FSOT Sample Job Knowledge Test

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FSOT Sample Job Knowledge Test - Quiz


FSOT - Sample Job Knowledge Test Beware of the typos! They're there to keep you on your toes. OK, not really. Just keep an eye out and let me know.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Treaties must be approved by

    • A.

      A majority of the House and Senate

    • B.

      Two-thirds of the Senators voting on the treaty

    • C.

      A majority of the House of Representatives

    • D.

      Three-fourths of the Senate

    Correct Answer
    B. Two-thirds of the Senators voting on the treaty
    Explanation
    Article II, Section 2 of the U.S. Constitution specifies that two-thirds of the Senators present must agree to a treaty. This power, along with the power of the Senate to approve the appointment of ambassadors, military officers, and other appointments, gives the Senate the reputation of being the house of Congress that's most concerned with foreign affairs. It should be pointed out, however, that the House is also vital to U.S. foreign affairs, especially its role in the appropriations process.

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  • 2. 

    A public opinion survey is done and it is reported that the results are not statistically significant.  What does this mean?

    • A.

      It means that there are insufficient responses to consider the survey valid.

    • B.

      It means that the results could be due to chance.

    • C.

      It means that different surveys have different results.

    • D.

      It means that the findings of the survey are not substantively important.

    Correct Answer
    B. It means that the results could be due to chance.
    Explanation
    In public opinion research, if a finding is not statistically significant, any difference found in the sample could simply be the result of sampling error and may not be a real difference found in the population. In reality, if the full population were surveyed, you may not find that difference. The larger the sample size, the less even a small difference on a question is likely to be statistically significant. If the entire population were surveyed, any difference is statistically significant because you are not trying to infer from a sample to a population. Statistical significance is not related to substantive significance. A difference may be statistically significant and of no importance.

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  • 3. 

    Concerning the application of rights in the U.S. Constitution's Bill of Rights to the states, which of the following is correct?

    • A.

      All rights in the Bill of Rights have applied to the states since the beginning.

    • B.

      All rights in the Bill of Rights have applied to the states since the passage of the 14th Amendment.

    • C.

      None of the rights in the Bill of Rights applies to the states. The states have their own bill of rights.

    • D.

      Most of the rights in the Bill of Rights have been applied to the states based upon Supreme Court decisions. Some still do not apply.

    Correct Answer
    D. Most of the rights in the Bill of Rights have been applied to the states based upon Supreme Court decisions. Some still do not apply.
    Explanation
    The Bill of Rights had been directed at the federal government. However, since the passage of the 14th Amendment, the Supreme Court has applied many provisions in the Bill of Rights to the states, beginning with cases in 1897. Especially important was laying out the doctrine of selective incorporation in Gitlow v. New York (1925). However, all rights are not applied. One example is the right to be indicted by a grand jury in the 5th Amendment. Many states do not use grand juries to indict people accused of criminal offenses.

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  • 4. 

    Today's Native Americans/American Indians descended from Asiatic ancestors who arrived in North America

    • A.

      On wooden ships

    • B.

      Primarily on horseback

    • C.

      Across a land bridge now submerged beneath the Bering Sea

    • D.

      Under the leadership of a former warlord who would later become known as Chief Powhatan, the founder of the Powhatan Confederacy.

    Correct Answer
    C. Across a land bridge now submerged beneath the Bering Sea
    Explanation
    Historical and archeological evidence indicate that during the last great Ice Age (50,000-1,500 B.C.) migration by foot from Siberia over the Bering Strait land bridge into North America was possible. There is no evidence that the ancestors of today's Native Americans were either sailors or horsemen, thus no evidence that they arrived on horseback or by wooden ships or boats of any sort.

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  • 5. 

    In 1620, the ______________ established self-government for the Plymouth Colonists.

    • A.

      The Mayflower Compact

    • B.

      The Fundamental Order of Connecticut

    • C.

      The Articles of Confederation

    • D.

      The Declaration of Rights

    Correct Answer
    A. The Mayflower Compact
    Explanation
    The Mayflower Compact was the document that established self-government for the Plymouth colonists in 1620. The Fundamental Order of Connecticut was the first American Constitution, written in 1639 by representatives from the Connecticut towns of Hartford, Wethersfield, and Windsor. The Declaration of Rights, written by George Mason, were adopted by the Virginia colonists.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following statements is not true?

