HLTH 1309 PSW Allison Cronkwright
This quiz reviews all key concepts from HLTH 1309. This quiz was created by Allison Cronkwright, a current student of Niagara College. This is copyrighted, and not to be used without permission from Allison Cronkwright. 2010.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
What is metastasis?
- A.
The deterioration of lung walls due to carbon monoxide buildup
- B.
The spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body
- C.
The decrease of white blood cell levels in the body, causing the bodies immune system to ultimately shut down
- D.
Inflammation of the breast caused by cancerous cells
Correct Answer
B. The spread of cancer cells to other parts of the bodyExplanation
Metastasis refers to the spread of cancer cells from the original tumor to other parts of the body. This process occurs when cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and enter the bloodstream or lymphatic system, allowing them to travel to distant sites and form new tumors. Metastasis is a key characteristic of malignant tumors and is responsible for the majority of cancer-related deaths. It indicates an advanced stage of cancer and poses challenges for treatment and prognosis.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is thrombocytopenia?
- A.
Lack of white blood cells
- B.
Lack of red blood cells
- C.
Low blood platelets
- D.
Lack of oxygen in the blood
Correct Answer
C. Low blood plateletsExplanation
Thrombocytopenia refers to a condition characterized by a low platelet count in the blood. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, and a decrease in their numbers can lead to abnormal bleeding and difficulty in clotting. This condition is not related to the lack of white blood cells, red blood cells, or oxygen in the blood.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What describes: Scarring of the blood vessels in the retina due to diabetes?
- A.
Diabetic Retinopathy
- B.
Diabetic Cataracts
- C.
Presbyopia
- D.
Glaucoma
Correct Answer
A. Diabetic RetinopathyExplanation
Diabetic retinopathy is the correct answer because it refers to the scarring of the blood vessels in the retina caused by diabetes. This condition occurs when high levels of blood sugar damage the tiny blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision problems and potential blindness if left untreated. Diabetic cataracts, presbyopia, and glaucoma are not specifically related to scarring of the blood vessels in the retina due to diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is anaemia?
- A.
Low white blood cells
- B.
Low platelets
- C.
Lack of oxygen in the blood
- D.
Low red blood cells
Correct Answer
D. Low red blood cellsExplanation
Anaemia is a condition characterized by a low number of red blood cells in the blood. Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues, so a decrease in their count results in a lack of oxygen in the blood. This can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Low white blood cells and low platelets are not directly related to anaemia.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is leukopenia?
- A.
Low red blood cells
- B.
Low platelets
- C.
Low white blood cells
- D.
Lack of oxygen in the blood
Correct Answer
C. Low white blood cellsExplanation
Leukopenia refers to a condition characterized by a low count of white blood cells in the body. White blood cells play a crucial role in the immune system, defending the body against infections and diseases. Having a low count of white blood cells can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections and illnesses. Therefore, the correct answer is "Low white blood cells."Rate this question:
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- 6.
What does the acronym C A U T I O N stand for?CAUTION
Correct Answer
Change in Bowel of bladder habits A sore that does not heal Unusual Bleeding or Discharge Thickening or Lump Indigestion or dysphagia Obvious change in wart or mole Nagging Cough or HoarsenessExplanation
The acronym C A U T I O N stands for the following symptoms: Change in Bowel or bladder habits, A sore that does not heal, Unusual Bleeding or Discharge, Thickening or Lump, Indigestion or dysphagia, Obvious change in wart or mole, Nagging Cough or Hoarseness. These symptoms are often associated with potential signs of cancer and should be taken seriously for early detection and treatment.Rate this question:
- 7.
What is glaucoma?
- A.
Increased pressure in the middle ear causing vertigo
- B.
Film over the eye lens
- C.
Increased pressure in the eye leading to damage of the optic nerve
- D.
