General - Aircraft Maintenance

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Aircraft Maintenance Quizzes & Trivia

Study Guide for Volume 1: General Subjects


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which is NOT a personality charateristic that could cause a person to act unsafe, tolerate or overlook an unsafe condition? 

    • A.

      Inattentiveness

    • B.

      Excitability

    • C.

      Patience

    • D.

      Stubborness

    Correct Answer
    C. Patience
    Explanation
    Patience is not a personality characteristic that could cause a person to act unsafe, tolerate, or overlook an unsafe condition. Inattentiveness can cause someone to not pay attention to potential dangers, excitability can lead to impulsive and reckless behavior, and stubbornness can prevent someone from accepting advice or warnings about safety. However, patience does not inherently lead to unsafe actions or a disregard for safety precautions.

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  • 2. 

    What should be accomplished after any maintenance action?

    • A.

      Paperwork - fill out all required documentation

    • B.

      Housekeeping - police up the work area

    • C.

      Restock - order depleted benchstock items

    • D.

      Supply - turn in replace parts

    Correct Answer
    B. Housekeeping - police up the work area
    Explanation
    After any maintenance action, it is important to accomplish housekeeping by policing up the work area. This means cleaning up and organizing the area to ensure it is safe and ready for the next task. It involves removing any debris, tools, or equipment that may have been used during the maintenance action and returning them to their proper places. This helps maintain a clean and efficient work environment, reduces the risk of accidents or injuries, and promotes productivity.

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  • 3. 

    What can happen if spills and drips are not cleaned up?

    • A.

      Corrosion and delamination

    • B.

      Hazardous or toxic wastes

    • C.

      Slips and falls

    • D.

      Horseplay

    Correct Answer
    C. Slips and falls
    Explanation
    If spills and drips are not cleaned up, it can lead to slippery surfaces, increasing the risk of slips and falls. This can cause injuries to individuals who may accidentally step on the spills or drips. It is important to promptly clean up spills and drips to maintain a safe environment and prevent accidents.

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  • 4. 

    Which is NOT a principle of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C.

      Accept risks when benefits outweighs risks

    • D.

      Integrate ORM at the unit level based on mission

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrate ORM at the unit level based on mission
    Explanation
    The principle of integrating Operational Risk Management (ORM) at the unit level based on mission is not a principle of ORM. ORM focuses on identifying, assessing, and managing risks to achieve organizational objectives. The other principles listed - accepting no unnecessary risk, making risk decisions at the appropriate level, and accepting risks when benefits outweigh risks - align with ORM principles by emphasizing the importance of risk assessment and decision-making in managing operational risks.

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  • 5. 

    What is considered the direct cause of many accidents?

    • A.

      Inattentiveness

    • B.

      Excitability

    • C.

      Impatience

    • D.

      Unsafe acts or conditions

    Correct Answer
    D. Unsafe acts or conditions
    Explanation
    Unsafe acts or conditions are considered the direct cause of many accidents. This means that accidents occur due to actions or behaviors that are unsafe, such as not following safety protocols, operating machinery without proper training, or working in hazardous conditions. Additionally, accidents can also be caused by unsafe conditions, such as faulty equipment, poor lighting, or inadequate safety measures. In both cases, the presence of unsafe acts or conditions increases the likelihood of accidents happening.

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  • 6. 

    What is called a practical joke, but is a major cause of accidents?

    • A.

      Unsafe acts or conditions

    • B.

      Horseplay

    • C.

      Hazing

    • D.

      Slips and falls

    Correct Answer
    B. Horseplay
    Explanation
    Horseplay refers to playful and often reckless behavior that can cause accidents. While it may be considered a practical joke, it is a major cause of accidents because it involves engaging in unsafe acts or creating hazardous conditions. Horseplay can lead to slips, falls, collisions, and other accidents that can result in injuries or damage. Therefore, it is important to discourage horseplay in order to maintain a safe environment and prevent accidents.