    • A.

      At the time of the American Revolution, most white residents of the 13 colonies were either of norther or western European descent.

    • B.

      The Naturalization Act of 1790 made citizenship -- and all of its accompanying rights -- available to free white men of European descent and only to free white men of European descent.

    • C.

      The right to be educated in the language spoken in their homes was first granted during the 1820s to Pennsylvania's German speaking population.

    • D.

      Less than half of all southern whites belonged to slave-owning families

    Correct Answer
    C. The right to be educated in the language spoken in their homes was first granted during the 1820s to Pennsylvania's German speaking population.
    Explanation
    Although during the 1820s a group of Pennsylvanians did indeed petition Congress to make German the official language of their state, the petition was denied. The Pennsylvania Germans were never granted the right to be educated in the language spoken in their homes. The Naturalization Act of 1790 made American citizenship available to "free white men of European descent" -- and only free white men of European descent. At the time of the American Revolution most white residents of the colonies were of either northern or western European descent. Only approximately one-fourth of all ante-bellum southern whites belonged to slave-owning families. this was because only a minority of southern whites owned sufficient land or other property to profit from slave labor. If the cost of maintaining a slave was not greater than the wealth produced by the slave, rather than being an asset to his/her owner, the slave was a financial liability.

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  • 7. 

    Yugoslavia was initially established as a kingdom of Serbs, Slovenes, and 

    • A.

      Croats

    • B.

      Bosnians

    • C.

      Turks

    • D.

      Hungarians

    Correct Answer
    A. Croats
    Explanation
    Formed out of the nationalities that had been part of the old Ottoman and Habsburg empires, Yugoslavia was originally known as the Kingdom of Serbs, Slovenes, and Croats.

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  • 8. 

    In 1939, the Kingdom of Siam became officially known as 

    • A.

      Indonesia

    • B.

      Cambodia

    • C.

      Burma

    • D.

      Thailand

    Correct Answer
    D. Thailand
    Explanation
    Reflecting the national identity of its people, the ancient kingdom of Siam was renamed Thailand.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following statements was not a result of the aftermath of communism's 1989 collapse in Eastern Europe?

    • A.

      Industrial production continued relatively unabated.

    • B.

      Living standards immediately rose.

    • C.

      Governments attempted to bring about economic stabilization.

    • D.

      Prices increased dramatically

    Correct Answer
    B. Living standards immediately rose.
    Explanation
    Following the collapse of communism in Easter Europe, industrial production continued relatively unabated as governments attempted to maintain economic stability. At the same time, prices increased dramatically as products began to be priced at their market rate, hence living standards decreased as otherwise affordable products began to be unaffordable, particularly for those on fixed incomes.

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  • 10. 

    Mercantilism was an economic policy that attempted to obtain a favorable balance of trade that would result in the maximum inflows of gold and silver.  During what century was this economic theory popular?

    • A.

      16th

    • B.

      19th

    • C.

      13th

    • D.

      21st

    Correct Answer
    A. 16th
    Explanation
    Mercantilism was an economic theory that had wide acceptance during the 16th through 18th centuries. This theory stated that colonies existed to benefit the home country, through an exclusive and highly regulated trading relationship. The drive to create colonies resulted in the creation of many European empires.

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  • 11. 

    An examination of 750 circuit boards produced by AMPEX Corp. revealed that 15 were defective.  At this rate, how many defective circuit boards would there be in a lot of 12,750

    • A.

      115

    • B.

      255

    • C.

      275

    • D.

      350

    Correct Answer
    B. 255
    Explanation
    This problem can be solved by setting up a proportion

    Defects - 15 x
    ------------ = ------ Cross multiply
    Total - 750 12,750

    750x = 191,250. Divide by 750
    x = 255

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  • 12. 

    A television is on sale for 20% off.  If the sale price is $800, what was the original price?

    • A.

      $160

    • B.

      $640

    • C.

      $960

    • D.

