IBM 000-970 Operations Quiz

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IBM 000-970 Operations Quiz - Quiz

The IBM exams are just around the corner and the butterflies in your tummy are a signal of exam fever. The quiz below is designed to help you ace the exams as it covers every topic you have studied so far. Give it a try and see how ready you are.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    By default, how is the initial library list established for a submitted job?

    • A.

      From the QINLLIBL system value

    • B.

      From the Subsystem to which the job was submitted

    • C.

      From the library list of the job issuing the SBMJOB

    • D.

      From the job description parameter in the SBMJOB command

    Correct Answer
    C. From the library list of the job issuing the SBMJOB
    Explanation
    The initial library list for a submitted job is established from the library list of the job issuing the SBMJOB command. This means that the libraries specified in the library list of the job that submits the SBMJOB command will be used as the initial library list for the submitted job.

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  • 2. 

    The operator is attempting to vary on a dial-up communications line. The vary-on of the line failed. Which of the following describes why the vary-on failed?

    • A.

      The modem is turned off.

    • B.

      The controller is in failed status.

    • C.

      The telco line cord is disconnected.

    • D.

      Another line using the resource name is already varied on.

    Correct Answer
    D. Another line using the resource name is already varied on.
    Explanation
    The reason why the vary-on of the line failed is that another line using the resource name is already varied on. This means that the resource name is already being used by another line, causing a conflict and preventing the vary-on process from being successful.

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  • 3. 

    All the i5's in the computer room get their power from the UPS. After a recent power failure, the operator noticed that there was no message in the QSYSOPR message queue about the power failure. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

    • A.

      The i5 has the system value QMAXUPSDLY set to *NOMAX

    • B.

      The signal cable between the UPS and the i5 is not connected.

    • C.

      The i5 was running an uninterruptible instruction set during the power failure.

    • D.

      All Critical Console messages over severity 50 are being diverted to QSECOFR message queue.

    Correct Answer
    B. The signal cable between the UPS and the i5 is not connected.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause for there being no message in the QSYSOPR message queue about the power failure is that the signal cable between the UPS and the i5 is not connected. Without a proper connection, the i5 would not receive any notifications or messages from the UPS regarding the power failure.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following IFS designations is used to identify the i5/OS library/File/Member structure?

    • A.

      QDLS

    • B.

      Root

    • C.

      QSYS.LIB

    • D.

      QFileSvr.400

    Correct Answer
    C. QSYS.LIB
    Explanation
    QSYS.LIB is the correct answer because it is the IFS designation used to identify the i5/OS library/File/Member structure. The QSYS.LIB designation is used to access libraries, files, and members in the i5/OS operating system. It is a hierarchical structure that allows users to organize and manage their data efficiently. Other options such as QDLS, Root, and QFileSvr.400 are not specifically used for this purpose.

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  • 5. 

    What is the default run priority for interactive jobs in the QINTER subsystem?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      50

    • D.

      70

    Correct Answer
    B. 20
    Explanation
    The default run priority for interactive jobs in the QINTER subsystem is 20. This means that interactive jobs will have a higher priority compared to batch jobs, allowing them to be processed more quickly. A lower priority number indicates a higher priority level.

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  • 6. 

    An operator has been asked to make all appropriate PTFs in a group PTF package active after the next system IPL. Which of the following commands will perform the request?

    • A.

      LODPTF

    • B.

      WRKPTF

    • C.

      INSPTF

    • D.

      ACTPTF

    Correct Answer
    C. INSPTF
    Explanation
    The correct answer is INSPTF. The INSPTF command is used to install a PTF (Program Temporary Fix) into the system. By running this command, the operator can make all appropriate PTFs in a group PTF package active after the next system IPL (Initial Program Load). This means that the PTFs will be installed and activated when the system is restarted.

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  • 7. 

    An operator needs a job to process from the job queue ahead of other jobs in the queue. Which of the following parameters will accomplish this goal?

    • A.

      JOBORD

    • B.

      JOBPTY

    • C.

      RUNPTY

    • D.

      OUTPTY

    Correct Answer
    B. JOBPTY
    Explanation
    The parameter that will accomplish the goal of having a job processed ahead of other jobs in the queue is JOBPTY. JOBPTY stands for Job Priority, which determines the priority level of a job. By assigning a higher priority to a job using the JOBPTY parameter, the operator can ensure that the job is processed before other jobs in the queue with lower priority levels.

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  • 8. 

    An i5 system with multiple i5/OS partitions has a single tape library shared between the partitions. Which of the following correctly describes how to determine where the tape library is assigned?