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  • 7. 

    What precaution should be taken when wearing metal-framed eyeglasses around an energized electrical circuit?

    • A.

      Take glasses off before working with electricity

    • B.

      Secure with a headband or neckband

    • C.

      Do not use metal-framed glasses near electrical hazards

    • D.

      Wear contacts instead of metal-framed glasses

    Correct Answer
    B. Secure with a headband or neckband
    Explanation
    When wearing metal-framed eyeglasses around an energized electrical circuit, it is important to secure them with a headband or neckband. This precaution helps to prevent the glasses from falling off and potentially coming into contact with the electrical circuit, which could result in injury or damage. By securing the glasses, the risk of accidental contact is minimized, ensuring safety while working with electricity.

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  • 8. 

    What type of protective clothing do you wear while working around hot exhausts?

    • A.

      Eye and hearing protection

    • B.

      Eye and hand protection

    • C.

      Long sleeves and gloves

    • D.

      Long sleeves and eye protection

    Correct Answer
    C. Long sleeves and gloves
    Explanation
    When working around hot exhausts, it is important to protect oneself from potential burns and injuries. Wearing long sleeves helps to cover and protect the arms from direct contact with the hot surfaces, reducing the risk of burns. Gloves provide an additional layer of protection for the hands, which are particularly vulnerable to burns. Therefore, wearing long sleeves and gloves is the most suitable type of protective clothing when working around hot exhausts.

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  • 9. 

    What position do you assume when lifting an object that is lower than your waist?

    • A.

      Bend over and lift with legs

    • B.

      Squat with back straight and lift with legs

    • C.

      Squat and lift with arms

    • D.

      Keep back straight and lift with arms

    Correct Answer
    B. Squat with back straight and lift with legs
    Explanation
    When lifting an object that is lower than your waist, it is important to maintain proper form to prevent injury. Squatting with a straight back and lifting with your legs is the correct position to assume. This position helps to distribute the weight evenly and engage the larger muscles in your legs, reducing strain on your back. Lifting with your legs instead of your arms also allows for better control and stability while lifting.

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  • 10. 

    What is NOT considered one of the four major phases of safety training?

    • A.

      Initial

    • B.

      Supervisor safety training

    • C.

      General training

    • D.

      On-the-job training

    • E.

      Job safety training

    Correct Answer
    D. On-the-job training
    Explanation
    On-the-job training is not considered one of the four major phases of safety training. The four major phases of safety training typically include initial training, supervisor safety training, general training, and job safety training. On-the-job training refers to the training that takes place while an individual is actually performing their job duties, rather than being a separate phase of safety training.

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  • 11. 

    Why must supervisors be given formal safety training?

    • A.

      Required by AFOQT as part of their up-grade training

    • B.

      Because they have forgotten all they learned as Airmen

    • C.

      So they have working knowledge of accident prevention, and accident prevention know-how

    • D.

      So they have more knowledge than those they supervise

    Correct Answer
    C. So they have working knowledge of accident prevention, and accident prevention know-how
    Explanation
    Supervisors must be given formal safety training so that they have a working knowledge of accident prevention and accident prevention know-how. This ensures that they are equipped with the necessary skills and knowledge to effectively identify and mitigate potential hazards in the workplace. By receiving formal safety training, supervisors can effectively communicate and enforce safety protocols, reducing the risk of accidents and creating a safer work environment for their subordinates.

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  • 12. 

    Select the two (2) most frequent methods used in job safety training.

    • A.

      A personal interview by the supervisor

    • B.

      A five-minute roll-call briefing

    • C.

      A five-minute stand-up talks

    • D.

