Toughest Trivia Questions Quiz On Fitness!

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Toughest Trivia Questions Quiz On Fitness! - Quiz

This is the toughest trivia questions quiz on fitness you will ever come across. It is designed for qualified practitioner as a way of assessing their skills and their ability to deliver the best when it comes to their clients. Do you think you have what it takes to tackle it? How about you give it a try and see if you need a refresher course.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Caused by eccentric muscle contraction.s

    • A.

      HRT

    • B.

      Estrogen

    • C.

      Osteopenia

    • D.

      Hemoglobin

    • E.

      Doms

    Correct Answer
    E. Doms
    Explanation
    DOMS stands for Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness. It is a condition characterized by muscle pain and stiffness that occurs 24 to 72 hours after intense or unaccustomed exercise. DOMS is caused by eccentric muscle contractions, which are when the muscle lengthens while under tension. This type of contraction puts more stress on the muscle fibers, leading to microscopic damage and inflammation. The body's response to this damage is what causes the pain and soreness associated with DOMS.

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  • 2. 

    Low bone mass.

    • A.

      Estrogen

    • B.

      Osteopenia

    • C.

      HRT

    • D.

      Hemoglobin

    • E.

      Doms

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteopenia
    Explanation
    Osteopenia refers to a condition where bone mineral density is lower than normal, but not low enough to be classified as osteoporosis. It is often considered a precursor to osteoporosis. This condition can increase the risk of fractures and is commonly found in postmenopausal women due to decreased estrogen levels. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) may be used to prevent or treat osteopenia by supplementing estrogen levels. The other terms mentioned, such as hemoglobin and DOMS (Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness), are unrelated to osteopenia.

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  • 3. 

    Essential for bone formation.

    • A.

      Hemoglobin

    • B.

      HRT

    • C.

      Osteopenia

    • D.

      Estrogen

    • E.

      Doms

    Correct Answer
    D. Estrogen
    Explanation
    Estrogen is essential for bone formation. It plays a crucial role in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis. Estrogen helps in the absorption of calcium and other minerals necessary for bone health. It also regulates the activity of osteoblasts, the cells responsible for building new bone. Estrogen deficiency, such as during menopause, can lead to a decrease in bone density and an increased risk of fractures. Therefore, estrogen is necessary for maintaining strong and healthy bones.

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  • 4. 

    Common treatment modality to prevent bone loss after menopause.

    • A.

      Estrogen

    • B.

      Hemoglobin

    • C.

      Doms

    • D.

      HRT

    • E.

      Osteopenia

    Correct Answer
    D. HRT
    Explanation
    HRT stands for Hormone Replacement Therapy, which is a common treatment modality to prevent bone loss after menopause. During menopause, the levels of estrogen in a woman's body decrease, leading to a higher risk of osteoporosis and bone loss. HRT involves taking medications that contain estrogen and sometimes progestin to replace the hormones that the body is no longer producing. By replenishing these hormones, HRT helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures and osteopenia, which is the precursor to osteoporosis.

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  • 5. 

    Protein-iron compound in red blood cells that transports oxygen in the blood.

    • A.

      HRT

    • B.

      Estrogen

    • C.

      Hemoglobin

    • D.

      Osteopenia

    • E.

      Doms

    Correct Answer
    C. Hemoglobin
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin is the correct answer because it is a protein-iron compound found in red blood cells that is responsible for transporting oxygen in the blood. It binds to oxygen in the lungs and carries it to various tissues and organs throughout the body. Hemoglobin also helps in the removal of carbon dioxide, a waste product, from the body.

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  • 6. 

    The Harvard Alumni study indicated that expending___ calories per week in physical activity was the best for the prevention of cardiovascular disease.

    • A.

      500

    • B.

      1000

    • C.

      1500

    • D.

      2000

    • E.

      2500

    Correct Answer
    D. 2000
    Explanation
    The Harvard Alumni study found that expending 2000 calories per week in physical activity was the most effective in preventing cardiovascular disease. This suggests that this level of physical activity provides the right amount of exercise to maintain cardiovascular health and reduce the risk of developing heart-related problems.

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  • 7. 

    How quickly will a person lose 4 weeks cardiovascular benefits if they stop training?