      $1,000

    Correct Answer
    D. $1,000
    Explanation
    The original price of the television can be found by dividing the sale price by (100% - discount percentage) and then multiplying by 100%. In this case, we know that the sale price is $800 and the discount is 20%. So, we divide $800 by (100% - 20%) which is 80%. Dividing $800 by 0.8 gives us $1,000, which is the original price of the television.

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  • 13. 

    Dan Preston arrives in Toronto, Ontario, Canada, and wishes to convert $300 U.S. dollars to Canadian dollars.  If one U.S. dollar is worth $1.47 in Canadian currency, how many Canadian dollars does Dan receive?

    • A.

      $141

    • B.

      $204

    • C.

      $441

    • D.

      $447

    Correct Answer
    C. $441
    Explanation
    Dan Preston arrives in Toronto, Ontario, Canada, and wishes to convert $300 U.S. dollars to Canadian dollars. Since one U.S. dollar is worth $1.47 in Canadian currency, to find out how many Canadian dollars Dan receives, we need to multiply $300 by the exchange rate of $1.47. This gives us $441, which is the amount of Canadian dollars that Dan receives.

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  • 14. 

    A blueprint has a scale of 3 feet per 1/2 inch.  If a bathroom is 1 1/2 inches X 2 inches, what are its actual dimensions?

    • A.

      4 1/2 feet X 6 feet

    • B.

      6 feet X 7 1/2 feet

    • C.

      7 1/2 feet X 9 feet

    • D.

      9 feet X 12 feet

    Correct Answer
    D. 9 feet X 12 feet
    Explanation
    The scale of the blueprint is 3 feet per 1/2 inch. To find the actual dimensions, we need to convert the measurements on the blueprint to feet. 1 1/2 inches on the blueprint is equivalent to 1 1/2 * (3 feet / 1/2 inch) = 9 feet. Similarly, 2 inches on the blueprint is equivalent to 2 * (3 feet / 1/2 inch) = 12 feet. Therefore, the actual dimensions of the bathroom are 9 feet by 12 feet.

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  • 15. 

    Top management are compensated more because they are valuable to the organization.  These top managers do more

    • A.

      Organizing

    • B.

      Planning

    • C.

      Directing

    • D.

      Controlling

    Correct Answer
    B. Planning
    Explanation
    Although top managers do all the listed activities, they are involved in strategic planning most of the time. Staffing and directing are more the responsibility of mid-level managers, while controlling is the primary responsibility of front-line managers.

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  • 16. 

    Why is delegation of authority crucial to the successful execution of company operations?

    • A.

      It gives the top management more time to think and develop strategic business directions.

    • B.

      It makes the entire company more structured and easier to account for financially.

    • C.

      It empowers the employees to make commitments, use resources, and take whatever actions to ensure customer satisfaction.

    • D.

      It provides jobs so that there will be many mid-level and low-level managers.

    Correct Answer
    C. It empowers the employees to make commitments, use resources, and take whatever actions to ensure customer satisfaction.
    Explanation
    Delegation of authority is crucial to the successful execution of company operations because it empowers employees to make commitments, use resources, and take necessary actions to ensure customer satisfaction. By delegating authority, employees are given the autonomy and responsibility to make decisions and take actions that align with the company's goals and objectives. This not only increases efficiency and productivity but also enhances employee morale and engagement. Empowered employees are more likely to take ownership of their work, leading to improved customer satisfaction and overall success of the company.

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  • 17. 

    A figure of speech in which a comparison is made by using "as" or "like" is a:

    • A.

      Simile

    • B.

      Metaphor

    • C.

      Synecdoche

    • D.

      Cacophony

    Correct Answer
    A. Simile
    Explanation
    A metaphor fuses the two subjects. A synecdoche is a figure of speech in which the part is used for a whole. A cacophony is the frequent use/reuse of the same sounds together.

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  • 18. 

    Slander means:

    • A.

      To exaggerate

    • B.

      To reveal only the negative aspects of an idea or person

    • C.

      To use another person's ideas and claim them as your own

    • D.

      To make statements about a person that are injurious to the reputation of a person

    Correct Answer
    D. To make statements about a person that are injurious to the reputation of a person
    Explanation
    Slander refers to making false and damaging statements about a person that harm their reputation. It involves spreading harmful information or rumors about someone with the intention of tarnishing their character or credibility. Slander is a form of defamation and can have serious consequences for the person being targeted, as it can negatively impact their personal and professional life.