      Initial safety training

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A personal interview by the supervisor
    C. A five-minute stand-up talks
    Explanation
    The two most frequent methods used in job safety training are a personal interview by the supervisor and a five-minute stand-up talks. These methods are commonly employed to ensure that employees receive the necessary information and guidance regarding safety protocols and procedures in the workplace. A personal interview allows for a one-on-one interaction between the supervisor and the employee, enabling a tailored approach to address specific concerns and ensure understanding. On the other hand, a five-minute stand-up talk is a quick and concise method to deliver important safety messages to a larger group of employees, promoting awareness and reinforcing safety practices.

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  • 13. 

    When should you replace a cracked or broken tool?

    • A.

      When it is no longer usable

    • B.

      At the end of the shift

    • C.

      Immediately

    • D.

      Never

    Correct Answer
    C. Immediately
    Explanation
    It is important to replace a cracked or broken tool immediately because using a damaged tool can lead to accidents or injuries. Continuing to use a broken tool can also cause further damage to the tool itself or the work being done. Therefore, it is crucial to replace it right away to ensure safety and maintain efficiency in the work process.

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  • 14. 

    Which is NOT a way to prevent fires in all maintenance areas?

    • A.

      Do not allow oily rags to accumulate

    • B.

      Obey no smoking signs

    • C.

      Throw cigarettes and matches in wastebaskets

    • D.

      Do not allow clothes to become saturated with flammables

    Correct Answer
    C. Throw cigarettes and matches in wastebaskets
    Explanation
    Throwing cigarettes and matches in wastebaskets is not a way to prevent fires in all maintenance areas. This action can increase the risk of fire as it can ignite the contents of the wastebasket, especially if there are flammable materials present. It is important to properly dispose of cigarettes and matches in designated containers or to extinguish them completely before disposal.

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  • 15. 

    What two (2) factors must be considered to make a sealant effective?

    • A.

      Select a sealant with a flashpoint of 80°F

    • B.

      Make sure sealants are at least 50 feet away from ignition source

    • C.

      Select the correct sealant for the job

    • D.

      Make sure sealants are applied correctly

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Select the correct sealant for the job
    D. Make sure sealants are applied correctly
    Explanation
    To make a sealant effective, two factors must be considered: selecting the correct sealant for the job and ensuring that the sealants are applied correctly. Selecting the correct sealant is important because different sealants are designed for specific purposes and materials, and using the wrong sealant may result in inadequate sealing or damage. Additionally, proper application is crucial to ensure that the sealant adheres well, fills gaps or cracks effectively, and provides the desired level of protection or insulation.

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  • 16. 

    What TOs cover sealants, solvents and adhesives?

    • A.

      AFOSHSTD 91-series

    • B.

      42A3-1-2

    • C.

      1-1-691

    • D.

      00-25-172

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. 42A3-1-2
    C. 1-1-691
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 42A3-1-2, 1-1-691. These references are likely military or industry standards that cover the use and handling of sealants, solvents, and adhesives. They provide guidelines and procedures for safely using these substances, ensuring that they are properly stored, applied, and disposed of. These standards may also include information on the types of materials that can be used, recommended application methods, and safety precautions to prevent accidents or injuries.

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  • 17. 

    Select how are sealants are generally packaged and available (select all that apply).

    • A.

      Accelerator and base (AB)

    • B.

      2-part can kit (KT)

    • C.

      Semi-kit cartridge (CA)

    • D.

      Premixed/frozen (OZ)

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. 2-part can kit (KT)
    C. Semi-kit cartridge (CA)
    D. Premixed/frozen (OZ)
    Explanation
    Sealants are generally packaged and available in three different forms: 2-part can kit (KT), semi-kit cartridge (CA), and premixed/frozen (OZ). The 2-part can kit consists of two separate components that need to be mixed together before use. The semi-kit cartridge is a pre-filled cartridge that can be easily dispensed using a caulking gun. The premixed/frozen option refers to sealants that are already mixed and frozen for long-term storage, and they need to be thawed before use. These three options provide different packaging and availability choices for sealants.

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  • 18. 

    What is the defintion of sealant application life?

    • A.