    • A.

      Access Management Central on the service partition to view a list of allocated media devices by partition.

    • B.

      From the partition that needs the tape, run command: VRYCFG CFGOBJ(TAPMLB01) CFGTYPE(*DEV) STATUS(*ALLOCATE)

    • C.

      On the HMC, display the properties of the managed system. Click on the I/O tab to see where the tape IOA is assigned.

    • D.

      Sign on to each partition; use SST to access Hardware Service Manager; select the option to display allocated media devices.

    Correct Answer
    C. On the HMC, display the properties of the managed system. Click on the I/O tab to see where the tape IOA is assigned.
    Explanation
    To determine where the tape library is assigned in an i5 system with multiple i5/OS partitions, the correct method is to access the HMC (Hardware Management Console) and display the properties of the managed system. Then, click on the I/O tab to find out where the tape IOA (Input/Output Adapter) is assigned. This will provide the necessary information about the allocation of the tape library among the partitions.

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  • 9. 

    The system operator's evening checklist includes verifying disk utilzation in the system ASP. Which of the following commands accomplishes this task?

    • A.

      WRKSYSSTS

    • B.

      WRKASPSTS

    • C.

      WRKSYSSTG

    • D.

      WRKASPSTG

    Correct Answer
    A. WRKSYSSTS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is WRKSYSSTS. This command is used to work with system status and provides information about various system resources, including disk utilization in the system ASP (Auxiliary Storage Pool). By running this command, the system operator can verify the disk utilization and ensure that it is within acceptable limits.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is the name for a "virtual" optical set?

    • A.

      Media Image

    • B.

      Image Catalog

    • C.

      Virtual Image

    • D.

      Virtual Catalog

    Correct Answer
    B. Image Catalog
    Explanation
    An "Image Catalog" refers to a collection or database of virtual images. It is a name given to a virtual optical set where images are stored and organized. This catalog allows users to access and manage virtual images, making it a suitable answer for the question.

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  • 11. 

    An operator is performing the nightly backup when the message "CPF6792 - Device TAP01 Needs to be cleaned" appears on the operator console for the first time. Which of the following is the correct action?

    • A.

      Call IBM Hardware maintenance to perform required cleaning.

    • B.

      Hold the Backup and insert the appropriate tape cleaning cartridge.

    • C.

      Insert the tape cleaning cartridge when the current cartridge unloads.

    • D.

      Cancel the backup and clean the tape drive using the brushes provided.

    Correct Answer
    C. Insert the tape cleaning cartridge when the current cartridge unloads.
    Explanation
    When the message "CPF6792 - Device TAP01 Needs to be cleaned" appears for the first time during the nightly backup, the correct action is to insert the tape cleaning cartridge when the current cartridge unloads. This message indicates that the tape drive needs to be cleaned, and the appropriate action is to wait for the current cartridge to unload and then insert the cleaning cartridge to clean the tape drive. This will ensure that the backup process can continue smoothly without any issues caused by a dirty tape drive.

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  • 12. 

    Presuming the operator is using the Intermediate assistance level:On the WRKCFGSTS *LIN display, which of the following status values indicates a dial-up line is ready to start communications?

    • A.

      Active

    • B.

      VARIED ON

    • C.

      VARY ON PENDING

    • D.

      CONNECT PENDING

    Correct Answer
    D. CONNECT PENDING
    Explanation
    The status value "CONNECT PENDING" indicates that a dial-up line is ready to start communications. This means that the line has been configured and is waiting for a connection to be established. Once the connection is made, the line will transition to an "Active" status, indicating that communications have begun. "VARIED ON" and "VARY ON PENDING" are status values related to the configuration process, but they do not specifically indicate that the line is ready for communications.

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  • 13. 

    When displaying messages in System i Navigator, an operator only wants to see the messages from the QSYSOPR message queue with a severity of 40 or more on a system named Mysystem. After expanding My Connections -> Mysystem -> Basic Operations, what is the procedure to accomplish this?

    • A.

      Right-click QSYSOPR and change Lowest Severity Level to 40.

    • B.

      Right-click Messages. Select Change and set the severity filter to 40.

    • C.

      Right-click Messages. Select Include and System Operator and change Lowest Severity Level to 40.

    • D.

      Right-click Messages, then Customize This View. Click Include and select System Operator and change Lowest Severity Level to 40.