Hardening of the ossicles in the ear leading to hearing loss
Correct Answer
C. Increased pressure in the eye leading to damage of the optic nerveExplanation
Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure in the eye, which can lead to damage of the optic nerve. This increased pressure can occur due to a buildup of fluid in the eye, causing damage to the nerve fibers responsible for transmitting visual information to the brain. If left untreated, glaucoma can lead to permanent vision loss and blindness. Regular eye exams and early detection are crucial in managing and treating glaucoma.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Hardening of the ossicles leading to conductive hearing loss.
Correct Answer
OtosclerosisExplanation
Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear, specifically around the ossicles. This abnormal bone growth can result in the ossicles becoming fixed and unable to vibrate properly, leading to conductive hearing loss. The hardening of the ossicles in otosclerosis interferes with the transmission of sound waves from the outer to the inner ear, causing a decrease in hearing ability.Rate this question:
- 9.
An autoimmune disease that leads to sensorineural hearing loss and loss of balance.
Correct Answer
Meniere's DiseaseExplanation
Meniere's disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized by sensorineural hearing loss and loss of balance. This condition occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the inner ear, leading to inflammation and damage. The symptoms of Meniere's disease include episodes of vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness in the affected ear. The exact cause of Meniere's disease is unknown, but it is believed to be related to a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Treatment options for this condition include medications to manage symptoms, dietary changes, and in severe cases, surgery may be recommended.Rate this question:
- 10.
Resemble original tissue, don't invade other tissues, don't metastasize, and don't recur.
Correct Answer
Benign TumourExplanation
A benign tumor is a type of tumor that closely resembles the original tissue it originated from. It does not invade or spread to other tissues, a process known as metastasis, and does not recur after removal. This means that a benign tumor is non-cancerous and generally does not pose a significant health risk.Rate this question:
- 11.
Do not resemble original tissue, invade other tissues, metastasize, and lead to systemic problems.
Correct Answer
Malignant TumourExplanation
A malignant tumor is characterized by its ability to invade surrounding tissues, spread to other parts of the body (metastasize), and cause systemic problems. Unlike benign tumors, malignant tumors do not resemble the original tissue and exhibit aggressive and uncontrolled growth. These tumors can cause significant harm to the body and are considered cancerous.Rate this question:
- 12.
How should a sputum specimen be obtained?
- A.
Before Breakfast
- B.
After client has rinsed mouth out with water
- C.
When following standard precautions
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
A sputum specimen should be obtained before breakfast, after the client has rinsed their mouth out with water, and when following standard precautions. Obtaining the specimen before breakfast ensures that the sputum is not contaminated by food particles. Rinsing the mouth out with water helps to remove any remaining food particles or debris. Following standard precautions, such as wearing gloves and using a sterile container, ensures that the specimen is collected in a safe and hygienic manner. Therefore, all of the above options are correct for obtaining a sputum specimen.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What two symptoms must be present for a diagnosis of influenza?
Correct Answer
Cough and Fever
Fever and Cough
Cough Fever
Fever CoughExplanation
The two symptoms that must be present for a diagnosis of influenza are cough and fever. Both of these symptoms are commonly associated with the flu and are often used as criteria for diagnosing the illness. While the order in which the symptoms are listed may vary, the presence of both cough and fever is necessary for a diagnosis of influenza.Rate this question:
- 14.
The type of diet appropriate for a client with a cardiovascular disorder.
- A.
Low Fat
- B.
Low Cholesterol
- C.
Low Sodium
- D.
None of the Above
- E.