      The length of time a mixed sealant remains usable

    • B.

      The length of time a mixed sealant remains usable at 75°F and 50% relative humidty

    • C.

      The length of time an unmixed sealant remains usable at 75°F and 50% relative humidty

    • D.

      The length of time an unmixed sealant remains unstable at 75°F and 50% realtive humidty

    Correct Answer
    B. The length of time a mixed sealant remains usable at 75°F and 50% relative humidty
    Explanation
    Sealant application life refers to the length of time that a mixed sealant can be used effectively at a specific temperature and humidity level. In this case, the correct answer states that the sealant application life is the length of time a mixed sealant remains usable at 75°F and 50% relative humidity. This means that the sealant can be applied and will maintain its desired properties for a certain period under these specific environmental conditions.

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  • 19. 

    At what temperature-ratio does a sealant lose half its application life?

    • A.

      For each 15°F above 75°F

    • B.

      For each 18°F above 75°F

    • C.

      For each 15°F below 75°F

    • D.

      For each 18°F below 75°F

    Correct Answer
    B. For each 18°F above 75°F
  • 20. 

    What is the purpose of solvents?

    • A.

      To degrade and dissolve paints for easy removal

    • B.

      To degrade oily deposits on metal for easy removal

    • C.

      To degrade and dissolve oily and greasy soils for easy removal

    • D.

      To degrade greasy soils from painted surfaces

    Correct Answer
    C. To degrade and dissolve oily and greasy soils for easy removal
    Explanation
    Solvents are used to degrade and dissolve oily and greasy soils for easy removal. They are commonly used in cleaning products and industrial processes to break down and remove stubborn stains and residues. Solvents work by breaking the chemical bonds between the soil and the surface, allowing them to be easily wiped or rinsed away. This property makes solvents effective in various applications, such as degreasing machinery, removing oil-based paints, and cleaning greasy surfaces.

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  • 21. 

    Select three (3) sources of antenna radiation. 

    • A.

      Satillite radio transmissions

    • B.

      High-frequency radio transmissions

    • C.

      Radar

    • D.

      Electronic countermeasure devices

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. High-frequency radio transmissions
    C. Radar
    D. Electronic countermeasure devices
    Explanation
    The three sources of antenna radiation mentioned in the options are high-frequency radio transmissions, radar, and electronic countermeasure devices. High-frequency radio transmissions refer to the use of radio waves with high frequencies for communication purposes. Radar is a technology that uses radio waves to detect and track objects such as aircraft, ships, and weather formations. Electronic countermeasure devices are used to disrupt or disable enemy radar, communication systems, and other electronic systems. These three sources are known to emit antenna radiation as part of their functioning.

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  • 22. 

    Select ALL the effects of antenna radiation on the human body and vital organs that apply.

    • A.

      May cause burns beneath the skin

    • B.

      Can cause cataracts in the eyes

    • C.

      Electromagnetic energy raises internal body temperature

    • D.

      Prolonged exposure can lead to skin irritation and/or rash

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. May cause burns beneath the skin
    B. Can cause cataracts in the eyes
    C. Electromagnetic energy raises internal body temperature
    Explanation
    Antenna radiation can have several effects on the human body and vital organs. It may cause burns beneath the skin, which can occur due to the absorption of high-frequency electromagnetic energy. Additionally, antenna radiation can cause cataracts in the eyes, as the exposure to high levels of electromagnetic radiation can damage the lens of the eye. Moreover, electromagnetic energy raises the internal body temperature, which can have various physiological effects. However, prolonged exposure to antenna radiation does not typically lead to skin irritation or rash.

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  • 23. 

    What are the dangers of an overheated brake assembly?

    • A.

      Wheel and tire structure damage

    • B.

      Increased tire pressure and possible tire blowout

    • C.

