1.
What is the purpose of the Max Active parameter when creating or modifying a memory' pool?
Correct Answer
C. It limits the number of threads which can process concurrently.
Explanation
The purpose of the Max Active parameter when creating or modifying a memory pool is to limit the number of threads that can process concurrently. This parameter sets a maximum limit on the number of threads that can be active at any given time within the memory pool. By setting this limit, it helps to manage and control the resource allocation and usage within the pool, ensuring that the system does not become overwhelmed with too many concurrent threads.
2.
An IBM i programmer requires access to data stored in a file located on a Windows server. Which filesystem can the programmer use to access this data?
Correct Answer
B. QNTC
Explanation
The programmer can use the QNTC (QSYS Network File System) filesystem to access the data stored in a file located on a Windows server. QNTC allows IBM i systems to access files and directories on remote systems, including Windows servers, using the SMB (Server Message Block) protocol. This enables the programmer to read, write, and manipulate the data stored in the file on the Windows server directly from their IBM i system.
3.
Which list contains only objects that can affect the amount of memory available to a job?
Correct Answer
C. Job description,
Subsystem description,
Shared Pool memory pool description.
Explanation
The correct answer is Job description, Subsystem description, Shared Pool memory pool description. These three objects can directly affect the amount of memory available to a job. The job description defines the attributes and parameters of a job, including memory allocation. The subsystem description specifies the characteristics and resources available to a subsystem, including memory allocation. The shared pool memory pool description defines the memory allocation and management for the shared pool, which is a common area of memory used by multiple jobs and subsystems. The other options either do not directly affect memory allocation or are not relevant to the question.
4.
Which command provides a listing of currently active subsystems?
Correct Answer
A. WRKSBS
Explanation
The command "WRKSBS" provides a listing of currently active subsystems. This command allows users to view the status and details of each active subsystem in the system. It provides information such as the subsystem name, status, job count, and job queue associated with each subsystem. This command is useful for system administrators and operators to monitor and manage the active subsystems in the system.
5.
What is the purpose of System Managed Access Path Protection (SMAPP)?
Correct Answer
D. To reduce recovery time by journaling changes in access path size and location
Explanation
SMAPP, or System Managed Access Path Protection, helps reduce recovery time by journaling changes in access path size and location. This means that if there is a failure or system crash, SMAPP can quickly restore the access paths to their previous state, saving time and effort in recovery. By journaling these changes, SMAPP ensures that the access paths can be easily reconstructed, minimizing downtime and improving system availability.
6.
An administrator restores a set of two libraries named TEST_A and TEST_B from a backup tape.
Several objects did not restore into library TEST_A .
All objects restored into library TEST_B .
The administrator reviews the job log and finds that all of the objects that failed to restore were logical files.
What is the most likely reason that these objects failed to restore?
Correct Answer
C. The logical files are based on pHysical files that are in library TEST_B.
Explanation
The most likely reason that the objects failed to restore is that the logical files are based on physical files that are in library TEST_B. Since the logical files are dependent on the physical files, if the physical files were not restored or were restored in a different library, the logical files would not be able to restore properly into library TEST_A.
7.
Which console is required to support virtualization (LPAR) on a Power 740 system?
Correct Answer
A. HMC.
Explanation
The correct answer is HMC. The HMC (Hardware Management Console) is required to support virtualization (LPAR) on a Power 740 system. The HMC is a separate hardware device that provides management and configuration capabilities for IBM Power Systems servers. It allows administrators to create, configure, and manage logical partitions (LPARs) on the Power 740 system, enabling virtualization and resource allocation. The HMC provides a graphical user interface (GUI) and command line interface (CLI) for managing the system, making it an essential component for virtualization on the Power 740 system.
8.
After reviewing various items in the system audit journal using the DSPAUDJRNE command, the administrator would like to use the DSPJRN command to output more information. What needs to be specified for the journal in the DSPJRN command in order to output data from the system audit journal?
Correct Answer
A. Library QSYS, journal QAUDJRN.
Explanation
The correct answer is Library QSYS, journal QAUDJRN. In order to output data from the system audit journal using the DSPJRN command, the administrator needs to specify the library QSYS and the journal QAUDJRN.
9.
What is the purpose of a job description?
