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Because of public need for salvage zone, how far should a residential property be from the banks of rivers, streams and waterways in a rural farming area?
A.
5 meters
B.
20 meters
C.
40 meters
D.
100 meters
Correct Answer
B. 20 meters
Explanation PD 1067 Chapter 4 Article 51 (Water Code of the Philippines)
The banks of rivers and streams and the shores of the seas and lakes throughout their entire length and within a zone of three (3) meters in urban areas, twenty (20) meters in agricultural areas and forty (40) meters in forest areas, along their margins are subject to the easement of public use in the interest of recreation, navigation, floatage, fishing and salvage. No person shall be allowed to stay in this zone longer than what is necessary for recreation, navigation, floatage, fishing or salvage or to build structures of any kind.
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2.
What would be the most suitable land use of geologic fault with buffer strip of at least 5 m on both sides from the line?
A.
Aqueduct or tunnel
B.
Floodway
C.
Venice-like canals
D.
Open space or farm
E.
Wildlife refuge
Correct Answer
D. Open space or farm
Explanation A geologic fault is a fracture in the Earth's crust where rocks on either side have moved relative to each other. These faults can pose a risk of earthquakes and ground instability. Therefore, the most suitable land use would be open space or farm. This would allow for a buffer strip on both sides of the fault, minimizing the risk of structures being built too close to the fault line. Additionally, open space or farming activities would not be significantly impacted by the potential ground movement associated with the fault.
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3.
What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and Petrol-LPG gas depository?
A.
Transport terminals
B.
Commercial
C.
BPO call centers
D.
Open space
E.
Hospitals
Correct Answer
D. Open space
Explanation An open space would be the most compatible use around a huge oil depot and Petrol-LPG gas depository because it provides a safe distance and reduces the risk of accidents or explosions. Open spaces also allow for easy access and maneuverability for emergency services in case of any incidents. Additionally, open spaces can act as a buffer zone, minimizing the impact of any potential hazards on surrounding areas.
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4.
The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an LGU, except one.
A.
Indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water Management
B.
Part of growth area or growth corridor as stated in the Medium-Term National Development Plan
C.
Among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial dispersal & decentralization of development
D.
already surveyed and positively evaluated by PEZA under RA 7916
Correct Answer
A. Indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water Management
Explanation The correct answer is "indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water Management." This is because the other options provide relevant data that can help planners identify appropriate industrial areas in an LGU. However, the classification of areas as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps does not necessarily indicate their suitability for industrial development.
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5.
Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy industrial use?
A.
Load-bearing capacity
B.
Location
C.
Slope
D.
Soil characteristics
Correct Answer
D. Soil characteristics
Explanation Soil characteristics are an important factor in determining the suitability of land for heavy industrial use. Factors such as soil composition, drainage, and stability can affect the construction and stability of heavy industrial infrastructure. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that soil characteristics are not a factor in determining the suitability of land for heavy industrial use.
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6.
Which of the following is not considered a criterion to select industrial estates in the Philippines?
A.
Presence of natural resources
B.
Physical boundary
C.
Availability of labor
D.
Existing infrastructure and utilities
E.
Logistics or efficient movement of goods and products
Correct Answer
B. pHysical boundary
Explanation Physical boundary is not considered a criterion to select industrial estates in the Philippines. Industrial estates are typically selected based on factors such as the presence of natural resources, availability of labor, existing infrastructure and utilities, and logistics or efficient movement of goods and products. Physical boundary refers to the geographical limits or borders of a certain area, which may not have a direct impact on the selection of industrial estates.
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7.
This document serves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning-related guidelines and standards to guide the formulation of long-term framework plans and particularly city/municipal land use plans and zoning ordinances.
A.
Long-Term Philippine Investment Plan
B.
Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan
C.
National Framework for Physical Planning
D.
Regional Physical Framework Plan
Correct Answer
C. National Framework for pHysical Planning
Explanation This document serves as the basis for adopting land use and physical planning-related guidelines and standards. It specifically guides the formulation of long-term framework plans and city/municipal land use plans and zoning ordinances. The "National Framework for Physical Planning" is the most appropriate answer because it refers to a national-level plan that provides guidance for physical planning across the country. This plan would be comprehensive and overarching, making it suitable for guiding the formulation of long-term plans and local land use plans and ordinances.