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  • 19. 

    A new trend has developed in the computer world in which one's work can now be saved using a device that plugs into the USB ports of their computer.  This device is known as a

    • A.

      Jump drive or flash drive

    • B.

      Zip disk

    • C.

      3.5" floppy disk

    • D.

      DVD-RW

    Correct Answer
    A. Jump drive or flash drive
    Explanation
    A jump drive or flash drive is a device that can be plugged into the USB ports of a computer to save one's work. It is a portable storage device that allows users to easily transfer and store data. This trend has become popular as it provides a convenient and efficient way to save and transport files.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is considered an output device (produces information from processing):

    • A.

      Mouse

    • B.

      Digital camera

    • C.

      Printer

    • D.

      Zip drive

    Correct Answer
    C. Printer
    Explanation
    A printer is considered an output device because it produces information from processing. It takes digital data and converts it into a physical form, such as text or images, on paper or other media. This allows users to obtain a hard copy of their documents or images. Unlike the other options, a printer is specifically designed to produce output and is not used for input or storage purposes.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following describes the Executive Office of the President?

    • A.

      It is the formal name for the Cabinet.

    • B.

      It contains offices such as the Environmental Protection Administration that are cabinet level but not cabinet departments.

    • C.

      It consists of offices that advise the president.

    • D.

      It refers only to those in the White House who write speeches for the president and give political advice

    Correct Answer
    C. It consists of offices that advise the president.
    Explanation
    The Executive Office of the President was created under President Franklin Roosevelt by the Executive Reorganization Act of 1939. It was established to provide assistance to the president outside of Cabinet departments. Offices such as the Office of Management and Budget, National Security Council, and the White House Office are within the Executive Office of the President. Typically, these offices are advisory and not line departments or agencies.

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  • 22. 

    The filibuster has been used to prevent a bill from passing in the Senate.  Why hasn't it been as much of a concern in recent years?

    • A.

      It has been eliminated by Senate rules.

    • B.

      The introduction of cloture has allowed the Senate to end filibusters. Most filibusters are ended today by cloture.

    • C.

      The Senate limits a filibuster today to 30 hours.

    • D.

      The Senate has a track system that allows it to move on to other business if a filibuster stops work on a particular bill or appointment.

    Correct Answer
    D. The Senate has a track system that allows it to move on to other business if a filibuster stops work on a particular bill or appointment.
    Explanation
    The Senate now operates on a track system, whereby more than one bill can be considered. Although cloture, which cuts off filibusters, has been more successful in recent years, there are still filibusters that have been conducted.

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  • 23. 

    A state added a constitutional amendment to its state constitution.  Can the Congress overturn such an amendment?

    • A.

      Yes, only by passing a federal Constitutional Amendment approved by the states.

    • B.

      Yes, by either passing a law or enacting a federal Constitutional Amendment, approved by the states.

    • C.

      No, states can do what they want.

    • D.

      Yes, by passing a resolution with a two-thirds vote.

    Correct Answer
    B. Yes, by either passing a law or enacting a federal Constitutional Amendment, approved by the states.
    Explanation
    The supremacy clause in the national Constitution says that national statutes and Constitution are supreme over state statutes and constitutions.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following amendments to the U.S. Constitution conferred automatic U.S citizenship on all persons born in the United States.

    • A.

      The 13th Amendment

    • B.

      The 14th Amendment

    • C.

      The 15th Amendment

    • D.

      The 16th Amendment

    Correct Answer
    B. The 14th Amendment
    Explanation
    The 14th Amendment conferred automatic citizenship on all persons born within the territorial limits of the United States. The 13th Amendment, which abolished slavery, was ratified in 1865. The 15th Amendment was ratified in 1870. It states that U.S. citizens' right to vote "shall not be denied or abridged... on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude." The 16th Amendment was ratified in 1913. It granted the federal government the right to collect taxes based on personal income.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following did not occur during the years of post-Civil War Reconstruction?

    • A.

      The first large-scale attempt by the federal government to bring about racial equality by intervening and spending large amounts of money to help one group improve its position relative to other groups.

    • B.

      Former Confederate states were placed under martial law.

    • C.