All of the Above
Correct Answer
E. All of the AboveExplanation
A client with a cardiovascular disorder should follow a diet that is low in fat, low in cholesterol, and low in sodium. A low-fat diet helps to reduce the intake of saturated and trans fats, which can contribute to high cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease. A low-cholesterol diet helps to limit the intake of dietary cholesterol, which can also contribute to high cholesterol levels. A low-sodium diet helps to reduce the intake of sodium, which can contribute to high blood pressure and strain on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, all of the above options are appropriate for a client with a cardiovascular disorder.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Persistent blood pressure with systolic > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic >90 mmHg
Correct Answer
HypertensionExplanation
The given correct answer is "Hypertension." Hypertension refers to persistent high blood pressure with a systolic reading above 140 mmHg and/or a diastolic reading above 90 mmHg. This condition can lead to various health problems, including heart disease, stroke, and kidney damage. Therefore, the answer accurately describes the condition of having elevated blood pressure.Rate this question:
- 16.
The term used for accumulation of cholesterol and fibrous tissue on the walls of arteries
Correct Answer
AtherosclerosisExplanation
Atherosclerosis refers to the accumulation of cholesterol and fibrous tissue on the walls of arteries. This condition occurs when plaque, made up of cholesterol, fat, calcium, and other substances, builds up in the arteries, causing them to narrow and harden. Over time, this can restrict blood flow and lead to various cardiovascular problems, such as heart attacks and strokes. Atherosclerosis is a common condition associated with aging and lifestyle factors like smoking, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol levels. Regular exercise, a healthy diet, and medication can help manage and prevent the progression of atherosclerosis.Rate this question:
- 17.
Heart rate <60 beats per minute
Correct Answer
BradycardiaExplanation
Bradycardia is a medical term used to describe a heart rate that is slower than normal, specifically when the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute. This condition can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, heart diseases, electrolyte imbalances, and underlying medical conditions. Bradycardia can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fatigue, shortness of breath, and fainting. Treatment options for bradycardia depend on the underlying cause and severity of symptoms, and may include medication, lifestyle changes, or medical procedures such as pacemaker implantation.Rate this question:
- 18.
Heart rate > 100 beats per minute
Correct Answer
TachycardiaExplanation
Tachycardia refers to a condition where the heart rate exceeds the normal range, which is typically around 60-100 beats per minute. In this case, the given information states that the heart rate is greater than 100 beats per minute, indicating tachycardia. Tachycardia can occur due to various reasons, such as physical activity, stress, certain medications, or underlying medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of tachycardia and seek appropriate medical intervention if necessary.Rate this question:
- 19.
On which side has heart failure occurred when blood backs up into the lungs
Correct Answer
Left
The left side
left sideExplanation
Heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's demands. When blood backs up into the lungs, it is a sign that the left side of the heart is failing. The left side of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs and pumps it out to the rest of the body. If the left side is not functioning properly, blood can accumulate in the lungs, causing symptoms such as shortness of breath and fluid retention. Therefore, the correct answer is "left."Rate this question:
- 20.
Why are anorexia, nausea, and vomiting common side effects of right-sided heart failure?
- A.
Liver and abdomen collapse
- B.
Liver and abdomen become engorged with water
- C.
Liver and abdomen become engorged with blood
- D.
Liver and abdomen suffer tears and breakage of the skin lining
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Liver and abdomen become engorged with bloodExplanation
In right-sided heart failure, the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation. This leads to a backup of blood in the venous system, including the liver and abdomen. As a result, there is increased pressure in the liver and abdomen, causing them to become engorged with blood. This can lead to symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, and vomiting due to the pressure on the digestive system.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The best time to obtain a sputum specimen.
Correct Answer
Before breakfastExplanation
Obtaining a sputum specimen before breakfast is considered the best time because the patient's airways are usually more congested in the morning due to accumulated mucus overnight. This congestion makes it easier for the patient to cough up sputum, which is necessary for a successful specimen collection. Additionally, obtaining the specimen before breakfast ensures that the patient has not eaten or drunk anything that could potentially contaminate the sample, providing a more accurate result for diagnostic purposes.Rate this question:
- 22.
What types of "exercises" can improve respiration?
- A.
Deep breathing, sitting in prone position, coughing
- B.
Coughing, deep breathing, ambulating
- C.