Correct Answer
A. To define where and how a job runs.
Explanation
A job description is used to define the location and manner in which a job operates. It outlines the responsibilities, tasks, and requirements of a particular job, providing a clear understanding of what is expected from an employee in that role. It helps both the employer and the employee to have a shared understanding of the job's scope, responsibilities, and performance expectations. A well-defined job description also aids in the recruitment and selection process by attracting suitable candidates who possess the necessary skills and qualifications for the job.
10.
What resources are needed for a hosted partition to be successfully created and started?
Correct Answer
C. Network server description,
Network server storage space,
Virtual SCSI adapter.
Explanation
The correct answer is network server description, network server storage space, and virtual SCSI adapter. These resources are necessary for a hosted partition to be successfully created and started. The network server description provides information about the server, the network server storage space is required to store the partition's data, and the virtual SCSI adapter allows the partition to connect to storage devices. The virtual serial adapter is not mentioned as a requirement for creating and starting a hosted partition.
11.
A daily job produces a large a number of spooled files. The administrator has changed the print file attributes to cause the print files to expire. The administrator has noticed that even though spooled files are expired, they are not being removed from the system. What additional step must be taken to cause these spooled files to be removed from the system?
Correct Answer
D. The command DLTEXPSPLF must be run to remove the spool files.
12.
A programmer is developing an application that has several file objects. One of the objects is a control file that will not be updated by the users. What is the correct permission for the control file to prevent updates by users?
Correct Answer
A. *USE
Explanation
To prevent users from updating the control file, the correct permission is to set it to *USE. This permission allows users to only access and read the file, but they cannot make any changes or updates to it. By setting the permission to *USE, the programmer ensures that the control file remains secure and its integrity is maintained, as it is not susceptible to accidental or unauthorized modifications.
13.
A user is attempting to connect to a system by using IBM i Access 5250 emulation. The user receives the message "Virtual Device Cannot is selected." What should the administrator do to resolve the problem?
Correct Answer
D. Change the value of the system value QAUTOVRT to *NOMAX.
Explanation
The correct answer is to change the value of the system value QAUTOVRT to *NOMAX. This will resolve the problem of the user receiving the message "Virtual Device Cannot is selected." By changing the value to *NOMAX, it ensures that there is no maximum limit set for the automatic virtual device creation on the system. This allows the user to successfully connect to the system using IBM i Access 5250 emulation without any issues.
14.
Which special authority allows user to add, change, and delete user profiles?
Correct Answer
B. *SECADM
Explanation
The special authority that allows a user to add, change, and delete user profiles is SECADM. This authority grants the user the ability to manage security on the system, including the ability to create, modify, and delete user profiles. The other options, AUDIT, ALLOBJ, and SERVICE, do not have the necessary privileges to perform these actions.
15.
A long running batch job ends unexpectedly. This generates thousands of pages of job log output. The job log includes thousands of informational messages and ends with: "Job message queue cannot be extended." What can the administrator do to prevent the job from ending when this problem occurs?
Correct Answer
D. Change the job's logging level so that informational messages do not appear in the job log.
Explanation
Changing the job's logging level so that informational messages do not appear in the job log will prevent the job from ending when the problem of the job message queue not being extended occurs. This is because the job will not generate the thousands of informational messages that cause the job log to exceed its limit and end unexpectedly. By excluding these messages, the job can continue running without interruption.
16.
What system value, when properly set, will allow a single-partition system to come up automatically after an electrical outage?
Correct Answer
D. QPWRRSTIPL
Explanation
The correct answer is QPWRRSTIPL. This system value, when properly set, allows a single-partition system to come up automatically after an electrical outage. It is responsible for initiating a power restart of the system, ensuring that it can recover and resume operation without manual intervention.
17.
Which set of object authorities will enable users to run a program object and update data used by the program?
Correct Answer
A. *USE for the program objects and *CHANGE for the data files.
Explanation
The set of object authorities that will enable users to run a program object and update data used by the program is *USE for the program objects and *CHANGE for the data files. This means that users will have permission to access and execute the program objects, as well as modify the data files that are being used by the program.
18.
Which command(s) will change the QBATCH subsystem to process 10 jobs at the same time?
