IAHCSMM 8th Edition Progress Test 2

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  • 1/54 Questions

    If the Flash sterilization load consists of a single instrument comprised of metal and without lumens, a ___________ cycle at 270deg F (132deg C) should be used.

    • 3 min
    • 4 min
    • 5 min
    • 10 min
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IAHCSMM 8th Edition Progress Test 2 - Quiz
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IAHCSMM Central Service Technician Course

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  • 2. 

    Unlike gravity flash cycles, pre-vacuum flash cycles are standard sterilization cycles with a limited drying time.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Pre-vacuum flash cycles are indeed standard sterilization cycles with a limited drying time. Unlike gravity flash cycles, which rely on gravity to remove air and steam from the sterilization chamber, pre-vacuum flash cycles use a vacuum pump to actively remove air and steam. This allows for faster and more efficient sterilization. The limited drying time is necessary to prevent damage to the sterilized items and to ensure their safety for use. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 3. 

    Pre-set pre-vacuum flash cycle drying time helps decrease steam in the chamber and does dry the instruments.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that the pre-set pre-vacuum flash cycle drying time helps decrease steam in the chamber and does dry the instruments. However, the correct answer is false. This means that the pre-set pre-vacuum flash cycle drying time does not actually help decrease steam in the chamber or dry the instruments.

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  • 4. 

    Non-porous and porous items within wraps, pouches, or containers can be sterilized in pre-vacuum cycles if the appropiate times and temperatures are used for each.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because in pre-vacuum cycles, both non-porous and porous items can be sterilized as long as the appropriate times and temperatures are used for each. This means that items such as wraps, pouches, or containers can effectively sterilize both types of items, ensuring that they are free from any microorganisms or contaminants.

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  • 5. 

    The Express cycle is preset by the manufacturer for __________ minutes at 270deg F with _________ minutes of trying time and a total cycle of __________ minutes.

    • 3, 4 and 10

    • 4, 3 and 12

    • 8, 5 and 10

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 4, 3 and 12
    Explanation
    The Express cycle is preset by the manufacturer for 4 minutes at 270deg F with 3 minutes of trying time and a total cycle of 12 minutes.

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  • 6. 

    The Express cycle is a just-in-time process and has a shelf life.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that the Express cycle is a just-in-time process and has a shelf life. However, the correct answer is False. This means that the Express cycle is not a just-in-time process and does not have a shelf life.

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  • 7. 

    Up to _______ percent of the micro-organisms on an instrument can be removed with thorough cleaning.

    • 95

    • 97

    • 99

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 99
    Explanation
    Thorough cleaning can remove up to 99% of the micro-organisms on an instrument. This indicates that thorough cleaning is highly effective in eliminating a significant majority of the micro-organisms present, reducing the risk of contamination and infection.

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  • 8. 

    There is no national recommendation for how long Central Sterile Dept needs to maintain cycle records.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because there is no specific national recommendation or requirement for how long the Central Sterile Department needs to maintain cycle records. The length of time for maintaining these records may vary depending on local regulations, hospital policies, and other factors. Therefore, it is up to the individual department or facility to determine the appropriate duration for retaining cycle records.

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  • 9. 

    They style of sterilizer use a repeated sequence of steam flush and pressure pulse to remove air form the sterilizer chamber to process materials.

    • Gravity Air

    • Dynamic Air

    • SFPP

    • Flash

    Correct Answer
    A. SFPP
    Explanation
    SFPP stands for Steam Flush Pressure Pulse, which is a style of sterilizer that uses a repeated sequence of steam flush and pressure pulse to remove air from the sterilizer chamber. This process helps to ensure that the materials being sterilized are properly treated and free from any contaminants. Gravity Air and Dynamic Air are not specific sterilization methods, while Flash is not mentioned in the given explanation.

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  • 10. 

    The process of sterilizing an items that is packaged is known as Flash Sterilization

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Flash sterilization is not the process of sterilizing a packaged item. Flash sterilization is a method used to sterilize unwrapped or unpackaged instruments, where the sterilization process is accelerated to a shorter duration. It is typically used in emergency situations when immediate use of the sterilized instruments is necessary. Packaging is an essential part of the sterilization process to maintain the sterility of the item until it is ready for use. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 11. 

    The process of sterilizing an item that is not packaged is known as Terminal Sterilization.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The process of sterilizing an item that is not packaged is not known as Terminal Sterilization. Terminal Sterilization refers to the process of sterilizing items that are packaged and sealed, typically in a healthcare or laboratory setting. Sterilizing an item that is not packaged may involve other methods such as disinfection or autoclaving, but it would not be referred to as Terminal Sterilization.