    • A.

      Within a few days

    • B.

      Within a couple of weeks

    • C.

      Within a couple of months

    • D.

      Within six months

    • E.

      Will not lose it all

    Correct Answer
    B. Within a couple of weeks
    Explanation
    If a person stops training, they will start losing their cardiovascular benefits within a couple of weeks. This suggests that the body's adaptation to exercise begins to decline after a relatively short period of inactivity. While they may not lose all of the benefits gained from 4 weeks of training, the decline starts to occur within a couple of weeks.

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  • 8. 

    You should not exercise if you have a:

    • A.

      Hacking cough.

    • B.

      Low body temperature.

    • C.

      Runny nose.

    • D.

      Scratchy throat.

    • E.

      Sneezing fit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hacking cough.
    Explanation
    Exercising with a hacking cough can worsen the symptoms and lead to further irritation in the throat and lungs. It can also strain the respiratory system, making it difficult to breathe properly during physical activity. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid exercising if you have a hacking cough in order to allow the body to rest and recover.

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  • 9. 

    It is usually recommended that running shoes be used until they:

    • A.

      Accumulate 600 miles.

    • B.

      Are one year old.

    • C.

      Begin to pronate.

    • D.

      Cause an injury.

    • E.

      Wear out.

    Correct Answer
    E. Wear out.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "wear out." This is because running shoes, like any other shoes, have a limited lifespan and will eventually deteriorate with use. As the shoes wear out, the cushioning, support, and traction they provide will diminish, which can lead to discomfort and an increased risk of injury. Therefore, it is recommended to replace running shoes once they have worn out to ensure optimal performance and reduce the risk of foot-related problems.

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  • 10. 

    How long should a person wait to exercise after eating a meal?

    • A.

      10-15 minutes

    • B.

      30-45 minutes

    • C.

      60-90 minutes

    • D.

      2 hours

    • E.

      Makes no difference

    Correct Answer
    D. 2 hours
    Explanation
    Exercising immediately after a meal can lead to discomfort and digestive issues as the body needs time to digest the food. Waiting for at least 2 hours allows the stomach to empty and digestion to begin. This time frame ensures that the body has enough energy from the meal to sustain the workout while minimizing the risk of cramps or other complications.

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  • 11. 

    A bad time to exercise is:

    • A.

      During a hot and humid day.

    • B.

      During a midday work break.

    • C.

      In the evening hours.

    • D.

      Just before a heavy meal.

    • E.

      Right after waking up.

    Correct Answer
    A. During a hot and humid day.
    Explanation
    Exercising during a hot and humid day can be dangerous as it can lead to dehydration, heat exhaustion, and even heatstroke. When the weather is hot and humid, the body has a harder time cooling down, and sweating may not be enough to regulate body temperature. This can put excessive strain on the cardiovascular system and increase the risk of heat-related illnesses. It is advisable to exercise during cooler times of the day or in air-conditioned environments to ensure safety and prevent any potential health risks.

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  • 12. 

    Heat exhaustion is:

    • A.

      Characterized by clammy skin.

    • B.

      Characterized by serious disorientation.

    • C.

      The first symptom of heat stress.

    • D.

      The last symptom of heat stress.

    • E.

      The term for low exercise performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Characterized by clammy skin.
    Explanation
    Heat exhaustion is a condition that occurs when the body overheats due to prolonged exposure to high temperatures. It is characterized by symptoms such as heavy sweating, rapid pulse, dizziness, nausea, and clammy skin. Clammy skin refers to skin that feels cool and moist, often accompanied by a pale or flushed appearance. This is a common symptom of heat exhaustion and is caused by the body's attempt to cool down by producing sweat.

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  • 13. 

    Hear stroke:

    • A.

      Is characterized by muscle twitching.

    • B.

      Results in constipation.

    • C.

      Results in profuse sweating.

    • D.

      Stimulates only a weak pulse.

    • E.

      Will result in death without help.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stimulates only a weak pulse.
    Explanation
    Heat stroke is a condition that occurs when the body overheats, usually as a result of prolonged exposure to high temperatures. It can lead to multiple symptoms, including muscle twitching, constipation, profuse sweating, and a weak pulse. However, out of these options, the correct answer is that heat stroke stimulates only a weak pulse. This means that the person's heart rate becomes weak and may not be able to pump blood effectively. If left untreated, heat stroke can be life-threatening and may result in death without proper medical help.