      Potential fire hazard with magnesum wheels

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    An overheated brake assembly can lead to various dangers. Firstly, it can cause damage to the wheel and tire structure due to the excessive heat. Secondly, it can increase the tire pressure, which may result in a tire blowout. Lastly, if the vehicle has magnesium wheels, there is a potential fire hazard as magnesium is highly flammable. Therefore, all of the above dangers can occur due to an overheated brake assembly.

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  • 24. 

    How do you approach an overheated brake assembly?

    • A.

      In-line with the affected axle/brake assembly

    • B.

      From the nose or tail of the aircraft

    • C.

      From only the tail of the aircraft

    • D.

      From only the nose of the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    B. From the nose or tail of the aircraft
    Explanation
    When approaching an overheated brake assembly, it is recommended to approach from either the nose or tail of the aircraft. This approach allows for a safer distance from the potentially dangerous overheated brake assembly. Approaching from either end of the aircraft provides a better angle to assess the situation and take appropriate action to address the overheating issue.

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  • 25. 

    Select all the major danger area(s) around an operating jet engine.

    • A.

      Turbine plane of rotation

    • B.

      Intake

    • C.

      High intensity sound

    • D.

      Exhaust

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Turbine plane of rotation
    B. Intake
    C. High intensity sound
    D. Exhaust
    Explanation
    The major danger areas around an operating jet engine include the turbine plane of rotation, intake, high intensity sound, and exhaust. The turbine plane of rotation is dangerous because it has fast-moving blades that can cause severe injuries if someone comes into contact with them. The intake is a danger area because it sucks in large amounts of air, which can create strong suction forces that can pull in objects or people. High intensity sound can be harmful to human hearing and can cause damage if exposed for prolonged periods. The exhaust is dangerous because it emits high-temperature gases and can cause burns or injuries if someone gets too close.

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  • 26. 

    What is considered a safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine?

    • A.

      10 feet to front and sides

    • B.

      15 feet to front and sides

    • C.

      20 feet to front and sides

    • D.

      25 feet to front and sides

    Correct Answer
    D. 25 feet to front and sides
    Explanation
    A safe distance from the intake of an operating jet engine is considered to be 25 feet to the front and sides. This distance ensures that individuals and objects are kept out of harm's way from the powerful suction and high-speed exhaust of the engine. Being further away minimizes the risk of injury from debris, extreme heat, and strong air currents generated by the engine.

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  • 27. 

    What is considered a safe distance to the rear of an operating jet engine?

    • A.

      About 100 feet to the rear

    • B.

      About 150 feet to the rear

    • C.

      About 200 feet to the rear

    • D.

      About 250 feet to the rear

    Correct Answer
    C. About 200 feet to the rear
    Explanation
    A safe distance to the rear of an operating jet engine is about 200 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals due to the high velocity and temperature of the exhaust gases expelled by the engine. Standing too close to the rear of a jet engine can result in severe burns or injury from the force of the exhaust. Therefore, maintaining a distance of about 200 feet is crucial to prevent any potential harm.

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  • 28. 

    Why is the turbine wheel plane-of-rotation considered a danger area?

    • A.

      High intensity noise

    • B.

      Turbine wheel disintegration

    • C.

      The suction caused by the turbine wheel

    • D.

      The heat generated by the turbine wheel

    Correct Answer
    B. Turbine wheel disintegration
    Explanation
    The turbine wheel plane-of-rotation is considered a danger area because of the potential danger of turbine wheel disintegration. If the turbine wheel were to disintegrate while rotating at high speeds, it could cause severe damage to surrounding equipment and pose a significant risk to personnel in the vicinity. This could result in injuries or fatalities, making it important to identify and mitigate this danger area.

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  • 29. 

    What should be worn to protect hearing in addition to ear plugs in high intensity noise areas?

    • A.

      Eye protection

    • B.

      Ear defenders (or hardshell headset)

    • C.

      Gloves

    • D.