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8.
In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030, "Settlements","Production","Protection," and "Infrastructure" are discussed as
A.
Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit
B.
Land Use Zones that exclude one another
C.
Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the local level
D.
Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city
Correct Answer
C. Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the local level
Explanation The National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030 discusses "Settlements," "Production," "Protection," and "Infrastructure" as Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at the local level. This means that these areas are defined by the policies and regulations set at the local level, and their functional relationships need to be further developed and clarified within each specific locality.
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9.
One goal of land use planning as stated in the 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' is the utilization of the country's land and water resources in a manner that provides sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos of the present and future generations through local production and/or importation.
A.
"Green Revolution"
B.
"Agricultural Development"
C.
"Food Security"
D.
"Self-Sufficiency in Grains"
Correct Answer
C. "Food Security"
Explanation The goal of land use planning, as stated in the 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030', is to ensure that the country's land and water resources are utilized in a way that provides sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos, both present and future generations. This goal aligns with the concept of "Food Security", which refers to the availability, accessibility, and affordability of food for all individuals. By focusing on food security, land use planning aims to address the needs of the population and ensure their access to an adequate food supply, either through local production or importation.
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10.
'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' notes a shift from rural resource-based environmental problems to urban-based man-made environmental problems. Which of the following NFPP measures pertains to development control and urban growth management (UGBs)?
A.
Delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion
B.
Identify and manage environmentally critical areas
C.
Match land uses and densities with environmental capacities and service capacities of infrastructure
D.
Encourage appropriately planned mixed use developments, transit use, pedestrianization and cultural/ historical preservation in large urban centers
Correct Answer
A. Delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion
Explanation The correct answer is "delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion." This measure pertains to development control and urban growth management as it involves identifying and defining specific areas of land that can be used for settlement expansion and those that are restricted from such expansion. By delineating these areas, urban growth can be managed effectively, ensuring that development is controlled and sustainable. This measure helps to prevent unplanned and haphazard urbanization, which can lead to various environmental problems in urban areas.
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11.
Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?
A.
Identify stakeholders and analyze the situation
B.
Develop a detailed organizational management profile
C.
Formulate goals and translate them into strategies
D.
Anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
E.
Identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
F.
Involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix
Correct Answer
B. Develop a detailed organizational management profile
Explanation Developing a detailed organizational management profile is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP. The basic steps include identifying stakeholders and analyzing the situation, formulating goals and translating them into strategies, anticipating economic trends and building scenarios, identifying the needed infrastructure and utilities, and involving participants in the Goals Achievement Matrix.
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12.
Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive Development Plan?
A.
Urban morphology and physiognomy
B.
Data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision, goals, objectives
C.
Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
D.
Community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring system
Correct Answer
B. Data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision, goals, objectives
Explanation The correct answer is data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall vision, goals, objectives. These steps are common to both CLUP (Comprehensive Land Use Plan) and Comprehensive Development Plan. Both plans require gathering data, analyzing problems, forecasting future trends in different sectors, and formulating a vision, goals, and objectives for the development of an area. These steps are crucial in understanding the current situation, identifying issues and challenges, and setting a direction for future development.
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13.
All of the following tools are relevant to land use planning but one is least used in land use allocation?
A.
Land Use Accounting
B.
Scenario Analysis
C.
Life Cycle Analysis
D.
Spatial Modeling
Correct Answer
C. Life Cycle Analysis
Explanation Life Cycle Analysis is the least used tool in land use allocation. Land Use Accounting is used to track and manage land resources, Scenario Analysis is used to assess the potential impacts of different land use scenarios, and Spatial Modeling is used to analyze and visualize spatial data. However, Life Cycle Analysis is typically used in assessing the environmental impacts of products or processes, rather than specifically in land use planning.
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14.
In Ernesto Serote's land use accounting, the following measures increase overall land supply for planning, except one.