    Correct Answer
    D. Right-click Messages, then Customize This View. Click Include and select System Operator and change Lowest Severity Level to 40.
    Explanation
    To accomplish the task of only seeing messages from the QSYSOPR message queue with a severity of 40 or more on the system named Mysystem in System i Navigator, the operator should right-click on the "Messages" option, then select "Customize This View". In the customization window, the operator should click on "Include" and select "System Operator" from the options. Finally, the operator should change the "Lowest Severity Level" to 40. This will filter the messages and display only those that meet the specified criteria.

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  • 14. 

    After completing a reclaim storage from the twinax console of an i550 partition, the operator accidentally disconnects the console before returning the partition to a unrestricted state. Which of the following is the correct recovery?

    • A.

      Use the HMC to shut down and restart the Partition.

    • B.

      Connect to ASMI to force DST and IPL the Managed System.

    • C.

      Reconnect the console, recover the session, and start the controlling subsystem.

    • D.

      Use the Console Takeover function on the HMC and start the controlling subsystem.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use the HMC to shut down and restart the Partition.
    Explanation
    The correct recovery in this situation would be to use the HMC (Hardware Management Console) to shut down and restart the partition. Since the console was accidentally disconnected before returning the partition to an unrestricted state, using the HMC to shut down and restart the partition will ensure that the system is properly reset and can be accessed again. This is the most appropriate solution to recover from the situation described.

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  • 15. 

    An operator needs to ensure all tape and optical libraries are varied-on after a system IPL. Which of the following commands allow control of all connected and functional tape and optical libraries?

    • A.

      WRKMLBSTS

    • B.

      WRKDEVSTS

    • C.

      WRKMEDSTS DEV(*TAP *OPT)

    • D.

      WRKCFGSTS CFGTYPE(*DEV) CFGD(*TAPMLB *OPTMLB)

    Correct Answer
    A. WRKMLBSTS
    Explanation
    The command "WRKMLBSTS" allows the operator to control and check the status of all connected and functional tape and optical libraries. This command provides information about the libraries and their status, allowing the operator to ensure that they are varied-on after a system IPL.

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  • 16. 

    An operator has used the DSPTAP command to determine what objects in a library were saved on the currently mounted tape. The output shows that the library is on the tape, but shows no objects in the library. What is the most likely cause for this problem?

    • A.

      The tape was not rewound prior to running DSPTAP.

    • B.

      An incorrect parameter was specified in the DSPTAP command.

    • C.

      The tape device does not support detailed viewing of saved items.

    • D.

      The SAVLIB command was used to create the tape instead of the SAVOBJ command.

    Correct Answer
    B. An incorrect parameter was specified in the DSPTAP command.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause for the problem is that an incorrect parameter was specified in the DSPTAP command. This could result in the command not properly identifying the objects in the library on the tape, leading to the output showing no objects in the library.

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  • 17. 

    What part of BRMS defines the objects that are to be saved in a particular save operation?

    • A.

      Media policy

    • B.

      Control group

    • C.

      Backup policy

    • D.

      Object policy

    Correct Answer
    B. Control group
    Explanation
    The control group in BRMS is responsible for defining the objects that are to be saved in a particular save operation. It determines which objects will be included in the backup and ensures that only the specified objects are saved. The control group acts as a filter, allowing administrators to specify the specific objects that need to be backed up, providing more control and flexibility in the backup process.

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  • 18. 

    A job that normally creates multiple output files in output queue ABC is now creating them in output queue QPRINT. Which of the following is the likely cause of this problem?

    • A.

      The writer for output queue ABC is not started.

    • B.

      The system value QDFTOUTQ has been set to QPRINT.

    • C.

      The job was submitted with a change to the JOBD parameter.

    • D.

      The user submitting the job does not have *SPLCTL special authority.

    Correct Answer
    C. The job was submitted with a change to the JOBD parameter.
    Explanation
    The likely cause of the problem is that the job was submitted with a change to the JOBD parameter. This means that when the job was submitted, the parameter that specifies the output queue was modified to QPRINT instead of the default value ABC. As a result, the job is now creating multiple output files in the QPRINT output queue instead of the expected ABC output queue.

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  • 19. 

    An operator has just called a program from the command line and needs to see what messages the job has produced. Which of the following commands would the operator use?

    • A.

      DSPLOG

    • B.

      DSPJOBLOG

    • C.

      DSPJOBMSG

    • D.

      DSPCONMSG

    Correct Answer
    B. DSPJOBLOG
    Explanation
    The operator would use the command DSPJOBLOG to see the messages produced by the job. This command displays the job log, which contains information about the job's progress, any error or warning messages, and other relevant information.