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  • 14. 

    In the heat, 6-8 ounces of fluids should be consumed every ___ minutes.

    • A.

      15-20

    • B.

      30

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      45-60

    • E.

      90

    Correct Answer
    A. 15-20
    Explanation
    In the heat, it is important to stay hydrated by consuming fluids regularly. The correct answer of 15-20 minutes suggests that every 15-20 minutes, 6-8 ounces of fluids should be consumed. This frequency allows for a consistent intake of fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain proper hydration levels in hot conditions.

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  • 15. 

    Exercise in the cold may present the problem of:

    • A.

      Being underdressed.

    • B.

      Developing pneumonia.

    • C.

      Freezing the lungs.

    • D.

      Hyperthermia.

    • E.

      Hypothermia.

    Correct Answer
    E. Hypothermia.
    Explanation
    Exercise in the cold can cause the body to lose heat faster than it can produce it, leading to a drop in body temperature. This condition is known as hypothermia. Symptoms of hypothermia include shivering, confusion, fatigue, and loss of coordination. If left untreated, it can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is important to dress appropriately and take precautions when exercising in cold weather to prevent the risk of hypothermia.

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  • 16. 

    If swelling or inflammation is not increasing, heat therapy is usually begun after ___ hours.

    • A.

      12-24

    • B.

      24-36

    • C.

      36-48

    • D.

      48-60

    • E.

      60-72

    Correct Answer
    C. 36-48
    Explanation
    Heat therapy is typically initiated after 36-48 hours if swelling or inflammation is not increasing. This is because heat can help improve blood flow to the area, which can aid in reducing inflammation and promoting healing. Starting heat therapy too early may exacerbate swelling or inflammation, so waiting until the 36-48 hour mark allows for the initial acute phase of injury to subside before applying heat.

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  • 17. 

    Delayed-onset muscle soreness is thought to be the result of:

    • A.

      Connective tissue overstretching.

    • B.

      Fluid relention.

    • C.

      Muscle fatigue.

    • D.

      Muscle spasms.

    • E.

      Muscle tissue tears.

    Correct Answer
    E. Muscle tissue tears.
    Explanation
    Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) refers to the pain and stiffness experienced in muscles after intense or unfamiliar exercise. It typically occurs 24 to 48 hours after exercise and is believed to be caused by microscopic tears in the muscle fibers. These tears result from the eccentric (lengthening) contractions that occur during certain types of exercise. The body's inflammatory response to these tears leads to the sensation of soreness. Connective tissue overstretching, fluid retention, muscle fatigue, and muscle spasms are not considered primary causes of DOMS.

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  • 18. 

    Muscle cramps can be caused by:

    • A.

      Increasing muscle group coordination.

    • B.

      Low electrolyte levels.

    • C.

      Magnesium deficiency

    • D.

      To little water

    • E.

      Unusually high blood flow.

    Correct Answer
    B. Low electrolyte levels.
    Explanation
    Muscle cramps can be caused by low electrolyte levels. Electrolytes, such as potassium, sodium, calcium, and magnesium, play a crucial role in muscle function and contraction. When the levels of these electrolytes are low, it can disrupt the balance and coordination of muscle groups, leading to muscle cramps. Adequate hydration is also important for maintaining electrolyte balance, but the answer specifically mentions low electrolyte levels rather than dehydration.

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  • 19. 

    A reason why many female body builders appear so muscular is that they:

    • A.

      Are born with greater ability to get big muscles.

    • B.

      Consume anabolic steroids.

    • C.

      Use special techniques to "pump" up their muscles for a contest.

    • D.

      Train very hard.

    • E.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    E. All of these
    Explanation
    The reason why many female body builders appear so muscular is likely due to a combination of factors. Firstly, some individuals may be born with a greater ability to develop larger muscles. Additionally, the use of anabolic steroids can enhance muscle growth and contribute to a more muscular appearance. Body builders also often employ special techniques, such as "pumping" up their muscles before a contest, to temporarily increase muscle size and definition. Lastly, intense training is a crucial factor in building and maintaining muscle mass. Therefore, all of these factors combined contribute to the muscular appearance of female body builders.