      The passage of the 14th Amendment.

    • D.

      Souther states passing and enforcing laws that effectively denied blacks the right to vote.

    Correct Answer
    D. Souther states passing and enforcing laws that effectively denied blacks the right to vote.
    Explanation
    Post-Civil War Reconstruction (of the South) was instituted in response to southern states passing and enforcing laws that effectively denied African Americans the right to vote.

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  • 26. 

    One of the most widely traded agricultural commodities on the planet, coffee grows best in

    • A.

      Tropical lowlands

    • B.

      Temperate lowlands

    • C.

      Tropical highlands

    • D.

      Temperate mountain zones

    Correct Answer
    C. Tropical highlands
    Explanation
    Although coffee can be grown in lowland tropical climates, the best grades of Arabica are grown on tropical mountains which enjoy cool, frost-free nights, and warm days.

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  • 27. 

    Emperor Napoleon III (Louis Napoleon) fell from power

    • A.

      During the Crimean War

    • B.

      During the Paris Commune

    • C.

      During the Franco Prussian War

    • D.

      After being deposed by the Directory

    Correct Answer
    C. During the Franco Prussian War
    Explanation
    Louis Napoleon was captured by the Germans at the battle of Sedan in the Franco Prussian War. This led to the collapse of the Second Empire and the eventual formation of the Third Republic.

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  • 28. 

    From 1895 until the end of the Second World War, Korea was dominated by

    • A.

      China

    • B.

      Russia

    • C.

      Japan

    • D.

      France

    Correct Answer
    C. Japan
    Explanation
    Japan won control of Korea from China in 1895 and continued to exploit Korea as a colonial possession until the end of World War II.

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  • 29. 

    Price controls (such as fixing the price for gas or renting apartments) are generally opposed by economists because

    • A.

      Economists believe that price controls generally cause distorted asset allocation

    • B.

      Economists believe that price controls can lead to a shortage of products on the open market

    • C.

      Alternative (and often illegal) distribution mechanisms emerge to avoid the price controls.

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Price controls are generally opposed by economists because they believe that such controls can cause distorted asset allocation. When prices are fixed, resources may not be allocated efficiently, leading to misallocation of goods and services. Additionally, economists argue that price controls can result in shortages of products on the open market. When prices are artificially set below the market equilibrium, demand may exceed supply, leading to a shortage. Furthermore, economists point out that price controls often give rise to alternative and sometimes illegal distribution mechanisms as individuals seek to avoid the controls. These reasons collectively explain why economists generally oppose price controls.

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  • 30. 

    Many trade economists argue that closing off an economy to international market forces creates critical inefficiencies as local producers become ____________, expending resources on cornering artificially created markets via specially acquired licenses, legitimate legislation, or personal connections.

    • A.

      Corrupt

    • B.

      Import-substituting forces

    • C.

      Self-reliant

    • D.

      Rent-seekers

    Correct Answer
    D. Rent-seekers
    Explanation
    Many economists argue that when an economy is closed off to international market forces, many local producers become rent seekers -- seeking favorable public policies to bring about the uncompensated transfer of goods or services from another person or persons to themselves. In many cases, these are individuals with a particular license to import or manufacture a particular good that is then sold to the public at many times its market rate.

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  • 31. 

    Tanya's bowling scores this week were 112, 156, 179, 165.  Last week, her average score was 140.  How many points did her average improve?

    • A.

      18

    • B.

      13

    • C.

      11

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 13
    Explanation
    Tanya's average score this week is calculated by adding up her scores and dividing by the number of games played. Her total score this week is 112 + 156 + 179 + 165 = 612. Since she played 4 games, her average score this week is 612/4 = 153. Her average score last week was 140. Therefore, her average score improved by 13 points (153 - 140 = 13).

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  • 32. 

    Between which two consecutive years was the percent of decrease in sales for video game X the greatest?

    • A.

      Year 1 to year 2

    • B.

      Year 2 to year 3

    • C.

      Year 3 to year 4

    • D.

      Year 4 to year 5

    Correct Answer
    D. Year 4 to year 5
    Explanation
    Be careful not to jump and pick answer C because the amount of the decrease is bigger. One a percent basis, there is a larger decrease from year 4 to year 5.