Coughing, deep breathing, incentive spirometry
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Coughing, deep breathing, incentive spirometryExplanation
Coughing, deep breathing, and incentive spirometry are all types of exercises that can improve respiration. Coughing helps to clear the airways and remove mucus, deep breathing helps to expand the lungs and increase oxygen intake, and incentive spirometry is a breathing exercise that helps to improve lung function and prevent complications such as pneumonia. Therefore, all of the above exercises can be beneficial for improving respiration.Rate this question:
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- 23.
This chronic obstructive pulmonary disease results in alveoli losing elasticity and not recoiling during expiration.
Correct Answer
EmphysemaExplanation
Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease that causes damage to the alveoli in the lungs. The alveoli, which are responsible for gas exchange, lose their elasticity and become stretched out. As a result, they are unable to recoil properly during expiration, leading to difficulty in exhaling air. This leads to a decrease in lung function and symptoms such as shortness of breath and wheezing. Emphysema is often caused by long-term exposure to irritants, such as cigarette smoke, and is commonly associated with chronic bronchitis.Rate this question:
- 24.
Why is it important for a client with a respiratory disorder to be well hydrated?
- A.
To avoid over exertion
- B.
To remove excess oxygen in lungs
- C.
To keep patient hydrated through exercising
- D.
To liquefy sputum
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. To liquefy sputumExplanation
It is important for a client with a respiratory disorder to be well hydrated in order to liquefy sputum. Adequate hydration helps to thin the mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up and clear from the lungs. This can help prevent the build-up of mucus and reduce the risk of respiratory complications such as infections or blockages.Rate this question:
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- 25.
This respiratory disorder presents itself with night sweats and chills
Correct Answer
TuberculosisExplanation
Tuberculosis is a respiratory disorder that is characterized by night sweats and chills. These symptoms often occur during the night and can be accompanied by other signs such as coughing, weight loss, and fatigue. Tuberculosis is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis and primarily affects the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body. It is a contagious disease that can be transmitted through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent the spread of tuberculosis and manage the symptoms.Rate this question:
- 26.
What type of diet is appropriate for a client with cardiovascular disease?
- A.
Low sodium, low-cholesterol, low-fat
- B.
Low sodium, low-cholesterol, low sugar
- C.
Low sodium, low sugar, low-fat
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Low sodium, low-cholesterol, low-fatExplanation
A client with cardiovascular disease should follow a low sodium, low-cholesterol, and low-fat diet. This is because excessive intake of sodium, cholesterol, and fat can contribute to the development and progression of cardiovascular disease. A low sodium diet helps to reduce blood pressure, while a low-cholesterol diet helps to lower levels of LDL (bad) cholesterol. Additionally, a low-fat diet helps to control weight and reduce the intake of unhealthy fats that can clog arteries and increase the risk of heart disease.Rate this question:
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- 27.
This term is defined as persistent blood pressure with systolic > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic >90 mmHg
Correct Answer
hypertensionExplanation
Hypertension refers to a medical condition characterized by persistently high blood pressure. It is defined as having a systolic blood pressure reading above 140 mmHg and/or a diastolic blood pressure reading above 90 mmHg. This condition can put strain on the heart and blood vessels, increasing the risk of serious health problems such as heart disease, stroke, and kidney disease. Therefore, the term "hypertension" accurately describes the given definition of persistent high blood pressure.Rate this question:
- 28.
This condition leads to coronary artery disease
- A.
COPD
- B.
Emphysema
- C.
Hypertension
- D.
Athersclerosis
Correct Answer
D. AthersclerosisExplanation
Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the build-up of plaque in the arteries, leading to a narrowing and hardening of the blood vessels. This condition can restrict blood flow to the heart, causing coronary artery disease. COPD and emphysema are respiratory conditions, while hypertension refers to high blood pressure. Therefore, atherosclerosis is the only option that directly relates to coronary artery disease.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The term for a heart rate that is <60 beats per minute
Correct Answer
BradycardiaExplanation
Bradycardia refers to a heart rate that is less than 60 beats per minute. This term is commonly used to describe a slower-than-normal heart rate, which can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, heart disease, or an underlying medical condition. It is important to note that bradycardia can sometimes be a normal occurrence, especially in athletes or individuals who are physically fit. However, in some cases, bradycardia may indicate an underlying health issue that requires medical attention.Rate this question:
- 30.