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  • 20. 

    The recommendations for apparently healthy pregnant women state that they should not:

    • A.

      Decrease exercise intensity, compared to pre-pregnant routines.

    • B.

      Do weight-bearing exercises.

    • C.

      Exercise in cooler temperatures, rather than in the heat.

    • D.

      Exercise more than 3 times each week.

    • E.

      Wear loose clothing in the heat.

    Correct Answer
    B. Do weight-bearing exercises.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "do weight-bearing exercises." The recommendations for apparently healthy pregnant women state that they should not engage in weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises involve activities that require the body to support its own weight, such as running or jumping. These types of exercises can put additional stress on the joints and may increase the risk of injury during pregnancy. It is important for pregnant women to choose low-impact exercises that are safe and do not pose a risk to their health or the health of the baby.

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  • 21. 

    Osteoporosis is:

    • A.

      Begins in a females 20's

    • B.

      Most prevalent in women

    • C.

      Higher in people who were calcium deficient as a young age

    • D.

      Linked to heavy drinking and smoking

    • E.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    E. All of these
    Explanation
    Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens the bones and makes them more prone to fractures. It is most prevalent in women and usually begins in a female's 20s. People who were calcium deficient at a young age are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis. Additionally, heavy drinking and smoking have been linked to an increased risk of osteoporosis. Therefore, all of these factors contribute to the development of osteoporosis.

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  • 22. 

    The older adult can use exercise to:

    • A.

      Decrease hypertension faster than for a younger adult.

    • B.

      Improve as fast as younger adults.

    • C.

      Improve as much as younger adults.

    • D.

      Increase cardiorespiratory endurance but not muscular strength.

    • E.

      Only maintain fitness.

    Correct Answer
    C. Improve as much as younger adults.
    Explanation
    As people age, their physical abilities may decline, but regular exercise can help older adults improve their fitness levels. While it may take longer for older adults to see improvements compared to younger adults, they can still achieve similar levels of improvement with consistent exercise. Therefore, the correct answer is that older adults can improve as much as younger adults through exercise.

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  • 23. 

    Regular strength training among the elderly has been show to:

    • A.

      Decrease functional independence.

    • B.

      Decrease morale.

    • C.

      Increase depression.

    • D.

      Result in 200% strength improvement.

    • E.

      Stimulate hypertrophy similar to younger adults.

    Correct Answer
    D. Result in 200% strength improvement.
    Explanation
    Regular strength training among the elderly has been shown to result in a 200% strength improvement. This means that engaging in strength training exercises on a regular basis can significantly increase the strength of older individuals. This is important because maintaining strength is crucial for maintaining functional independence and overall quality of life. Additionally, strength training can also have positive effects on mental well-being by boosting morale and reducing the risk of depression. Furthermore, studies have shown that older adults can experience hypertrophy, or muscle growth, similar to younger adults when engaging in regular strength training.

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  • 24. 

    One need not be suspicious of products that are associated with:

    • A.

      Celebrity testimonials.

    • B.

      Informercial programs.

    • C.

      Newspaper articles.

    • D.

      Post office box addresses.

    • E.

      Scientific journals.

    Correct Answer
    E. Scientific journals.
    Explanation
    Scientific journals are typically associated with credible and evidence-based research. They undergo a rigorous peer-review process to ensure the validity and accuracy of the information published. Therefore, there is no need to be suspicious of products that are associated with scientific journals, as they are likely to be backed by scientific evidence and reliable sources.

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  • 25. 

    The best concentration of glucose in a sport drink is:

    • A.

      2 to 4 percent.

    • B.

      4 to 6 percent.

    • C.

      6 to 8 percent.

    • D.

      8 to 10 percent.

    • E.

      10 to 12 percent.

    Correct Answer
    C. 6 to 8 percent.
    Explanation
    The best concentration of glucose in a sport drink is 6 to 8 percent. This concentration provides enough glucose to provide energy for the body during physical activity without causing digestive discomfort. Higher concentrations may lead to slower absorption and potential gastrointestinal issues, while lower concentrations may not provide enough fuel for sustained exercise. Therefore, a concentration of 6 to 8 percent is considered optimal for sports drinks.