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  • 12. 

    To unload a sterilizer, crack the door, and wait __________ minutes (if a vacuum unit) or _____________  minutes (if a gravity sterilizer) to assure proper evaporation and drying.

    • 8 and 15 to 20

    • 15 and 8 to 15

    • 10 and 10 to 20

    • 10 and 25 to 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 and 25 to 30
    Explanation
    To unload a sterilizer, the door should be cracked open. For a vacuum unit, it is recommended to wait 10 minutes to ensure proper evaporation and drying. However, for a gravity sterilizer, it is advised to wait 25 to 30 minutes for the same purpose. Therefore, the correct answer is 10 and 25 to 30.

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  • 13. 

    The most widely used temperature for dry heat sterilization is a minimum of 320deg F for preferably, two hours.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because dry heat sterilization is commonly performed at a temperature of at least 320 degrees Fahrenheit for a duration of two hours. This high temperature is necessary to kill microorganisms and ensure the sterilization process is effective. Dry heat sterilization is often used for items that cannot be sterilized using other methods, such as heat-sensitive materials.

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  • 14. 

    Some chemical indicators are often the first performance test the user sees upon opening a sterile package.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Chemical indicators are used to determine whether the sterilization process has been effective. They are often placed inside sterile packages and change color when exposed to certain conditions, such as heat or steam. By including chemical indicators in the packaging, users can quickly and easily verify if the package has been properly sterilized before using the contents. Therefore, it is true that chemical indicators are often the first performance test the user sees upon opening a sterile package.

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  • 15. 

    The amount of time required to kill 90% of the microorganisms present is known as:

    • Terminalization

    • Sterility

    • D-Values

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. D-Values
  • 16. 

    There are two types of sterile solutions:____________ and external solutions.

    • Internal

    • Parenteral

    • Compound

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Parenteral
    Explanation
    Parenteral solutions are a type of sterile solution that are administered directly into the body, bypassing the digestive system. These solutions are typically given through injections, intravenous infusions, or other methods that allow for direct delivery into the bloodstream. In contrast, external solutions refer to sterile solutions that are used externally, such as for wound irrigation or cleaning. Therefore, the correct answer is parenteral, as it accurately identifies one of the two types of sterile solutions mentioned in the question.

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  • 17. 

    USP-NF states packaging requirements for purified water.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The USP-NF (United States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary) does indeed provide guidelines and requirements for packaging purified water. These guidelines ensure that the packaging materials used do not contaminate the water and maintain its purity. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 18. 

    Quality Assurance for EtO has process monitors that consists of the "4 R's": Run, Read, Record and ___________.

    • Re-act

    • Resolve

    • Retain

    • Revert

    Correct Answer
    A. Retain
    Explanation
    The process monitors for Quality Assurance in EtO include the "4 R's": Run, Read, Record, and Retain. Retaining refers to the practice of keeping records or documentation of the process for future reference or analysis. This helps ensure traceability and accountability in the quality assurance process.

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  • 19. 

    EtO inactivates microbes by a process called__________, which seek out specific proteins in microbes to which to react.

    • Alkylation

    • Oxidation

    • Treboridation

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Alkylation
    Explanation
    EtO inactivates microbes by a process called alkylation, which involves the transfer of an alkyl group from EtO to specific proteins in microbes. This reaction disrupts the structure and function of these proteins, ultimately leading to the inactivation of the microbes.

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  • 20. 

    The amount of Eto that remains inside materials after sterilization is called the residual.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is stating that the amount of Eto (ethylene oxide) that remains inside materials after sterilization is referred to as the residual. This implies that the statement is true.

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  • 21. 

    Mixed EtO systems operates under a vacuum, while 100% EtO systems operate under pressure.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Mixed EtO systems do not operate under a vacuum, but rather under pressure. This is because EtO (ethylene oxide) is a highly flammable and explosive gas, and operating under pressure helps to contain and control the gas. In contrast, operating under a vacuum would create a lower pressure environment, which could potentially cause the gas to expand rapidly and become more dangerous. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 22. 