    Percent of decrease year 3 to year 4: $400/$600 = 66 2/3%
    Percent of decrease year 4 to year 5: $150/$200 = 75%

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  • 33. 

    Sales in Year 3 accounted for approximately what percent of the total sales for the five years shown?

    • A.

      23%

    • B.

      43%

    • C.

      46%

    • D.

      75%

    Correct Answer
    B. 43%
    Explanation
    Sales in Year 3 accounted for approximately 43% of the total sales for the five years shown. This can be calculated by dividing the sales in Year 3 by the total sales for all five years and multiplying by 100.

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  • 34. 

    The following table lists the number of points that each of the 7 players on a particular team scored during a basketball tournament.If the number of points that Dean scored is reported incorrectly in the local newspaper as 27, which of the following statements is true?

    • A.

      The mean, median, mode, and range of players' points will change.

    • B.

      The median and the mode will remain the same, but the mean and the range will change.

    • C.

      The median, mode, and range will remain the same, but the mean will change.

    • D.

      The median and the mean will remain the same, but the mode and the range will change.

    Correct Answer
    B. The median and the mode will remain the same, but the mean and the range will change.
    Explanation
    If the number of points that Dean scored is reported incorrectly in the local newspaper as 27, it means that one data point in the dataset is incorrect. The median and the mode are not affected by outliers or incorrect data points, so they will remain the same. However, the mean is affected by the value of each data point, so it will change. Additionally, the range, which is the difference between the highest and lowest values, will also change because the incorrect data point will affect the overall range. Therefore, the statement "The median and the mode will remain the same, but the mean and the range will change" is true.

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  • 35. 

    Which form of business ownership has restricted liability, lower taxation, and fewer government restrictions?

    • A.

      Sole proprietorship

    • B.

      Partnership

    • C.

      Limited liability corporation

    • D.

      Cooperatives

    Correct Answer
    C. Limited liability corporation
    Explanation
    A limited liability corporation (LLC) is a form of business ownership that provides restricted liability to its owners, meaning their personal assets are protected in case of any business debts or legal issues. LLCs also benefit from lower taxation as they are not subject to double taxation like corporations. Additionally, they have fewer government restrictions compared to other forms of business ownership, allowing for more flexibility in operations and decision-making.

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  • 36. 

    Customization in operations management is

    • A.

      Making identical, interchangeable components or products

    • B.

      The creation of an item in self-contained units that can be combined or interchanged to create different products

    • C.

      Making products meet a particular customer's needs or wants

    • D.

      Making the best product to clear immigration customs

    Correct Answer
    C. Making products meet a particular customer's needs or wants
    Explanation
    Customization in operations management refers to the process of tailoring products or services to meet the specific needs and wants of individual customers. This involves adapting and personalizing the product or service according to the customer's preferences, requirements, and specifications. By doing so, companies can enhance customer satisfaction and loyalty by providing them with unique and personalized experiences. This approach allows businesses to differentiate themselves from competitors and gain a competitive advantage in the market.

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  • 37. 

    In interpersonal communication, the encoder is

    • A.

      The message

    • B.

      The listener/receiver

    • C.

      The situation in which the message is given

    • D.

      The speaker/sender

    Correct Answer
    D. The speaker/sender
    Explanation
    The encoder in interpersonal communication refers to the person who creates and sends the message. They are responsible for encoding their thoughts, ideas, or feelings into a form that can be understood by others. The speaker/sender is the correct answer because they are the ones who initiate the communication process by formulating and delivering the message to the listener/receiver.

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  • 38. 

    An example of selective perception is:

    • A.

      Listening only to message with which you agree

    • B.

      Selecting only parts of a message in which you are interested

    • C.

      Remembering only what you wish

    • D.

      Understanding a message as distorted; trying to make it fit with previously held ideas

    Correct Answer
    D. Understanding a message as distorted; trying to make it fit with previously held ideas
    Explanation
    Selective perception refers to the tendency of individuals to interpret information in a way that aligns with their pre-existing beliefs or ideas. This can lead to a distorted understanding of a message, as individuals may unconsciously alter or manipulate the information to fit their own perspectives. By trying to make the message fit with their previously held ideas, individuals may ignore or overlook information that contradicts their beliefs, resulting in a biased interpretation of the message.