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  • 26. 

    A common symptom of stress.

    • A.

      Gas

    • B.

      Perfectionism

    • C.

      Homeostasis

    • D.

      Depression

    • E.

      Resistance

    Correct Answer
    D. Depression
    Explanation
    Depression is a common symptom of stress. When a person is under prolonged stress, it can lead to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in activities they once enjoyed. These symptoms are characteristic of depression. Stress can trigger chemical imbalances in the brain, affecting mood and overall mental well-being. Therefore, it is not uncommon for individuals experiencing chronic stress to develop symptoms of depression.

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  • 27. 

    A common time killer.

    • A.

      Perfectionism

    • B.

      Homeostasis

    • C.

      Gas

    • D.

      Depression

    • E.

      Resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Perfectionism
    Explanation
    Perfectionism is a common time killer because individuals who strive for perfection often spend excessive amounts of time on tasks, constantly seeking to achieve flawless results. This can lead to delays in completing projects or tasks, as well as increased stress and anxiety. Perfectionists may also struggle with prioritizing tasks and making decisions, further contributing to time wasting. Overall, perfectionism can be a hindrance to productivity and efficient time management.

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  • 28. 

    A theoretical model of how the body responds to stress.

    • A.

      Depression

    • B.

      Gas

    • C.

      Perfectionism

    • D.

      Homeostasis

    • E.

      Resistance

    Correct Answer
    B. Gas
    Explanation
    Gas is the correct answer because it is a theoretical model of how the body responds to stress. The term "gas" stands for General Adaptation Syndrome, which was proposed by Hans Selye. According to this model, the body goes through three stages in response to stress: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. The "gas" model suggests that the body mobilizes its resources to cope with stress in the resistance stage. This answer aligns with the given statement about a theoretical model of the body's response to stress.

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  • 29. 

    Stage of effective coping with the challenge of a stressor.

    • A.

      Perfectionism

    • B.

      Depression

    • C.

      Resistance

    • D.

      Homeostasis

    • E.

      Gas

    Correct Answer
    C. Resistance
    Explanation
    Resistance is the stage of effective coping with the challenge of a stressor. During this stage, individuals actively work to adapt and overcome the stressor. They employ various strategies such as problem-solving, seeking support, and using healthy coping mechanisms to manage the stress. This stage is characterized by resilience and a sense of control over the situation. It is an important phase in the stress response, as it allows individuals to maintain their well-being and prevent the stressor from causing further harm.

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  • 30. 

    The body attempts to maintain this equilibrium by reacting to external forces.

    • A.

      Perfectionism

    • B.

      Depression

    • C.

      Gas

    • D.

      Resistance

    • E.

      Homeostasis

    Correct Answer
    E. Homeostasis
    Explanation
    Homeostasis refers to the body's ability to maintain a stable internal environment despite changes in the external environment. It involves various physiological processes that help regulate body temperature, blood pressure, pH levels, and other vital functions. The statement suggests that the body reacts to external forces in order to maintain this equilibrium, which aligns with the concept of homeostasis. Perfectionism, depression, gas, and resistance do not directly relate to the body's ability to maintain equilibrium in response to external forces.

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  • 31. 

    Molecules that can predict cardiovascular events.

    • A.

      Metabolic syndrome

    • B.

      High-density lipoprotein (HDL)

    • C.

      Melanoma

    • D.

      C-reactive proteins

    • E.

      Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

    Correct Answer
    D. C-reactive proteins
    Explanation
    C-reactive proteins are molecules that can predict cardiovascular events. These proteins are produced by the liver in response to inflammation in the body. Elevated levels of C-reactive proteins have been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular diseases such as heart attack and stroke. Therefore, measuring the levels of C-reactive proteins in the blood can help in identifying individuals who are at a higher risk of developing cardiovascular events.

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  • 32. 

    The "good" Cholesterol

    • A.

      C-reactive proteins

    • B.

      High-density lipoprotein (HDL)

    • C.

      Melanoma

    • D.

      Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

    • E.