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  • 20. 

    In System i Navigator, which function key will allow subsetting of the data displayed?

    • A.

      F4

    • B.

      F11

    • C.

      F12

    • D.

      F21

    Correct Answer
    B. F11
    Explanation
    In System i Navigator, the function key F11 allows subsetting of the data displayed. This means that pressing F11 will enable the user to filter or narrow down the data that is being shown, based on specific criteria or conditions. This can be useful when dealing with large datasets and wanting to focus on a specific subset of the data for analysis or manipulation.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following comands will display the currently installed cumulative fix package?

    • A.

      DSPPTFLVL *FIXPKG

    • B.

      WRKPTFGRP *LICPGM

    • C.

      DSPPTF LICPGM(*FMW)

    • D.

      DSPPTF LICPGM(5722999)

    Correct Answer
    D. DSPPTF LICPGM(5722999)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "DSPPTF LICPGM(5722999)". This command will display the currently installed cumulative fix package for the specified LICPGM (Licensed Program) number 5722999.

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  • 22. 

    An operator has received a CD with PTFs for installation on multiple systems. After processing them with a GO PTF, option 8, one of the LPARs returns the message "No PTFs installed." Which of the following is the most likely cause?

    • A.

      The media is defective.

    • B.

      The PTFs are already on the LPAR.

    • C.

      An IPL is necessary to install the PTFs on that LPAR.

    • D.

      There is a message in QSYSOPR that requires a response.

    Correct Answer
    B. The PTFs are already on the LPAR.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause for the message "No PTFs installed" after processing the CD with PTFs using the GO PTF, option 8, is that the PTFs are already installed on the LPAR. This means that the operator has mistakenly processed the PTFs again, resulting in the message indicating that no new PTFs were installed.

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  • 23. 

    Throughout month-end processing many different reports are sent to the system printer output queue. These reports print on several different form types. Which of the following is the most efficient way to print all the spooled files of one form type before printing the next type?

    • A.

      Change the output queue priority of the forms so each form type has it own priority.

    • B.

      Put all spooled files on "HOLD", then release only those that have the same form type.

    • C.

      Change the default form type in the device description to specify the desired form type.

    • D.

      Use CHGWTR to change the writer to print a single form type until all of the entries with that form type are printed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Use CHGWTR to change the writer to print a single form type until all of the entries with that form type are printed.
    Explanation
    Changing the writer using CHGWTR to print a single form type until all entries with that form type are printed is the most efficient way to print all the spooled files of one form type before printing the next type. This ensures that all the spooled files of one form type are printed together, reducing the need for switching between different form types and optimizing the printing process.

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  • 24. 

    A system operator is creating a virtual tape volume which will later be duplicated to physical tape. Which of the following is a consideration when performing this operation?

    • A.

      The physical tape device read-write capability.

    • B.

      The physical tape device description should be set to support uncompressed media duplication.

    • C.

      The virtual tape volume should be created with a size equal to that of the tape device's capacity.

    • D.

      The virtual tape volume must be created using a block size compatible with the physical tape device.

    Correct Answer
    D. The virtual tape volume must be created using a block size compatible with the pHysical tape device.
    Explanation
    When creating a virtual tape volume that will later be duplicated to physical tape, it is important to ensure that the virtual tape volume is created using a block size compatible with the physical tape device. This is because the block size determines the amount of data that can be read or written at a time. If the block size of the virtual tape volume is not compatible with the physical tape device, it may cause issues during the duplication process and result in data loss or corruption. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the block size compatibility to ensure a successful duplication process.

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  • 25. 

    Which associated object must be restored on the system prior to restoring a logical file?

    • A.

      The access path

    • B.

      The physical file

    • C.

      The field reference file

    • D.

      The user profile that created the file

    Correct Answer
    B. The pHysical file
    Explanation
    The physical file must be restored on the system prior to restoring a logical file. This is because a logical file is dependent on the physical file for its data. Restoring the physical file ensures that the necessary data is available for the logical file to function properly.

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  • 26. 

    An operator has been directed to initialize multiple tapes. Which of the following parameters of the INZTAP command will make the entire initialization process run the fastest?

    • A.

      CHECK(*NO)

    • B.

      CLEAR(*YES)

    • C.

      NEWVOL(*NONE)

    • D.

      ENDOPT(*UNLOAD)

    Correct Answer
    A. CHECK(*NO)
    Explanation
    The parameter CHECK(*NO) in the INZTAP command will make the entire initialization process run the fastest. When CHECK(*NO) is specified, the operator is not required to perform a check of the tape before initialization. This eliminates the need for additional time-consuming checks and allows the initialization process to proceed without any delays, resulting in faster completion.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is the correct command to save the 5722-BR1 (BRMS) product?