    EtO Personnel Monitoring records must be kept for 30 years after an employee has completed the last EtO-related task.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    EtO (Ethylene Oxide) is a hazardous substance commonly used in sterilization processes in healthcare facilities. To ensure the safety of employees who handle EtO, it is necessary to monitor their exposure to this chemical. The statement states that EtO Personnel Monitoring records should be kept for 30 years after an employee has finished their last EtO-related task. This is important because it allows for long-term tracking and analysis of an employee's exposure history, which can be useful for identifying potential health risks and ensuring compliance with safety regulations. Therefore, the answer "True" is correct.

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  • 23. 

    Hydrogen peroxide does not have the same inherent penetration capabilities as EtO, nor is it nearly as soluble in most materials.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hydrogen peroxide is not as effective as ethylene oxide (EtO) in terms of penetration capabilities and solubility in most materials. This suggests that the statement is true.

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  • 24. 

    Ozone is generated within the equipment so there is no need to handle sterilant containers for Ozone Sterilizers.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ozone is a gas that is generated within the equipment itself, meaning that there is no need to handle sterilant containers when using Ozone Sterilizers. This is because the equipment has the capability to produce ozone, which is used for sterilization purposes. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not an ergonomic stressor?

    • Vibration

    • Repetition

    • Awkward positions

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None of the above." This means that all of the options listed - vibration, repetition, and awkward positions - are ergonomic stressors. Ergonomic stressors refer to factors in the workplace that can cause physical strain or discomfort, often leading to musculoskeletal disorders. Vibration, repetition, and awkward positions are all examples of common ergonomic stressors that can negatively impact a person's health and well-being in the long run.

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  • 26. 

    _________ involves methods used to assess the risks of a specific activity, and to develop a program to reduce losses from exposure to them.

    • Risk Management

    • Ergonomics

    • Central Supply

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk Management
    Explanation
    Risk management involves methods used to assess the risks of a specific activity and to develop a program to reduce losses from exposure to them. It is a systematic process that includes identifying, analyzing, and evaluating potential risks, as well as implementing strategies to mitigate or control those risks. This helps organizations to make informed decisions and take necessary actions to minimize the impact of risks on their operations and objectives. Ergonomics and central supply are not directly related to assessing and reducing risks, so they are not the correct answers.

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  • 27. 

    Fire extinguishers appropriate to the hazards that is present. If the fire involved flammable liquid which type of extinguisher would you use?

    • A

    • B

    • C

    • D

    Correct Answer
    A. B
    Explanation
    The appropriate type of fire extinguisher to use when the fire involves flammable liquid is type B. Flammable liquids include gasoline, oil, and alcohol, and they require a fire extinguisher that can effectively extinguish fires caused by these substances. Type B fire extinguishers are specifically designed to handle flammable liquid fires and use extinguishing agents such as foam or dry chemical powder to smother the flames and prevent reignition.

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  • 28. 

    MSDS contains important information about hazardous materials that employee must know to work safely with any given material.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet) provides crucial information about the potential hazards of a material, such as its chemical composition, physical properties, and safe handling procedures. This information is essential for employees to understand and follow in order to ensure their safety while working with hazardous materials.

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  • 29. 

    A molecular reaction that creates an uncontrolled release of energy is known as:

    • Polymerization

    • Molecular Fission

    • Molecular Fusion

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Polymerization
    Explanation
    Polymerization is the correct answer because it refers to a molecular reaction in which smaller molecules, called monomers, combine to form a larger molecule, known as a polymer. This reaction typically releases energy in a controlled manner. In contrast, molecular fission and molecular fusion do not involve the creation of polymers and are not associated with uncontrolled energy release. Therefore, they are not the correct answers.

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  • 30. 

    A disease, one that occurs more or less continuously throughout a community is known as:

    • Epidemic

    • Endemic

    • Transdemic

    • None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Endemic
    Explanation
    An endemic disease refers to a disease that is constantly present and prevalent within a specific population or geographic area. Unlike an epidemic, which is characterized by a sudden increase in the number of cases, an endemic disease maintains a relatively stable and predictable level of occurrence. Therefore, the correct answer is "Endemic" as it accurately describes a disease that occurs continuously within a community.

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  • 31. 

    Specialized words or phrases known only by persons working in a position is known as Jargon.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Jargon refers to specialized words or phrases that are commonly used within a particular profession or field. These terms are often understood only by those working in that specific position or industry. Therefore, the statement that specialized words or phrases known only by persons working in a position is known as Jargon is true.

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  • 32. 

    The Department of Veteran's Affairs has its own certification programs and does not follow AAMI guidelines.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Department of Veteran's Affairs has its own certification programs, which means that they do not adhere to the guidelines set by AAMI (Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation). Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 33. 