      Metabolic syndrome

    Correct Answer
    B. High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
    Explanation
    High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is often referred to as the "good" cholesterol because it helps remove low-density lipoprotein (LDL), or "bad" cholesterol, from the bloodstream. HDL carries cholesterol back to the liver, where it can be broken down and eliminated from the body. Having high levels of HDL is associated with a reduced risk of heart disease and stroke. Conversely, low levels of HDL are considered a risk factor for cardiovascular problems. Therefore, HDL is considered beneficial for overall cardiovascular health.

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  • 33. 

    Cellular resistance to insulin.

    • A.

      Metabolic syndrome

    • B.

      Melanoma

    • C.

      Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

    • D.

      High-density lipoprotein (HDL)

    • E.

      C-reactive proteins

    Correct Answer
    A. Metabolic syndrome
    Explanation
    Metabolic syndrome refers to a cluster of conditions that increase the risk of heart disease, stroke, and diabetes. It is characterized by a combination of factors such as high blood pressure, high blood sugar levels, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol or triglyceride levels. Insulin resistance, which is a hallmark of metabolic syndrome, occurs when cells in the body do not respond properly to insulin, leading to high blood sugar levels. Therefore, cellular resistance to insulin is a key component of metabolic syndrome.

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  • 34. 

    The "bad" cholesterol

    • A.

      C-reactive proteins

    • B.

      High-density lipoprotein (HDL)

    • C.

      Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

    • D.

      Melanoma

    • E.

      Metabolic syndrome

    Correct Answer
    C. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
    Explanation
    LDL, also known as "bad" cholesterol, is the correct answer because it is a type of lipoprotein that carries cholesterol from the liver to the rest of the body. High levels of LDL can lead to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke. LDL is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol because it contributes to the development of these health issues.

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  • 35. 

    The most deadly types of skin cancer.

    • A.

      C-reactive proteins

    • B.

      Metabolic syndrome

    • C.

      Melanoma

    • D.

      Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

    • E.

      High-density lipoprotein (HDL)

    Correct Answer
    C. Melanoma
    Explanation
    Melanoma is the most deadly type of skin cancer. It arises from the melanocytes, which are the pigment-producing cells in the skin. Melanoma is known for its ability to spread to other parts of the body, making it more difficult to treat. It is important to detect melanoma early through regular skin checks and to protect the skin from harmful UV radiation to reduce the risk of developing this deadly form of cancer.

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  • 36. 

    Positive stress is also referred to as:

    • A.

      Physiolostress

    • B.

      Antiobodies

    • C.

      Eustress

    • D.

      Functional stress

    • E.

      Distress

    Correct Answer
    C. Eustress
    Explanation
    Eustress refers to positive stress, which can be beneficial and motivating. It is a type of stress that helps individuals perform at their best and achieve their goals. Unlike distress, which is negative stress that can be harmful and overwhelming, eustress promotes growth and resilience. Therefore, eustress is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 37. 

    The stress response does not occur unless the:

    • A.

      Hypothalamus releases catecholamines into the blood.

    • B.

      Individual perceives a stressor.

    • C.

      Internal body changes can be used for flight or flight.

    • D.

      Pituitary activates the sympathetic nervous system.

    • E.

      Stressor is considered a source of distress.

    Correct Answer
    B. Individual perceives a stressor.
    Explanation
    The stress response is a physiological reaction that occurs in the body when it perceives a stressor. This perception triggers the release of stress hormones, such as catecholamines, from the hypothalamus into the blood. These hormones then activate the sympathetic nervous system through the pituitary gland. The internal body changes, such as increased heart rate and blood pressure, are part of the body's preparation for the fight or flight response. Therefore, the stress response does not occur unless the individual perceives a stressor.

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  • 38. 

    When stress levels reach mental, emotional, and physiological limits:

    • A.

      Diseases may develop.

    • B.

      Distress decreases.

    • C.

      Eutress increases.

    • D.

      Health is stimulated to improve.

    • E.

      Performance is enhanced.

    Correct Answer
    A. Diseases may develop.
    Explanation
    When stress levels reach mental, emotional, and physiological limits, it can have negative effects on our health. Excessive stress can weaken the immune system, increase blood pressure, and disrupt normal bodily functions, making us more susceptible to various diseases. Therefore, when stress reaches its limits, it is likely that diseases may develop as a result of the detrimental impact of stress on our overall well-being.

