal health history from a multi-gravida woman at her first antenatal visit, it is essential to gather comprehensive information. This includes pre-existing medical conditions, previous complications during pregnancy, history of surgeries or medical procedures, and medications currently taken. Collecting all this information ensures a holistic understanding of the woman's health, facilitating appropriate antenatal care and management.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What information would you gather and document when obtaining the obstetric history from a woman during her first antenatal visit, considering her past pregnancies?
- A.
Number of previous pregnancies (gravida)
- B.
Number of previous live births (para)
- C.
Number of previous miscarriages
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
When taking the obstetric history from a multi-gravida woman at her first antenatal visit, it is crucial to gather comprehensive information. This includes the number of previous pregnancies (gravida), the number of previous live births (para), the number of previous miscarriages, and the number of living children. Collecting all this information provides a thorough understanding of the woman's obstetric history and aids in planning appropriate care during the current pregnancy.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Jan 22, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jun 07, 2011Quiz Created by
Ursula Wulff
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