A.
Reclamation of coastal area
B.
Infill and densification
C.
Urban renewal and redevelopment
D.
NPAAAD
Correct Answer
D. NPAAAD
Explanation Ernesto Serote's land use accounting aims to increase overall land supply for planning. Reclamation of coastal areas, infill and densification, and urban renewal and redevelopment are measures that can contribute to this goal by making more land available for development. However, NPAAAD does not directly increase land supply and therefore is the exception.
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15.
In Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply, the following are deducted from total, except one.
A.
Environmentally critical areas
B.
Grasslands and idle lands
C.
High-risk geohazard zones
D.
Military and civil reservations
Correct Answer
B. Grasslands and idle lands
Explanation Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply involves deducting certain areas from the total. The areas that are deducted include environmentally critical areas, high-risk geohazard zones, and military and civil reservations. However, grasslands and idle lands are not deducted from the total.
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16.
UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban land (residential, commercial, industrial, etc) and 6 hectares of farmland need to be reserved for every 1,000 population. How much urban land is needed for a town of 22,000?
A.
62.7 hectares
B.
125.4 hectares
C.
220 hectares
D.
11.4 hectares
Correct Answer
B. 125.4 hectares
Explanation Soln:
5.7 has.(urban land only) x 22=125.4 hectares
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17.
UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to educational space (public and private) per thousand population. How much combined area of schools is the minimum for a town of 40,000 people?
A.
40 hectares
B.
24 hectares
C.
10 hectares
D.
240 hectares
Correct Answer
B. 24 hectares
Explanation Soln:
0.6 has. every 1000 people
0.6 has. x 40= 24 hectares
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18.
HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be reserved for every 1,000 population. How much total industrial land is needed for an independent chartered city of 200,000 people?
A.
200 hectares
B.
400 hectares
C.
500 hectares
D.
2,500 hectares
Correct Answer
C. 500 hectares
Explanation Soln:
2.5 has every 1000 people
2.5 x 200= 500 hectares
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19.
Like a mould needed to control shape, the spatial strategy in CLUP is the creative physical arrangement of space- using activities used to influence the shape, direction, and intensity of the built environment so as to preserve and conserve the unbuilt environment.
A.
City Image
B.
City Metaphor
C.
Spatial Modeling
D.
Urban Form
E.
Urban Template
Correct Answer
D. Urban Form
Explanation Urban Form refers to the physical layout and arrangement of a city or urban area. It encompasses the shape, design, and organization of buildings, streets, parks, and other elements of the built environment. In the context of the given explanation, urban form is mentioned as a spatial strategy in CLUP (Comprehensive Land Use Plan). It suggests that the creative physical arrangement of space, through various activities, can be used to influence and control the shape, direction, and intensity of the built environment in order to preserve and conserve the unbuilt environment.
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20.
According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good 'urban design' is one where residents and visitors can use a 'cognitive image' or 'mental map' of the city as they navigate through the territory in the process of 'wayfinding·. He identified the elements of legibility of place as:
Correct Answer
D. Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks
Explanation According to Kevin Andrew Lynch, a good urban design is characterized by the legibility of place, which allows residents and visitors to navigate through the city using a cognitive image or mental map. The elements that contribute to this legibility include paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks. These elements help individuals orient themselves and understand the layout of the city, making it easier to navigate and find their way around.
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21.
Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, 'Quiapo church' would be a landmark while Divisoria would be termed as
A.
Flea Market
B.
Icon
C.
District
D.
Nodule
E.
Transshipment
Correct Answer
C. District
Explanation According to Kevin Lynch's design elements, a landmark is a prominent feature that helps people navigate and identify a specific location. Divisoria, on the other hand, is described as a district. Therefore, under Kevin Lynch's design elements, 'Quiapo church' would be considered a landmark, while Divisoria would be classified as a district.
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22.
Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati and Ortigas Center?
A.
Landmark
B.
Cosmopolitan
C.
District
D.
Downtown
E.