    • A.

      SAVSYSLIC

    • B.

      SAVLICBRM

    • C.

      SAVLICPGM

    • D.

      SAVPGMBRM

    Correct Answer
    C. SAVLICPGM
    Explanation
    The correct command to save the 5722-BR1 (BRMS) product is SAVLICPGM. This command is used to save the licensed program and its associated objects. SAVSYSLIC is used to save the system license information. SAVLICBRM and SAVPGMBRM are not valid commands for saving the BRMS product.

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  • 28. 

    An operator wants to check the status of a LAN adapter called Lin01 on Mysystem using System i Navigator. After expanding My Connections -> Mysystem -> Configuration and Service. Which of the following tasks will accomplish this?

    • A.

      Expand Network -> Hardware -> Adapters. Right-click Lin01 and select properties

    • B.

      Expand Hardware -> Communications. The status is displayed to the right of Lin01

    • C.

      Expand Hardware -> LAN Resources -> Adapters. The status is displayed to the right of Lin01

    • D.

      Expand Network -> Hardware -> Communications -> Adapters. Right-click Lin01 and select properties

    Correct Answer
    B. Expand Hardware -> Communications. The status is displayed to the right of Lin01
  • 29. 

    Immediately after UPS maintenance which removed power from their i5 model 520, a customer is trying to IPL their system. When the white power button is pressed, nothing happens. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

    • A.

      The key stick is not inserted into the control panel.

    • B.

      The FSP must be manually reset from the front panel of the i5.

    • C.

      The UPS signal cable is not proberly connected to port T2 with the UPS interface cable.

    • D.

      The FSP card has not yet completed initialization and the System is not yet ready to power on.

    Correct Answer
    D. The FSP card has not yet completed initialization and the System is not yet ready to power on.
    Explanation
    After the UPS maintenance, when the customer tries to IPL their system, pressing the white power button does not result in any action. This suggests that the FSP card, which is responsible for system initialization, has not completed its initialization process. As a result, the system is not yet ready to power on.

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  • 30. 

    An operator is trying to vary on an Ethernet line but it goes to RCYPND. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

    • A.

      The Ethernet IOA has failed.

    • B.

      There is no TCP/IP Address assigned to the Ethernet Line.

    • C.

      The Ethernet IOA is not cabled to an Ethernet hub or switch.

    • D.

      The Ethernet line is assigned to the wrong type of communication resource.

    Correct Answer
    C. The Ethernet IOA is not cabled to an Ethernet hub or switch.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause for the Ethernet line going to RCYPND is that the Ethernet IOA is not cabled to an Ethernet hub or switch. This means that there is no physical connection between the IOA and the network, resulting in the line being unable to establish a connection.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is the correct command to provide the group QPGMR *CHANGE Authority to all objects in the WEEKLY library?

    • A.

      EDTOBJAUT OBJ(WEEKLY/*ALL) OBJTYPE(*ALL) USER(QPGMR) AUT(*CHANGE)

    • B.

      CHGOBJAUT OBJ(WEEKLY/*ALL) OBJTYPE(*ALL) USER(QPGMR) AUT(*CHANGE)

    • C.

      WRKOBJAUT OBJ(WEEKLY/*ALL) OBJTYPE(*ALL) USER(QPGMR) AUT(*CHANGE)

    • D.

      GRTOBJAUT OBJ(WEEKLY/*ALL) OBJTYPE(*ALL) USER(QPGMR) AUT(*CHANGE)

    Correct Answer
    D. GRTOBJAUT OBJ(WEEKLY/*ALL) OBJTYPE(*ALL) USER(QPGMR) AUT(*CHANGE)
    Explanation
    The correct command to provide the group QPGMR *CHANGE Authority to all objects in the WEEKLY library is GRTOBJAUT OBJ(WEEKLY/*ALL) OBJTYPE(*ALL) USER(QPGMR) AUT(*CHANGE). This command grants object authority to a user or group, in this case, QPGMR, for all objects in the WEEKLY library with *CHANGE authority.

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  • 32. 

    A user has sent a one thousand page report to a four page per minute printer with a remote output queue. When selecting option 4 (END) from the "Work with Writers" screen for that particular output queue, and pressing enter twice, the writer continues to run. Which of the following actions must be performed in order to end the writer?

    • A.