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  • 39. 

    According to the GAS, exhaustion from stress occurs when:

    • A.

      Body resources are insufficient.

    • B.

      Coping is effective.

    • C.

      Homeostasis is regained.

    • D.

      Resistance is adequate.

    • E.

      There is no alarm reaction.

    Correct Answer
    A. Body resources are insufficient.
    Explanation
    Exhaustion from stress occurs when body resources are insufficient. This means that when a person is exposed to prolonged or chronic stress, their body's resources, such as energy and resilience, become depleted. This can lead to physical and emotional exhaustion, as well as a decrease in overall functioning. When the body's resources are insufficient, the individual may experience burnout, decreased immune function, and an increased risk for various health problems. Therefore, this answer accurately reflects the concept of exhaustion in the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) model.

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  • 40. 

    Being laid-back and easy-going are descriptors of Type ___ individuals.

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    • E.

      X

    Correct Answer
    B. B
    Explanation
    Being laid-back and easy-going are descriptors of Type B individuals. Type B personality traits are characterized by being relaxed, patient, and less competitive compared to Type A individuals. They tend to have a more laid-back approach to life and are less prone to stress and aggression. Type B individuals are often seen as easy-going and are more likely to take things in stride.

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  • 41. 

    Being overly aggressive and sometimes hostile are descriptors of Type ___ individuals.

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    • E.

      X

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Being overly aggressive and sometimes hostile are descriptors of Type A individuals. Type A personality is characterized by competitiveness, impatience, and a sense of urgency. They are often driven, ambitious, and have a strong desire to achieve their goals. This personality type is known for being highly focused, but it can also lead to aggression and hostility when faced with obstacles or perceived threats. Type A individuals tend to be more prone to stress and have a higher risk of developing certain health issues due to their intense and demanding nature.

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  • 42. 

    Greater risk for disease has been found for Type ___ individuals.

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    • E.

      X

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Individuals with Type A blood have been found to have a greater risk for certain diseases compared to individuals with other blood types. This is because Type A blood contains specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells that can trigger immune responses and inflammation in the body. These immune responses and inflammation may increase the risk of developing certain diseases, such as cardiovascular disease and certain types of cancer.

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  • 43. 

    Suggestions to release anger include:

    • A.

      Be respectfully fearful of anger.

    • B.

      Ignore that you feel angry.

    • C.

      See the anger source as a small irritation.

    • D.

      Try to suppress anger.

    • E.

      Vent the anger, then count to 10.

    Correct Answer
    C. See the anger source as a small irritation.
    Explanation
    Seeing the anger source as a small irritation suggests that one should try to minimize the significance of the source of anger. By perceiving it as a minor annoyance, one can avoid letting anger escalate and maintain a calmer state of mind. This approach encourages a more rational and controlled response, helping to release anger in a healthier and less destructive manner.

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  • 44. 

    If a stressor cannot be removed, the next best coping strategy to reduce distress is to ___ the stressor.

    • A.

      Act like

    • B.

      Change perception of

    • C.

      Directly oppose

    • D.

      Ignore

    • E.

      Outlast

    Correct Answer
    B. Change perception of
    Explanation
    When a stressor cannot be removed, changing one's perception of the stressor can be an effective coping strategy. By altering the way one views and interprets the stressor, they can potentially reduce the distress associated with it. This approach involves reframing the situation and finding a more positive or constructive perspective. It allows individuals to focus on potential benefits or opportunities that may arise from the stressor, rather than solely dwelling on the negative aspects. By changing their perception, individuals can regain a sense of control and resilience in the face of the stressor.

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  • 45. 

    Healthy and successful people most often attribute success to:

    • A.

      Hard work.

    • B.

      Networking.

    • C.

      Personality type.

    • D.

      Smart work.

    • E.

      Social position.