Estate
Correct Answer
C. District
Explanation Kevin Lynch's scheme categorizes urban areas based on their distinct characteristics and qualities. In this context, "district" refers to a specific area within a city that has its own unique identity and features. Rockwell Makati and Ortigas Center are both well-known and established areas in the Philippines, each with its own distinct character, amenities, and attractions. Therefore, "district" is the best description for these locations under Kevin Lynch's scheme.
Land use, transport network, layout, building types, density
Correct Answer
D. Land use, transport network, layout, building types, density
Explanation The elements of 'urban form' refer to the various components that make up the physical structure and organization of a city or urban area. These elements include land use, which determines how different areas are designated for residential, commercial, industrial, or recreational purposes. The transport network refers to the infrastructure and systems that facilitate the movement of people and goods within the urban area, such as roads, public transportation, and bike lanes. The layout refers to the arrangement and design of streets, blocks, and public spaces. Building types refer to the different architectural styles and structures found within the urban area. Density refers to the concentration of people and buildings in a given area, which can impact the overall character and functionality of the urban form.
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24.
Which the following indicates good site planning?
A.
Best orientation to sun, sea and wind
B.
Congruence and compability with its surrounding
C.
Proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster
D.
Maximized space
E.
Efficient circulation
F.
All of the choices
Correct Answer
F. All of the choices
Explanation Good site planning involves considering various factors such as the orientation to the sun, sea, and wind to maximize natural lighting and ventilation. It also includes ensuring congruence and compatibility with the surrounding environment to create a visually pleasing and harmonious design. Proactive features to anticipate the possibility of disasters, such as incorporating flood-resistant construction or fire safety measures, are also essential. Maximizing space utilization and ensuring efficient circulation within the site are additional aspects of good site planning. Therefore, all of the choices listed in the question indicate good site planning.
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25.
'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats 'amorphic sprawl' by means of
A.
Mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning
B.
Design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements
C.
Residential, commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered
D.
Interconnected modes of transport
E.
Compact development through infill in􀀌
F.
All of the choices
Correct Answer
F. All of the choices
Explanation The correct answer is "all of the choices" because "Smart Growth USA" combats "amorphic sprawl" by implementing all of the mentioned principles. These principles include mixed use zoning, design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements, integration and clustering of residential, commercial, and institutional uses, interconnected modes of transport, and compact development through infill. By implementing all of these principles, "Smart Growth USA" aims to address the issues caused by urban sprawl and promote sustainable and inclusive development.
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26.
Which one is not an innovative element of 'Planned Unit Development'?
A.
Cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt
B.
Usable open space
C.
Complementarity of building types
D.
Preservation of significant natural land features
Correct Answer
A. Cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt
Explanation The correct answer is "cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt". These elements are not innovative in a Planned Unit Development. The other options, such as usable open space, complementarity of building types, and preservation of significant natural land features, are innovative elements that are commonly found in Planned Unit Developments.
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27.
This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads and highways with trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of schools, hospitals, and other government agencies in order to improve the environment in built-up areas.
A.
Reforestation
B.
Miniature Forestry
C.
Urban Forestry
D.
Silvicuture
E.
Agro-f􀀘orestry
Correct Answer
C. Urban Forestry
Explanation Urban forestry refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads and highways with trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of schools, hospitals, and other government agencies in order to improve the environment in built-up areas. It focuses on the management and care of trees and green spaces in urban areas to enhance the quality of life for residents and promote a healthier environment. This practice helps to mitigate air pollution, reduce urban heat island effect, provide shade and habitat for wildlife, and improve overall aesthetics and well-being in urban settings.
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28.
This spatial strategy deliberately directs growth towards major roadways that emanate from a center like rays of a star
A.
Radial/axial/sectoral
B.
Central & nodal
C.
Multi-centric & poly-nodal
D.
Concentric
E.
Bi-polar & tri-polar
Correct Answer
A. Radial/axial/sectoral
Explanation This spatial strategy involves directing growth towards major roadways that radiate outwards from a central point, similar to the rays of a star. This can be achieved through the development of radial, axial, and sectoral patterns. The term "radial" refers to growth radiating outwards from a central point, "axial" refers to growth along major transportation routes, and "sectoral" refers to growth occurring in specific sectors or areas. This strategy aims to create a centralized and nodal pattern of development, with growth focused along key transportation corridors.