      Issue command ENDRMTWTR with proper parameters for desired output queue.

    • B.

      Issue option 4, then press F4 and change the OPTION parameter to *IMMED.

    • C.

      The writer must be ended on the remote system as well as the local system.

    • D.

      Issue option 14 to end the writer on both local and remote systems at the same time.

    Correct Answer
    B. Issue option 4, then press F4 and change the OPTION parameter to *IMMED.
    Explanation
    To end the writer, the user should select option 4 from the "Work with Writers" screen for the specific output queue. After selecting option 4, the user should press F4 to modify the parameters. In the OPTION parameter, the user should change it to *IMMED. This will immediately end the writer and stop it from running.

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  • 33. 

    In which IBM supplied subsystem do CLEANUP jobs run?

    • A.

      QCTL

    • B.

      QBATCH

    • C.

      QUSRWRK

    • D.

      QSYSWRK

    Correct Answer
    A. QCTL
    Explanation
    CLEANUP jobs run in the QCTL subsystem. The QCTL subsystem is responsible for controlling and managing the system resources and jobs on an IBM system. It handles system startup and shutdown, job scheduling, and other system-related tasks. CLEANUP jobs are typically used to clean up temporary or unused resources, such as temporary files or system variables, to optimize system performance and ensure efficient resource utilization. Therefore, it makes sense for CLEANUP jobs to run in the QCTL subsystem.

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  • 34. 

    An operator is ordering PTFs via Fix Central. The current cumulative fix package is selected to be processed. What other group PTFs are bundled with a cumulative package order?

    • A.

      Hipers and Java

    • B.

      Database and Hipers

    • C.

      Database and TCP/IP

    • D.

      Hipers and Service Agent

    Correct Answer
    B. Database and Hipers
    Explanation
    When ordering a cumulative fix package via Fix Central, the other group PTFs that are bundled with it are Database and Hipers.

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  • 35. 

    A System i5 customer has added a new physical location to their network. Users at the new location can access email and intranet servers in the datacenter but cannot access the system using System i Navigator. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The system value QAUTOCFG is set to '0'.

    • B.

      The TCP/IP route to the new location must be added in i5/OS.

    • C.

      There is no entry for the remote location in the APPN Remote Configuration List.

    • D.

      The number of virtual devices has reached the number specified in system value QAUTOVRT.

    Correct Answer
    B. The TCP/IP route to the new location must be added in i5/OS.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is that the TCP/IP route to the new location has not been added in i5/OS. This means that although users can access email and intranet servers in the datacenter, they are unable to access the system using System i Navigator. Adding the TCP/IP route in i5/OS will allow the system to establish a connection with the new location and resolve the issue.

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  • 36. 

    A system operator is signed on to the console with user profile QSYSOPR. Several batch jobs have been submitted but they will not run. Attempts to use system request option 1 (display sign on for secondary job) fail. What is the likely explanation for these failures?

    • A.

      The QCTL Job queue is full.

    • B.

      The system is in a restricted state.

    • C.

      The QSYSOPR profile has reached its maximum allowable number of jobs.

    • D.

      The system has reached the number of jobs in QMAXJOB and cannot start any additional jobs.

    Correct Answer
    B. The system is in a restricted state.
    Explanation
    The likely explanation for the failures is that the system is in a restricted state. This means that certain operations or functions may be limited or disabled, which could prevent the batch jobs from running.

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  • 37. 

    SYS1 has a remote output queue A01 set up with SYS2 as the remote system. SYS2's output queue is B01. How would the operator move an existing spooled file on SYS1 to SYS2?

    • A.

      Use SNDTCPSPLF to send the spooled file to QSYSOPR on SYS2.

    • B.

      Change the spooled file's attributes to specify output queue B01.

    • C.

      Change the spooled file's attributes to specify output queue A01.

    • D.

      Use SNDNETSPLF to send the spooled file to output queue A01 on SYS2.

    Correct Answer
    C. Change the spooled file's attributes to specify output queue A01.
    Explanation
    To move an existing spooled file on SYS1 to SYS2, the operator would need to change the spooled file's attributes to specify output queue A01. This would ensure that the spooled file is directed to the correct output queue on SYS2. Using SNDTCPSPLF to send the spooled file to QSYSOPR on SYS2 is incorrect as it would send the file to the system operator's output queue, not the specified output queue. Similarly, using SNDNETSPLF to send the spooled file to output queue A01 on SYS2 is also incorrect as it would not change the spooled file's attributes.

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  • 38. 

    Which "Save File" parameter will prevent a spooled file from being deleted when printing is complete?