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  • 39. 

    The First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution provides protection for

    • A.

      Freedom of speech

    • B.

      Freedom of the press

    • C.

      Freedom of religious practices

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution guarantees protection for freedom of speech, freedom of the press, and freedom of religious practices. This means that individuals have the right to express their opinions and ideas, the press has the freedom to report news and information without government interference, and individuals have the right to practice their chosen religion without persecution. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as the First Amendment encompasses all three of these fundamental freedoms.

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  • 40. 

    A bit is defined as 

    • A.

      Approximately 1 million bytes of data

    • B.

      A single character

    • C.

      The most basic element of computer data

    • D.

      Approximately 1 trillion bytes of data

    Correct Answer
    C. The most basic element of computer data
    Explanation
    A bit is the most basic element of computer data. It represents the smallest unit of information that a computer can understand, which is either a 0 or a 1. All data in a computer is ultimately represented as a combination of bits, allowing for the storage and processing of information. The other options in the question, such as bytes or characters, are larger units of data that are built upon the foundation of bits.

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  • 41. 

    The maximize button performs which of the following activities:

    • A.

      Removes the program window from the desktop but keeps the program running

    • B.

      Closes a document window or exits a program

    • C.

      Restores a program window to the size it was set before it was maximized

    • D.

      Expands the program window until it covers the entire desktop

    Correct Answer
    D. Expands the program window until it covers the entire desktop
    Explanation
    The maximize button expands the program window until it covers the entire desktop. This means that when the maximize button is clicked, the program window will be resized to fill the entire screen, allowing the user to make the most of the available screen space for that particular program.

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  • 42. 

    The Social Security system was established based upon the trust fund structure.  What has happened to the trust funds?

    • A.

      They have eliminated all trust funds that were originally established.

    • B.

      They have consolidated the trust funds into a single fund.

    • C.

      They have several trust funds (for example, disability, old-age retirement, hospital insurance)

    • D.

      They have two trust funds. One must be invested in U.S. government bonds and the other allows individuals to invest in stock index funds.

    Correct Answer
    C. They have several trust funds (for example, disability, old-age retirement, hospital insurance)
    Explanation
    Social Security has several trust funds. The payroll tax is deposited into these funds. All surpluses in these funds must be invested in U.S. government bonds. Each of the trust funds is projected to be in trouble in different years.

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  • 43. 

    Amicus Curiae briefs are filed with the courts.  What are they?

    • A.

      They are briefs filed by the appellants.

    • B.

      They are briefs filed by those who are not participants in the case.

    • C.

      They are briefs filed by the government.

    • D.

      They are parts of a court's decision that do not act as precedent for future cases.

    Correct Answer
    B. They are briefs filed by those who are not participants in the case.
    Explanation
    Amicus Curiae briefs are friend-of-the-court briefs. They are written by groups who want to have input; they are not a party to the case, but they have an interest in the outcome. Parts of the decision that don't act as precedent are called obiter dicta.

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  • 44. 

    Congressional oversight is a term used to signify

    • A.

      When Congress includes preferences for some group in a piece of legislation

    • B.

      When Congress exercises review of some activity of the executive branch

    • C.

      When Congress leaves out a crucial element in legislation

    • D.

      When Congress fails to provide sufficient funds for a program

    Correct Answer
    B. When Congress exercises review of some activity of the executive branch
    Explanation
    Congressional oversight refers to the process in which Congress monitors and reviews the activities of the executive branch of the government. This includes the examination of policies, programs, and actions taken by the executive branch to ensure they are in line with the law and the best interests of the public. Through oversight, Congress can hold the executive branch accountable, identify any potential wrongdoing or inefficiencies, and make necessary adjustments or reforms. It is an essential function of Congress to maintain a system of checks and balances in the federal government.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following was passed during what historians and political scientists have labeled the Progressive Era?

    • A.

      The Sherman Anti-Trust Act

    • B.

      The Taft-Hartley Act

    • C.

      The Emergency Banking Act

    • D.