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29.
A 'tri-polar' or 'bi-polar' form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively developing new sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and business, inorder to ease pressure on· traditional center, and is an example of
A.
Simple Dispersion
B.
Concentrated Dispersion
C.
Simple Concentration
D.
Compact Development
Correct Answer
B. Concentrated Dispersion
Explanation A 'tri-polar' or 'bi-polar' form in municipal CLUP would focus on developing new sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and business, in order to ease pressure on the traditional center. This approach aims to disperse the population and economic activities in a concentrated manner across multiple areas, rather than concentrating them in a single location. This helps to achieve a more balanced and sustainable development pattern, while still maintaining a level of concentration in certain areas.
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30.
Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport congestion?
A.
Grid-iron or rectilinear
B.
Circumferential & radial
C.
Uni-linear or strip development
D.
Irregular free pattern
Correct Answer
C. Uni-linear or strip development
Explanation Uni-linear or strip development creates the most severe transport congestion. This type of urban street layout consists of a single main road with development occurring along its length. The lack of alternative routes or connections between different areas leads to increased traffic on the main road, resulting in congestion. Additionally, strip development typically lacks proper planning for transportation infrastructure, such as public transportation systems or alternative modes of transport, further exacerbating congestion issues.
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31.
What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to implement their local plans?
A.
Clearance, non-conformance, variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits
B.
Condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure and takeover of property
C.
Zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to private investment
D.
Levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tariffs
Correct Answer
C. Zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives to private investment
Explanation The tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to implement their local plans include zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, and incentives to private investment. Zoning and regulation allow the government to designate specific areas for different purposes and enforce regulations for development. Subdivision controls ensure that land division and development follow specific guidelines. Taxation provides the government with funds to support local plans and projects. Public investment allows the government to invest in infrastructure and services. Incentives to private investment encourage businesses and individuals to contribute to local development.
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32.
Under Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more than 10 heads of swine should be properly located in
A.
General residential zone (R-1)
B.
Slaughterhouse and abbatoir zone
C.
Agro-industrial zone
D.
Rangeland and pastureland
Correct Answer
C. Agro-industrial zone
Explanation According to Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more than 10 heads of swine should be properly located in the agro-industrial zone. This zone is specifically designated for agricultural and industrial activities, including the operation of commercial-scale pig farms. This ensures that such operations are located in areas where they can be properly managed and regulated, minimizing any potential negative impacts on residential areas or other sensitive land uses.
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33.
Under Philippine zoning codes, a mixed-use seven-storey structure with residential condominiums, offices, gyms, shops and boutiques should be properly located in -
A.
General residential zone R-1
B.
Commercial zone C-3
C.
Tourism recreational zone
D.
Special economic zone
Correct Answer
B. Commercial zone C-3
Explanation A mixed-use seven-storey structure with residential condominiums, offices, gyms, shops, and boutiques should be properly located in a commercial zone C-3. This is because C-3 zones are designated for commercial activities, including offices, shops, and boutiques. Additionally, C-3 zones typically allow for mixed-use developments that combine residential and commercial elements. Therefore, a commercial zone C-3 would be the appropriate zoning designation for this type of structure in the Philippines.
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34.
An area within an LGU where the average density is 35 dwelling units per hectare or below. with majority of lot sizes between 120 to 800 square meters or more, is zoned as·
A.
R-1
B.
R-2
C.
R-3
D.
R-4
E.
Mixed Use Zone
Correct Answer
A. R-1
Explanation An area within an LGU where the average density is 35 dwelling units per hectare or below, with majority of lot sizes between 120 to 800 square meters or more, is zoned as R-1. This means that the area is designated for low-density residential use, with larger lot sizes and fewer dwelling units per hectare. This zoning classification is typically used for single-family homes or low-rise residential buildings.
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35.