    • A.

      *YES

    • B.

      *HOLD

    • C.

      *KEEP

    • D.

      *NODLT

    Correct Answer
    A. *YES
    Explanation
    The parameter "YES" will prevent a spooled file from being deleted when printing is complete. This means that even after the printing process is finished, the file will not be automatically deleted.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following items are saved by the SAVSYS command?

    • A.

      Configuration objects

    • B.

      I5/OS optional libraries

    • C.

      Licensed program libraries

    • D.

      All IBM-supplied directories

    Correct Answer
    A. Configuration objects
    Explanation
    The SAVSYS command is used to save the system state and objects necessary for system recovery. Configuration objects, such as system values, job descriptions, user profiles, and device descriptions, are critical components of the system configuration. Therefore, it is logical to assume that the SAVSYS command would save these configuration objects to ensure that the system can be restored to its previous state in case of a failure or disaster.

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  • 40. 

    A system operator IPLs each of the partitions on their i5 weekly. Where should the operator look to see IPL progress codes prior to the console being displayed?

    • A.

      On the partition screen of the HMC

    • B.

      On the front panel of the system unit

    • C.

      On the virtual control panel for the partition

    • D.

      On the work with partition status page on the primary partition

    Correct Answer
    A. On the partition screen of the HMC
    Explanation
    The partition screen of the HMC is where the operator should look to see IPL progress codes prior to the console being displayed. The HMC (Hardware Management Console) is a management tool used to control and monitor IBM i systems. The partition screen on the HMC provides information and status updates for each partition, including the IPL progress codes. This allows the operator to track the progress of the IPL process before the console is displayed on the system unit or virtual control panel.

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  • 41. 

    Which user profile setting allows only certain commands to be used?

    • A.

      User class *pgmr

    • B.

      Group authority *yes

    • C.

      Limit capabilities *yes

    • D.

      Limit device sessions *no

    Correct Answer
    C. Limit capabilities *yes
    Explanation
    The user profile setting "Limit capabilities *yes" allows only certain commands to be used. This means that the user with this profile setting will have restricted access and can only execute specific commands that are allowed within their capabilities. Other commands that are not within their capabilities will be restricted and not available for use.

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  • 42. 

    An operator was instructed to save the library ABCCOMPANY to a save file named ABCCOMPANY in library QGPL. After submitting the save command the following message is displayed:Save file ABCCOMPANY in QGPL already contains data. (C G) Which of the following SAVLIB parameters needed to be specified to prevent the message from being displayed?

    • A.

      CHK(*NO)

    • B.

      DLT(*PRV)

    • C.

      STG(*FREE)

    • D.

      CLEAR(*ALL)

    Correct Answer
    D. CLEAR(*ALL)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CLEAR(*ALL). By specifying CLEAR(*ALL), the operator would be instructing the system to clear all existing data in the save file before saving the library. This would prevent the message "Save file ABCCOMPANY in QGPL already contains data" from being displayed, as the save file would be empty before the save operation.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is required for a full system save?

    • A.

      All file systems must be mounted.

    • B.

      The system must be in restricted state.

    • C.

      All communications line descriptions must be varied off.

    • D.

      The user performing the save must have *ALLOBJ authority.

    Correct Answer
    B. The system must be in restricted state.
    Explanation
    In order to perform a full system save, the system must be in a restricted state. This means that only authorized personnel can access and make changes to the system during the save process. This ensures that the system is not interrupted or compromised while the save is taking place, allowing for a complete and accurate backup of all system data and configurations.

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  • 44. 

    The operator has been asked to back up 3 libraries to disk. Which of the following would the operator perform to accomplish this?

    • A.

      Create one save file. Perform a SAVLIB of all three libraries to the same save file.

    • B.

      Create three save files. Perform a separate SAVLIB of each library to individual save files.

    • C.

      Create three save files. Perform a single SAVLIB expanding the library and save file parameters to accommodate the three libraries and save file names.

    • D.

      Create one save file. Perform a single SAVOBJ command specifying *ALL for the object and expanding the library parameter to accommodate the three library names.

    Correct Answer
    B. Create three save files. Perform a separate SAVLIB of each library to individual save files.
    Explanation
    To back up 3 libraries to disk, the operator would create three save files and perform a separate SAVLIB command for each library, saving them to their respective individual save files. This ensures that each library is backed up separately and can be easily restored if needed. Creating separate save files for each library also helps in organizing and managing the backup process effectively.

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  • 45. 

    Users are complaining that they cannot release spooled files that their job has created. What must be done to correct the problem?