      The Hawley-Smoot Act

    Correct Answer
    A. The Sherman Anti-Trust Act
    Explanation
    The Progressive Era lasted from approximately the late 1880s to the beginning of World War I. Congress passed the Sherman Anti-Tust Act in 1890. This act made unlawful the formation of trusts, monopolies, and other activities that restrained interstate or foreign trade. Congress passed the Taft-Hartley Act in 1947, which reduced the power of labor unions by, for example, outlawing strikes by government employees and making closed shops illegal. The Hawley-Smoot Act (1930), passed to protect American producers, raised tariffs on products produced in other countries to an all-time high. The Emergency Banking Act, passed in 1935, during the middle of the Great Depression, provided temporary insurance for bank depositors.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following concerning American movies and the American Motion Picture Industry is not true?

    • A.

      Thomas Edison was the first American to patent and market a commercial motion-picture camera.

    • B.

      During the early years of American movie production, the rate of attendance of non-English-speaking immigrants was lower than the attendance rate of middle class, native-born Americans

    • C.

      During the second decade of the 20th century, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that movies were a business and not a form of communication and, therefore, their contents were not protected by the 1st Amendment.

    • D.

      The First talking movie debuted during the 1920s

    Correct Answer
    B. During the early years of American movie production, the rate of attendance of non-English-speaking immigrants was lower than the attendance rate of middle class, native-born Americans
    Explanation
    During the early years of American movie production, most movie-goers were working-class immigrants. One reason for the popularity of the movies among these immigrants was that movies were cheap. Another reason was that they were silent, which meant moviegoers did not need to know English to enjoy them. Edison was the first American to patent and market a commercial motion picture camera. In its 1915 Mutual Film Corporation v Ohio decision, the Supreme Court removed movie contents from protection by the 1st Amendment, ruling that movies were a business, not a form of communication, and thus not protected by the 1st Amendment. The first talking movie -- The Jazz Singer, starring Al Jolson -- was released in 1927.

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  • 47. 

    The ___________ Act gave American workers the right to belong to labor unions and engage in collective bargaining.

    • A.

      The Wagner Act

    • B.

      The Walsh-Healy Act

    • C.

      The Fair Standards Act

    • D.

      The Taft-Hartley Act

    Correct Answer
    A. The Wagner Act
    Explanation
    The Walsh-Healy Act (1936) mandated a minimum wage for workers at companies holding government contracts, as well as an eight-hour day and forty-hour work-week. It also forbade the use of child and convict labor. The Fair Standards Act (1938) mandated minimum wage, defined a forty-hour week, and forbade the use of child labor by any business engaged in interstate commerce. The Taft-Hartley Act made closed shops and strikes by government employees illegal.

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  • 48. 

    The city of Istanbul's strategic location gives Turkey control of access to

    • A.

      The Aegean

    • B.

      The Black Sea

    • C.

      The Baltic Sea

    • D.

      The Red Sea

    Correct Answer
    B. The Black Sea
    Explanation
    Istanbul's location on the Bosphorus Strait has historically given the city control over the only access between the Mediterranean and Black seas, and thus of Russia's access to the Mediterranean.

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  • 49. 

    Northern Ireland has what status within the United Kingdom?

    • A.

      It is an autonomous member of the commonwealth of former British colonies.

    • B.

      It is a crown colony.

    • C.

      It is an integral part of the United Kingdom.

    • D.

      It is no longer a member of the Commonwealth.

    Correct Answer
    C. It is an integral part of the United Kingdom.
    Explanation
    Northern Ireland has the status of being an integral part of the United Kingdom. This means that it is not a separate country or autonomous region, but rather a constituent part of the UK. Northern Ireland is governed by the UK government and its laws and policies are determined by the UK parliament. It does not have the same level of autonomy as Scotland or Wales, which have devolved powers, but it still has its own distinct political and cultural identity within the UK.

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  • 50. 

    While shock therapy is well known for its controversial effect on the Russian and Polish economies, it was first applied to this South American economy:

    • A.

      Chile

    • B.

      Brazil

    • C.

      Argentina

    • D.

      Bolivia

    Correct Answer
    D. Bolivia
    Explanation
    The principles of shock therapy were first applied to Bolivia in 1985, where they were used to successfully combat hyperinflation, open the country to economic trade, and change the governmental role from controlling to regulating the economy.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jul 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 13, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Elee1830
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