An area in certain cities with regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls, sports stadiums, high-rise hotels, office towers, is zoned as
A.
C-1
B.
C-2
C.
C-3
D.
Tourism zone
E.
Financial District
Correct Answer
C. C-3
Explanation Reference: PD 1096 National Building Code
C-3 (Commercial Three or Metropolitan Commercial Zone) - means
an area hosting a metropolitan level of commercial use/ occupancy,
characterized mainly as situated in a medium-rise to high-rise
building/ structure for high to very high intensity commercial/ trade,
service and business activities e.g. large to very large shopping
malls, very large office or mixed use/ occupancy buildings and the
like
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36.
What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?
Correct Answer
C. Allows the right to harvest a natural crop
Explanation Positive easements are rights granted to a person to use or enjoy another person's property. In this case, the correct answer is "allows the right to harvest a natural crop." This is an example of a positive easement because it grants the right to use the land for the purpose of harvesting a crop. The other options involve preservation, protection, or stipulations, which are not examples of positive easements.
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40.
Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use and zoning ordinance are obtained from
A.
Office of the Mayor/ Local Chief Executive
B.
Planning Commission or Planning & Dev't Office
C.
Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
D.
Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian
Correct Answer
C. Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
Explanation Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use and zoning ordinance are obtained from the Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments. This board is responsible for reviewing and making decisions on requests for variances or exceptions to zoning regulations. They have the authority to grant exemptions or special permissions based on certain criteria such as hardship or unique circumstances. The Office of the Mayor/Local Chief Executive, Planning Commission or Planning & Development Office, and the Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian may have other roles in the land use and zoning process, but they are not specifically responsible for granting exemptions or relief from provisions of land use and zoning ordinance.
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41.
A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of the 'right of reverter' is called
A.
Restrictive covenants
B.
Telluric
C.
Deed of sale
D.
Monolithic
Correct Answer
A. Restrictive covenants
Explanation Restrictive covenants are a type of land use control that limit or restrict certain activities or uses of a property. Unlike other types of land use controls, such as the 'right of reverter', restrictive covenants do not involve the possibility of the property reverting back to the original owner if certain conditions are not met. Instead, restrictive covenants typically remain in effect indefinitely and are binding on future owners of the property. These covenants are often included in property deeds or neighborhood association agreements to maintain specific standards or preserve the character of a community.
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42.
The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total site is known as:
A.
Gross Leasable Area
B.
Buildable Site Formula
C.
Floor Area Ratio
D.
Location Quotient
Correct Answer
C. Floor Area Ratio
Explanation Floor Area Ratio (FAR) is the correct answer because it refers to the total area of permitted building space as a proportion of the total site. FAR is used to regulate the density and intensity of land use in urban planning and zoning. It helps determine the maximum size of a building that can be constructed on a given plot of land, ensuring that the development is in line with the surrounding area and does not exceed the capacity of infrastructure and services. Gross Leasable Area, Buildable Site Formula, and Location Quotient are not relevant to the given definition.
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43.
When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which consideration is first and foremost from the perspective of the approving authority?
A.
Community disruption, relocation and the required land acquisition
B.
Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
C.
Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking
D.
Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus shuttles, executives' luxury cars
E.
Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the Local Government Unit
F.
Consumption of power, water, and other utilities
Correct Answer
B. Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
Explanation The approving authority's first and foremost consideration when a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance' is the consistency of the project with the local land use plan and zoning map. This means that the authority will assess whether the project aligns with the designated land use for the area and complies with the zoning regulations in place. This consideration ensures that the proposed project is in line with the overall development plan for the locality and will not disrupt the intended land use or zoning designations.
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44.
A mixed-use building has 6 storeys of 1,000 sq.m each, on a lot area of 2,000 sq.m. What is the FAR?
A.
2:1
B.
3:1
C.
4:1
D.
5:1
E.
6:1
Correct Answer
B. 3:1
Explanation Soln:
6 storeys x 1000 sq.m.=6000 sq.m./2000 sq.m.= 3
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45.
Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is labeled as 'very high density'?
A.
2 and above
B.
3 and above
C.
4 and above
D.