    • A.

      The printer device must be active.

    • B.

      A writer must be attached to the output queue.

    • C.

      The output queue must be in a RLS status before spooled files can be released.

    • D.

      The authority to check (AUTCHK) parameter of the output queue must be changed to *DTAAUT.

    Correct Answer
    D. The authority to check (AUTCHK) parameter of the output queue must be changed to *DTAAUT.
    Explanation
    To correct the problem of not being able to release spooled files, the authority to check (AUTCHK) parameter of the output queue must be changed to *DTAAUT. This change will allow the necessary authority to release the spooled files.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following commands will save any directory stored in the IFS?

    • A.

      SAV

    • B.

      SAVDLO

    • C.

      SAVIFS

    • D.

      SAVDIR

    Correct Answer
    A. SAV
    Explanation
    The command "SAV" is used to save objects in the IBM i operating system, including directories stored in the Integrated File System (IFS). It creates a save file and saves the specified objects into it. Therefore, "SAV" is the correct command to save any directory stored in the IFS.

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  • 47. 

    Using BRMS, what command is used to look at the results of a backup?

    • A.

      PRTLOGBRM

    • B.

      PRTBRMLOG

    • C.

      DSPLOGBRM

    • D.

      DSPBRMRPT

    Correct Answer
    C. DSPLOGBRM
    Explanation
    The command DSPLOGBRM is used to look at the results of a backup when using BRMS. This command allows users to display the log of the backup and view the details and status of the backup job. It provides information such as the start and end time of the backup, any errors or warnings encountered during the backup process, and the overall success or failure of the backup.

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  • 48. 

    An operator opens a console session from an HMC to an i5/OS partition. The partition has automatic configuration turned on using normal i5/OS naming. The 5250 session on the HMC opens normally, but once the session starts the screen remains blank instead of presenting a sign on screen. The system is operating normally, and users are able to start 5250 sessions on their workstations. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the failure?

    • A.

      The HMC vary on processor has hung.

    • B.

      The Flexible Service Processor (FSP) console emulator is hung.

    • C.

      The virtual workstation controller description for the console is varied off.

    • D.

      The local workstation controller description with the console device description is in "failed" status.

    Correct Answer
    D. The local workstation controller description with the console device description is in "failed" status.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the failure is that the local workstation controller description with the console device description is in "failed" status. This means that there is an issue with the workstation controller, which is preventing the console session from displaying the sign-on screen. This could be due to a configuration error or a hardware issue with the workstation controller.

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  • 49. 

    Using System i Navigator an operator wants to hold the QBATCH job queue on a system named Mysystem. Which of the following describes how this is accomplished?

    • A.

      Expand My Connections -> Mysystem -> Work Management -> Job Queues -> All Job Queues. Right click the QBATCH job queue and click Hold.

    • B.

      Expand My Connections -> Mysystem -> Work Management -> Job Queues. Right click the QBATCH job queue, click properties and select Hold.

    • C.

      Expand Management Central -> System groups -> Mysystem -> Work Management -> Job Queues. Right click the QBATCH job queue and click Hold.

    • D.

      Expand Management Central -> System groups -> Mysystem -> Job Queues. Right click the QBATCH job queue, click properties and select Hold.

    Correct Answer
    A. Expand My Connections -> Mysystem -> Work Management -> Job Queues -> All Job Queues. Right click the QBATCH job queue and click Hold.
    Explanation
    To hold the QBATCH job queue on the system named Mysystem using System i Navigator, the operator should expand "My Connections", then navigate to "Mysystem", "Work Management", and "Job Queues". From there, they should expand "All Job Queues", locate the QBATCH job queue, right-click on it, and select "Hold". This will effectively put the QBATCH job queue on hold.

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  • 50. 

    When reviewing CPU utilization on a WRKACTJOB screen, an operator notices the CPU percentage is at 350%. What is the most likely cause for this value?

    • A.

      The system is beginning to fail.

    • B.

      An incorrect license key has been installed.

    • C.

      There is an error in the i5/OS codde requiring a PTF order.

    • D.

      The LPAR is utilizing idle processing power from other LPARs.

    Correct Answer
    D. The LPAR is utilizing idle processing power from other LPARs.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause for the CPU percentage to be at 350% is that the LPAR (Logical Partition) is utilizing idle processing power from other LPARs. This means that the LPAR is taking advantage of unused CPU resources from other partitions, resulting in a higher CPU percentage than what is typically expected for a single partition.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 05, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 05, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Razor821

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