What is the term for a heart rate >100 beats per minute
Correct Answer
TachycardiaExplanation
Tachycardia is the medical term used to describe a heart rate that is greater than 100 beats per minute. It is a condition where the heart beats faster than normal, which can be caused by various factors such as stress, exercise, certain medications, or underlying medical conditions. Tachycardia can sometimes be a sign of an underlying health issue and may require medical attention if it persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.Rate this question:
- 31.
This type of heart failure results in blood backing up into the body
- A.
Left-sided heart failure
- B.
Right-sided heart failure
- C.
Right-ventricle heart failure
- D.
Left-ventricle heart failure
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Right-sided heart failureExplanation
Right-sided heart failure occurs when the right side of the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, causing blood to back up into the body. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the legs, ankles, and abdomen, as well as other symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Unlike left-sided heart failure, which causes blood to back up into the lungs, right-sided heart failure primarily affects the systemic circulation.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Name the three symptoms of left-sided heart failure
Correct Answer
dyspnea cough and frothy pink sputum
difficulty breathing, cough, pink sputumExplanation
The correct answer is dyspnea, cough, and frothy pink sputum. These symptoms are commonly seen in left-sided heart failure. Dyspnea refers to difficulty breathing, which occurs when fluid accumulates in the lungs. Coughing is also a common symptom, as the body tries to clear the excess fluid. Frothy pink sputum is a result of blood mixing with the fluid in the lungs, causing a pinkish color. These symptoms indicate a compromised left ventricle, leading to fluid backup in the lungs. Difficulty breathing, cough, and pink sputum are also symptoms of left-sided heart failure, but the specific mention of dyspnea, cough, and frothy pink sputum makes the first option more accurate.Rate this question:
- 33.
This sided heart failure occurred when blood backs up into the lungs
Correct Answer
left
left sidedExplanation
Left-sided heart failure occurs when the left side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the rest of the body. As a result, blood backs up into the lungs, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and fluid retention. This is why the correct answer is "left" and "left-sided," as it accurately describes the condition where blood backs up into the lungs due to the left side of the heart being affected.Rate this question:
- 34.
Why are anorexia, nausea, and vomiting common side effects of right-sided heart failure?
Correct Answer
Liver and abdomen become engorged with blood
live and abdomen fill with blood
Abdomen and liver become engorged with blood
abdomen and liver fill with bloodExplanation
In right-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation. This leads to a backup of blood in the venous circulation, causing increased pressure in the veins that drain into the right side of the heart. One of the consequences of this increased pressure is the leakage of fluid into the liver and abdomen, leading to engorgement. This engorgement can result in anorexia, nausea, and vomiting as the digestive system is affected by the excess fluid and pressure.Rate this question:
- 35.
Name one of the five warning signs of stroke
Correct Answer
sudden change in vision
sudden aphasia
numbness, tingling, weakness in leg arm and face
sudden, severe headache
sudden dizzinessExplanation
The correct answer includes five warning signs of a stroke: sudden change in vision, sudden aphasia, numbness, tingling, weakness in leg arm and face, sudden severe headache, and sudden dizziness. These symptoms can occur suddenly and may indicate a stroke is happening. It is important to recognize these signs and seek immediate medical attention as stroke is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment to minimize damage to the brain.Rate this question:
- 36.