      Long sleeves and gloves

    Correct Answer
    B. Ear defenders (or hardshell headset)
    Explanation
    In addition to ear plugs, ear defenders (or hardshell headset) should be worn to protect hearing in high intensity noise areas. Ear defenders provide an extra layer of protection by covering the entire ear and reducing the amount of noise that reaches the ear. They are especially useful in situations where the noise levels are extremely high and ear plugs alone may not provide sufficient protection.

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  • 30. 

    Select the reference(s) that provide guidance for aircraft servicing operations.

    • A.

      TO 00-25-172

    • B.

      AFOSHSTD 91-series

    • C.

      AFI 21-101

    • D.

      Specific Aircraft TOs

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. TO 00-25-172
    B. AFOSHSTD 91-series
    D. Specific Aircraft TOs
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes TO 00-25-172, AFOSHSTD 91-series, and Specific Aircraft TOs. These references provide guidance for aircraft servicing operations. TO 00-25-172 is a technical manual that covers general servicing practices for aircraft. AFOSHSTD 91-series contains occupational safety and health standards for the Air Force, including guidelines for aircraft servicing operations. Specific Aircraft TOs are technical manuals specific to each aircraft model and provide detailed instructions for servicing and maintenance procedures.

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  • 31. 

    Select the three (3) things of paramount importance when servicing fuel.

    • A.

      Ground all powered AGE equipment

    • B.

      Use the right grade of fuel

    • C.

      Protect yourself from health hazards

    • D.

      Prevent fires and explosions

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Use the right grade of fuel
    C. Protect yourself from health hazards
    D. Prevent fires and explosions
    Explanation
    When servicing fuel, it is of paramount importance to use the right grade of fuel to ensure proper functioning of the equipment and prevent any damage or malfunction. Additionally, it is crucial to protect oneself from health hazards that may arise from exposure to fuel, such as inhalation or skin contact. Lastly, preventing fires and explosions is essential to ensure the safety of both the personnel and the surrounding environment.

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  • 32. 

    What could result from prolonged fuel exposure on skin?

    • A.

      Irritated skin that develops a rash

    • B.

      Headaches and dizziness

    • C.

      Abdominal pain and constipation

    • D.

      Stop breathing

    Correct Answer
    A. Irritated skin that develops a rash
    Explanation
    Prolonged fuel exposure on skin can cause irritation and lead to the development of a rash. Fuel contains various chemicals and toxins that can be harmful to the skin. These substances can strip away the natural oils and moisture from the skin, causing dryness, redness, and itching. Prolonged exposure can further aggravate the skin, leading to the formation of a rash. It is important to wash off any fuel from the skin immediately to minimize the risk of irritation and rash.

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  • 33. 

    What is the purpose for inspecting fire extinguisher seals?

    • A.

      To ensure that there are no leaks of the fire retardant

    • B.

      To ensure adequate pressure is available for fire suppression

    • C.

      To ensure that the fire extinguisher has not previously been used

    • D.

      To ensure that the inspection date has not been exceeded

    Correct Answer
    C. To ensure that the fire extinguisher has not previously been used
    Explanation
    Inspecting fire extinguisher seals is done to ensure that the fire extinguisher has not previously been used. This is important because if a fire extinguisher has been used before, it may not be fully charged or may not function properly in case of a fire emergency. By inspecting the seals, one can determine if the fire extinguisher has been tampered with or used, and take appropriate action to ensure its effectiveness in suppressing fires.

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  • 34. 

    Select ALL the TO(s) that list the criteria for positioning a fire extinguisher.

    • A.

      AFSOHSTD 91-series

    • B.

      TO 00-25-172

    • C.

      Aircraft Specfic TOs

    • D.

      AFI 21-101

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. TO 00-25-172
    C. Aircraft Specfic TOs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 00-25-172 and Aircraft Specific TOs. These two documents contain the criteria for positioning a fire extinguisher. AFSOHSTD 91-series and AFI 21-101 are not mentioned as sources for this information.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 20, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Flyboy1
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