    Two basic types of dry heat sterilizers are used in dental offices, which are oven type and ____________.

    • Rapid Heat transfer

    • Superheated Heat

    • Thermal Nucleur

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Rapid Heat transfer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Rapid Heat transfer." In dental offices, two basic types of dry heat sterilizers are used: oven type and rapid heat transfer. The rapid heat transfer sterilizers are designed to quickly and efficiently transfer heat to the instruments, ensuring effective sterilization. This type of sterilizer is commonly used in dental offices to sterilize instruments and equipment.

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  • 34. 

    Accreditation is a mandatory process by which an organization measures the quality of its services and performance against nationally recognized standards.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Accreditation is not a mandatory process; it is a voluntary process undertaken by organizations to assess and demonstrate the quality of their services and performance against nationally recognized standards.

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  • 35. 

    Insulin is a hormone that increases the level of sugar in the blood.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Insulin is a hormone that decreases the level of sugar in the blood. It is produced by the pancreas and helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. Therefore, the statement that insulin increases the level of sugar in the blood is false.

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  • 36. 

    Glucagon is a hormone that decreases the blood sugar level.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Glucagon is a hormone that increases the blood sugar level. It is released by the pancreas when blood sugar levels are low, and it acts to stimulate the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. Therefore, the statement that glucagon decreases the blood sugar level is incorrect.

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  • 37. 

    Bacteria that grows best in the cold is known as:

    • Thermophiles

    • Mesophiles

    • Psychrophiles

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychrophiles
    Explanation
    Psychrophiles are bacteria that thrive in cold temperatures. They have adapted to survive and reproduce in environments such as glaciers, polar regions, and deep ocean waters. These bacteria have specific enzymes and proteins that allow them to function optimally in cold conditions. Thermophiles, on the other hand, prefer high temperatures, while mesophiles have an optimum temperature range similar to that of humans. Therefore, the correct answer is psychrophiles, as they are specifically adapted to grow in cold environments.

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  • 38. 

    Chemicals that hold hard water minerals in solution, and prevent soaps or detergents from reacting with the minerals is known as:

    • Chelating agents

    • Sequesting agents

    • Wetting agents

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Chelating agents
    Explanation
    Chelating agents are chemicals that have the ability to bind with and hold onto hard water minerals, such as calcium and magnesium, in a solution. By doing so, they prevent these minerals from reacting with soaps or detergents, which allows them to function effectively. Sequestering agents also serve a similar purpose, but wetting agents are substances that reduce the surface tension of liquids, making them spread more easily. Therefore, the correct answer is chelating agents.

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  • 39. 

    Chemicals that remove or inactivate hard water minerals are known as:

    • Chelating agents

    • Sequesting agents

    • Wetting agents

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Sequesting agents
    Explanation
    Sequestering agents are chemicals that are used to remove or inactivate hard water minerals. They work by binding to the minerals and preventing them from causing issues such as scale buildup or interfering with the effectiveness of cleaning agents. Chelating agents, on the other hand, are specifically designed to bind with metal ions, while wetting agents are used to reduce the surface tension of water and improve its ability to spread and penetrate surfaces. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is sequestering agents.

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  • 40. 

    One can clean without sterilizing, but one cannot sterilize without cleaning.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement is true because cleaning refers to the removal of dirt, dust, and debris from a surface, while sterilizing refers to the process of killing or eliminating all forms of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Cleaning is a necessary step before sterilizing because if a surface is not clean, the sterilization process may not be effective. However, it is possible to clean a surface without sterilizing it, as cleaning alone can help remove visible dirt and maintain hygiene.

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  • 41. 

    One can clean without disinfecting, but one cannot disinfect without cleaning.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cleaning refers to removing dirt, dust, and debris from a surface, while disinfecting refers to killing or inactivating germs and bacteria on that surface. It is possible to clean a surface without disinfecting it, as cleaning alone can make it visually clean. However, disinfecting without cleaning is not effective because the presence of dirt and debris can reduce the effectiveness of the disinfectant. Therefore, the statement "One can clean without disinfecting, but one cannot disinfect without cleaning" is true.

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  • 42. 