Which neurological disorder is associated with decreased levels of dopamine
Correct Answer
Parkinson'sExplanation
Parkinson's disease is a neurological disorder that is associated with decreased levels of dopamine. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in regulating movement and emotions. In Parkinson's disease, there is a progressive loss of dopamine-producing cells in a specific region of the brain called the substantia nigra. This leads to a decrease in dopamine levels, which in turn causes the characteristic symptoms of the disease, including tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), and postural instability.Rate this question:
- 37.
Which neurological disorder is associated with myelin-sheath deterioration?
- A.
MS (multiple sclerosis)
- B.
CVA (stroke)
- C.
Parkinson's
- D.
SCI (spinal cord injury)
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. MS (multiple sclerosis)Explanation
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder characterized by the deterioration of the myelin sheath, the protective covering of nerve fibers in the central nervous system. This deterioration disrupts the normal flow of electrical impulses along the nerves, leading to a wide range of symptoms such as muscle weakness, coordination problems, and cognitive impairment. MS is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the myelin, causing inflammation and damage. Therefore, MS is the correct answer for the question.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Is multiple sclerosis more common in...
- A.
Men
- B.
Women
- C.
Undetermined
Correct Answer
B. WomenExplanation
Multiple sclerosis is more common in women. This is believed to be due to a combination of genetic and hormonal factors. Women have a higher risk of developing multiple sclerosis compared to men, with the ratio estimated to be around 3:1. Hormonal changes during pregnancy and menopause have been suggested as potential factors influencing the development and progression of the disease. However, the exact reasons for the gender disparity in multiple sclerosis prevalence are still not fully understood.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What is the term for a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain resulting in neurologic deficit lasting less than 24 hours?
Correct Answer
Transient Ischemic Attack
TIAExplanation
A transient ischemic attack (TIA), also known as a mini-stroke, is a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain that causes neurologic deficits lasting less than 24 hours. It is often caused by a blood clot or plaque buildup in the arteries leading to the brain. TIAs are warning signs of a potential stroke and should be taken seriously as they indicate an increased risk for a full-blown stroke in the future. Prompt medical attention and management of risk factors can help prevent a stroke from occurring.Rate this question:
- 40.
Mask like facial expression and shuffling gate are two classic signs of which disorder?
- A.
Multiple Sclerosis
- B.
Spinal Cord Injury
- C.
Paraplegia
- D.
Cerebrovascular Accident (stroke)
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
E. None of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is none of the above. Mask-like facial expression and shuffling gait are classic signs of Parkinson's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and coordination.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The other name for Cerebrovascular accident
Correct Answer
Stroke
CVAExplanation
The correct answer for the question is Stroke, CVA. A cerebrovascular accident refers to a sudden disruption of blood supply to the brain, leading to brain cell damage or death. This condition is commonly known as a stroke. Another term used to describe a stroke is CVA, which stands for cerebrovascular accident. Both terms are interchangeable and refer to the same medical condition.Rate this question:
- 42.
This term defines paralysis on one side of the body
Correct Answer
HemiplegiaExplanation
Hemiplegia is a term that refers to paralysis on one side of the body. It is a condition that can be caused by various factors, such as stroke, brain injury, or spinal cord injury. The paralysis typically affects the arm, leg, and sometimes the face on one side of the body. This condition can result in difficulty with movement, coordination, and balance on the affected side. Treatment for hemiplegia may involve physical therapy, occupational therapy, and medications to manage symptoms and improve quality of life.Rate this question:
- 43.
Can hemiplegia result from ABI
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- C.
Depends on gender of client
Correct Answer
A. YesExplanation
Hemiplegia can result from Acquired Brain Injury (ABI). ABI refers to any damage to the brain that occurs after birth and can be caused by various factors such as trauma, stroke, or infection. Hemiplegia is a condition characterized by paralysis or weakness on one side of the body, and it can be a common consequence of ABI. The damage to the brain can disrupt the signals that control movement and coordination, leading to hemiplegia. Therefore, it is possible for hemiplegia to result from ABI.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Can hemiplegia result from SCI (spinal cord injury)
- A.