5 and above
Correct Answer
D. 5 and above
Explanation A Floor Area Ratio (FAR) of 1.5 and below is considered low density. This means that the total floor area of a building is limited to 1.5 times the area of the lot it is built on. However, for a FAR to be labeled as "very high density," it would need to be significantly higher. The answer of 5 and above suggests that a building with a FAR of 5 or higher would be considered to have a very high density, indicating that it has a much larger floor area in relation to the lot it occupies.
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46.
This refers to a kind of ad-hoc or arbitrary zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from the district or zone regulations for reasons not found in the officially-approved CLUP.
A.
Flexible zoning
B.
Mixed use zoning
C.
Euclidean zoning
D.
Spot zoning
E.
Optional zoning
Correct Answer
D. Spot zoning
Explanation Spot zoning refers to a type of zoning that permits a small parcel of land to deviate from the established district or zone regulations. This deviation is allowed for reasons that are not outlined in the officially-approved Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP). Spot zoning is often considered ad-hoc or arbitrary because it allows for exceptions to the established zoning rules on a case-by-case basis.
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47.
A device usually given at the enactment of Zoning Ordinance which grants property owner relief from certain provisions of ordinance because the application of the same would result in a particular hardship to the owner.
A.
Exceptionality
B.
Certificate of Non-Conformance
C.
Quasi-judicial relief
D.
Variance
Correct Answer
D. Variance
Explanation A variance is a device that allows property owners to deviate from certain provisions of a zoning ordinance if strict application of those provisions would cause undue hardship. It grants relief to property owners when complying with the ordinance would result in a particular hardship. A variance is a form of quasi-judicial relief that acknowledges the exceptional circumstances of the property owner and allows them to use their property in a way that is different from what is typically allowed by the zoning regulations. A Certificate of Non-Conformance, on the other hand, is a different concept that acknowledges existing non-conforming uses or structures that were legal before the enactment of the zoning ordinance.
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48.
If there are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32 signatures needed to thoroughly develop a parcel of non-agricultural land, whose signature is needed for the issuance of a development permit?
A.
Planning Consultant
B.
Real Estate Broker
C.
Natural Scientist
D.
Head Local Planner
E.
Legislator-Sponsor
Correct Answer
D. Head Local Planner
Explanation The head local planner's signature is needed for the issuance of a development permit because they are responsible for overseeing and approving development projects within the local jurisdiction. As the highest-ranking planner in the area, their approval is necessary to ensure that the proposed development aligns with the local regulations and policies. The planning consultant, real estate broker, natural scientist, and legislator-sponsor may provide input or support the project, but the final decision lies with the head local planner.
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49.
What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in LDIP are budgeted and re:eased yearly?
A.
Special Allotment Release Order (SARO)
B.
Notice of Cash Availability (NCA)
C.
Annual Investment Plan
D.
PBBS
E.
Memorandum of Undertaking
F.
Program of Work and Expenditure Plan
Correct Answer
C. Annual Investment Plan
Explanation The Annual Investment Plan is the document that makes it possible for funds for priority projects listed in the Local Development Investment Program (LDIP) to be budgeted and released yearly. The Annual Investment Plan outlines the specific projects that will be funded, the amount of funding allocated to each project, and the timeline for implementation. It serves as a guide for budgeting and ensures that funds are allocated and released in a systematic and planned manner to support the implementation of priority projects.
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50.
Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal issuances. Under AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to
A.
15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent chartered cities
B.
20% of total arable land in any LGU
C.
10% of total cultivable land in any city
D.
25% of total alienable and disposable land
Correct Answer
A. 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent chartered cities
Explanation Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings set by various legal issuances. According to the given information, the Agriculture and Fisheries Modernization Act (AFMA) allows for the conversion of only 5% of the SAFDZ areas to other uses. Additionally, under the RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20, land conversion is further restricted. In highly urbanized and independent chartered cities, the conversion is limited to 15% of the agricultural land. This means that only a maximum of 15% of the agricultural land in these cities can be converted for other purposes, while the other options mentioned have different limitations that do not apply in this context.
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