    A chemical process applied during instrument manufacture that provides a corrosion-resistant finish by forming a thin transparent oxide film is known as:

    • Pastuerization

    • Passivation

    • Polymorphisate

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Passivation
    Explanation
    Passivation is a chemical process used in instrument manufacture to create a corrosion-resistant finish by forming a thin transparent oxide film. This film acts as a protective barrier against corrosion, preventing the instrument from being damaged by exposure to moisture or other corrosive substances. It helps to extend the lifespan of the instrument and maintain its functionality. Pastuerization is a process used to kill bacteria in food by heating it to a specific temperature, while Polymorphisate is not a recognized term in relation to instrument manufacture. Therefore, the correct answer is Passivation.

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  • 43. 

    To test the sharpness of chisels and osteotomes, a CS tech would use_______________.

    • Sharpening Stone

    • Plastic dowel rod

    • Steel rod

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Plastic dowel rod
    Explanation
    A CS tech would use a plastic dowel rod to test the sharpness of chisels and osteotomes. A plastic dowel rod is a tool that can be used to check the sharpness of the cutting edges of surgical instruments. By running the edge of the chisel or osteotome along the plastic dowel rod, the tech can determine if the instrument is sharp enough for use. This method allows the tech to ensure that the instruments are in proper working condition and can effectively perform their intended tasks.

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  • 44. 

    The U.S. Food and Drug Administration is responsible for 

    • Maintaining all manufacturer records

    • Ensuring items can be properly cleaned and sterilzed

    • Monitoring the high-level disinfection process

    • Ensuring food, drugs and cosmetics are safe for use

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensuring food, drugs and cosmetics are safe for use
    Explanation
    The U.S. Food and Drug Administration is responsible for ensuring food, drugs, and cosmetics are safe for use. This means that the FDA has the authority to regulate and oversee the production, distribution, and sale of these products to ensure they meet safety standards and do not pose any health risks to consumers. The FDA conducts inspections, reviews data and research, and sets regulations to ensure the safety and effectiveness of food, drugs, and cosmetics in the market.

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  • 45. 

    Sterilization______________ indicators help to confirm that package have been properly exposed to the sterilization process, and can be the first sign of a process error.

    • Process

    • Chemical

    • Guaze strips

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Process
    Explanation
    Sterilization process indicators are used to confirm that a package has undergone the sterilization process correctly. They serve as the initial indication of any errors that may have occurred during the process. These indicators are essential in ensuring the effectiveness of sterilization and maintaining the safety of the package contents.

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  • 46. 

    The basics of aseptic technique is 

    • Knowing the chain of infection

    • Activities that prevent infection

    • Following the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Activities that prevent infection
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "activities that prevent infection". This is because aseptic technique refers to a set of practices and procedures that are used to prevent the contamination of sterile areas or objects. These activities include measures such as hand hygiene, wearing personal protective equipment, using sterile equipment, and maintaining a clean and sterile environment. By following these activities, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms and prevent infections in both patients and themselves.

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  • 47. 

    The decontamination area of the Central Service department should have

    • Negative air flow

    • Positive air flow

    • Filtered air flow

    • No air exchanges because it is a biohazard area

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative air flow
    Explanation
    The decontamination area of the Central Service department should have negative air flow to prevent the spread of contaminants. Negative air flow means that the air pressure in the area is lower than the surrounding areas, which ensures that any airborne contaminants are drawn into the decontamination area and not released into other parts of the facility. This is crucial in a biohazard area to maintain a safe and controlled environment for handling potentially infectious materials.

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  • 48. 

    Decontamination of instruments and equipment starts

    • During the manual cleaning process

    • As soon as the instruments are received in the decontamination area

    • At point of use

    • When the instruments are placed back in their trays at the point of use

    Correct Answer
    A. At point of use
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "at point of use." This means that decontamination of instruments and equipment starts immediately when the instruments are placed back in their trays at the point of use. This ensures that the instruments are clean and ready for the next use, preventing the spread of infections or contaminants.

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  • 49. 

    The decontamination area should have

    • Negative air flow in relation to the other areas of the department

    • Positive air flow in relation to the other areas of the department

    • 15 air exchanges per hour

    • Positive air flow with 15 exchanges per hour

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative air flow in relation to the other areas of the department
    Explanation
    The decontamination area should have negative air flow in relation to the other areas of the department. This means that the air pressure in the decontamination area should be lower than in the surrounding areas. This is important because it helps to prevent the spread of contaminants from the decontamination area to other areas of the department. By maintaining negative air flow, any airborne particles or contaminants in the decontamination area will be drawn into the area and not allowed to escape into other areas.

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 13, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 12, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Celestewharton

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