Yes
- B.
No
- C.
Depends on gender of client
Correct Answer
B. NoExplanation
Hemiplegia is a condition characterized by paralysis of one side of the body. It is typically caused by damage to the brain, specifically the motor cortex. SCI, on the other hand, refers to an injury to the spinal cord. While SCI can lead to various forms of paralysis, including paraplegia and quadriplegia, it does not directly cause hemiplegia. Hemiplegia is usually associated with conditions such as stroke or cerebral palsy, which affect the brain rather than the spinal cord. Therefore, the answer is no, hemiplegia cannot result from SCI.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How can a PSW assist the client with respiration?
- A.
Fowler's positioning with upper body bent forward slightly
- B.
Coughing and deep-breathing exercises
- C.
Avoiding exposure to irritants, triggers, and respiratory-tract infections
- D.
None of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
A PSW can assist the client with respiration by implementing all of the above measures. Fowler's positioning with the upper body bent forward slightly helps to improve lung expansion and oxygenation. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises can help to clear the airways and improve respiratory function. Avoiding exposure to irritants, triggers, and respiratory-tract infections can prevent exacerbations of respiratory conditions. By implementing all of these measures, the PSW can effectively assist the client with their respiration.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Where does osteoarthritis occur?
Correct Answer
weight-bearing joints
frequently used jointsExplanation
Osteoarthritis occurs in weight-bearing joints and frequently used joints. Weight-bearing joints are the ones that support the body's weight, such as the knees, hips, and spine. These joints are more prone to wear and tear due to the constant pressure placed on them. Frequently used joints refer to the joints that are involved in repetitive movements, such as the hands, fingers, and wrists. These joints can also be affected by osteoarthritis due to the repetitive stress they endure.Rate this question:
- 47.
Why is stress management important for a person with rheumatoid arthritis?
- A.
Stress bums them out
- B.
Stress can lead to heart attack
- C.
Stress triggers symptoms
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Stress triggers symptomsExplanation
Stress triggers symptoms in a person with rheumatoid arthritis. This is because stress can worsen inflammation and pain, leading to increased joint stiffness and fatigue. Managing stress is important for individuals with rheumatoid arthritis to reduce the impact of symptoms on their daily life and overall well-being.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which interventions decrease bone deterioration from osteoporosis?
- A.
Estrogen therapy
- B.
Weight-bearing exercises
- C.
Calcium and vitamin d supplements
- D.
None of the above
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the interventions listed in the options can help decrease bone deterioration from osteoporosis. Estrogen therapy can help maintain bone density, weight-bearing exercises can strengthen bones, and calcium and vitamin D supplements can support bone health. Therefore, all of these interventions can be effective in reducing bone deterioration caused by osteoporosis.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Tissue death resulting from lack of circulation due to, frost bite, infection, burns, injuries, or circulatory disorders.
Correct Answer
GangreneExplanation
Gangrene is the term used to describe tissue death that occurs when there is a lack of circulation. This can be caused by various factors such as frostbite, infection, burns, injuries, or circulatory disorders. When blood flow is restricted, the affected tissue does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to its death. Gangrene typically presents with symptoms such as discoloration, swelling, and a foul odor. If left untreated, it can spread and become life-threatening.Rate this question:
- 50.
What restrictions are important when caring for a client with a hip fracture?
- A.
Affected leg abducted
- B.
Prevent external rotation
- C.
Follow flexion restrictions
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
When caring for a client with a hip fracture, it is important to follow certain restrictions. The affected leg should be abducted, meaning it should be kept apart from the body. This helps to prevent further injury and promotes proper healing. Additionally, external rotation should be prevented, as this can put strain on the hip joint. Lastly, flexion restrictions should be followed, which means avoiding excessive bending of the hip joint. All of these restrictions are important to ensure the client's safety and aid in their recovery.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 19, 2010Quiz Created by
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