    Correct Answer
    D. Smart work.
    Explanation
    Healthy and successful people most often attribute success to smart work. This is because smart work involves working efficiently and effectively, utilizing resources and strategies to achieve goals in a shorter amount of time. It emphasizes prioritizing tasks, making informed decisions, and leveraging one's skills and knowledge. While hard work is important, smart work focuses on working smarter rather than harder, which can lead to greater productivity and success. Networking, personality type, and social position may play a role in certain circumstances, but smart work is generally seen as a key factor in achieving success.

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  • 46. 

    Time management skills do not include:

    • A.

      Delegating work to others.

    • B.

      Eliminating the chance of "overtimes."

    • C.

      Getting the job done right yourself.

    • D.

      Rewarding yourself for good work.

    • E.

      Saying "no."

    Correct Answer
    B. Eliminating the chance of "overtimes."
    Explanation
    Time management skills involve various strategies and techniques to effectively utilize and prioritize one's time. Delegating work to others is a time management skill as it helps distribute tasks and responsibilities efficiently. Getting the job done right yourself is also a time management skill as it focuses on completing tasks accurately and efficiently. Rewarding yourself for good work is a way to motivate and maintain productivity. Saying "no" is a time management skill as it involves setting boundaries and prioritizing tasks. However, eliminating the chance of "overtimes" is not a time management skill as it refers to avoiding working beyond regular working hours, which is not directly related to managing time effectively.

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  • 47. 

    As a stress management technique, exercise increases:

    • A.

      Aggression.

    • B.

      Anxiety.

    • C.

      Self-discipline.

    • D.

      Insomnia.

    • E.

      Muscle tension.

    Correct Answer
    C. Self-discipline.
    Explanation
    Exercise has been shown to have numerous benefits for mental health, including stress management. Regular physical activity can help increase self-discipline by promoting a sense of structure and routine in one's life. Engaging in exercise requires commitment, motivation, and consistency, all of which contribute to developing self-discipline. Additionally, exercise releases endorphins, which are natural mood boosters, helping to reduce stress and improve overall well-being. Therefore, exercise can be an effective stress management technique that enhances self-discipline.

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  • 48. 

    Progressive muscle relaxation should be done:

    • A.

      For less than 20 minutes each session.

    • B.

      In a cool, well-ventilated room.

    • C.

      On one section of the body for the session.

    • D.

      Once each day.

    • E.

      Paying attention to contraction intensity.

    Correct Answer
    E. Paying attention to contraction intensity.
    Explanation
    Progressive muscle relaxation involves tensing and then relaxing different muscle groups in the body to reduce tension and promote relaxation. Paying attention to contraction intensity means being mindful of how tightly the muscles are being tensed during the exercise. This is important because the goal is to gradually increase the tension and then release it, allowing for a deeper state of relaxation. By focusing on the intensity of the contractions, individuals can ensure that they are effectively engaging their muscles and maximizing the benefits of the technique.

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  • 49. 

    Breathing exercises to reduce stress do not include:

    • A.

      Breathing through the nose.

    • B.

      Complete natural breathing.

    • C.

      Deep breathing.

    • D.

      Rapid breathing.

    • E.

      Sighing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Rapid breathing.
    Explanation
    Breathing exercises are often used as a relaxation technique to reduce stress. Breathing through the nose, complete natural breathing, deep breathing, and sighing are all commonly practiced techniques that help to calm the mind and body. However, rapid breathing is not a recommended method for stress reduction as it can actually increase feelings of anxiety and tension. Rapid breathing is often associated with hyperventilation and can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, and shortness of breath. Therefore, it is not included in breathing exercises aimed at reducing stress.

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  • 50. 

    The purpose of meditation is not to:

    • A.

      Block out stressors.

    • B.

      Bring about physical benefits.

    • C.

      Clear the mind.

    • D.

      Concentrate on the time left in the session.

    • E.

      Induce hypometabolism

    Correct Answer
    D. Concentrate on the time left in the session.
    Explanation
    Meditation is a practice that aims to achieve a state of calm and mindfulness. It involves focusing on the present moment and clearing the mind of distractions. The purpose of meditation is not to concentrate on the time left in the session, but rather to let go of thoughts and stressors, bring about physical and mental benefits, and achieve a state of relaxation and clarity. Concentrating on the time left in the session would only serve as a distraction and hinder the meditative experience.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 04, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Mightclark
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