Correct Answer
A. CHGSBSD SBSD(QSYS/QBATCH) MAXJOBS(10)
Explanation
The correct answer is CHGSBSD SBSD(QSYS/QBATCH) MAXJOBS(10). This command will change the QBATCH subsystem to process 10 jobs at the same time by setting the maximum number of jobs (MAXJOBS) to 10.
19.
An administrator is analyzing job queue QBATCHJOB. There are jobs waiting to run. The job queue is single threaded. Which is the first criterion used to determine how and when a job in the QBATCHJOB queue is processed?
Correct Answer
D. The priority of the jobs as given by the job description assigned.
Explanation
The first criterion used to determine how and when a job in the QBATCHJOB queue is processed is the priority of the jobs as given by the job description assigned. This means that jobs with higher priority will be processed before jobs with lower priority. The time and date the jobs were submitted, the authority of the user submitting the jobs, and the system values assigned for job queue processing may also play a role in determining the order of job processing, but the priority of the jobs is the primary criterion.
20.
What is an advantage of using an authorization list instead of a group profile?
Correct Answer
D. Authorization lists allow different users to have individual authorities to the secured objects.
Explanation
Using an authorization list allows different users to have individual authorities to the secured objects. This means that each user can be granted specific permissions or restrictions on the objects, providing a more granular level of control over access. In contrast, a group profile applies the same set of authorities to all users within the group, limiting the ability to customize permissions for individual users. Therefore, using authorization lists provides more flexibility and security in managing access to secured objects.
21.
Which system value limits the reuse of old passwords?
Correct Answer
B. QPWDRQDDIF
Explanation
The correct answer is QPWDRQDDIF. This system value limits the reuse of old passwords. It ensures that users cannot reuse their previous passwords, promoting better security practices. By enforcing the use of new passwords each time, it reduces the risk of unauthorized access to accounts.
22.
When a program is called using an unqualified call, in what order is the job's library list searched for the program? Example: CALL PAYROLL instead of CALL PAYLIB/PAYROLL
Correct Answer
D. System Libraries, Current library and User libraries.
Explanation
When a program is called using an unqualified call, the job's library list is searched in the following order: first, the system libraries are searched, then the current library is searched, and finally, the user libraries are searched. This means that the system libraries are given the highest priority in the search, followed by the current library, and then the user libraries.
23.
An administrator has been asked to provide a report on the performance-based system values. What function will provide all the required information?
Correct Answer
B. The system values performance category in IBM Systems Director Navigator for i.
Explanation
The correct answer is the system values performance category in IBM Systems Director Navigator for i. This option is the most relevant because it specifically mentions the performance category in IBM Systems Director Navigator for i, which is likely to provide the required information on performance-based system values. The other options do not directly mention system values or performance-based information.
24.
Programmers are having issues with the RPG compiler, and it has been determined that a fix must be ordered. Which type of PTF is most appropriate?
Correct Answer
C. Individual fixes.
Explanation
When programmers are experiencing issues with the RPG compiler, the most appropriate type of PTF (Program Temporary Fix) to order would be individual fixes. Individual fixes are specific patches or updates that address specific problems or bugs in a software program. In this case, since the issue is with the RPG compiler, ordering individual fixes will allow the programmers to target and resolve the specific problems they are facing. Fix groups, service packs, and cumulative PTF packages are more general and may not specifically address the issues with the RPG compiler.
25.
A user has forgotten their password and asked the administrator to reset it. Company security policy requires passwords to be known only to the user. The administrator used System i Navigator to access the Igor user profile. After checking "User must change password at next sign-on", what must the administrator do to reset the password?
Correct Answer
A. Type a new password in the password box.
Explanation
The administrator must type a new password in the password box to reset the password.
26.
Why is Network Address Translation (NAT) a benefit to corporations?
Correct Answer
B. It allows corporations to hide private addresses from the public.
Explanation
NAT is a benefit to corporations because it allows them to hide their private addresses from the public. This means that when devices from the internal network access the internet, their private IP addresses are translated to a public IP address. This provides an added layer of security as it prevents direct communication between external entities and internal devices, making it harder for attackers to target the internal network. Additionally, NAT conserves IP addresses as multiple devices can share a single public IP address.
27.
What command is used to save IFS objects?
Correct Answer
A. SAV
Explanation
The command used to save IFS (Integrated File System) objects is SAV. This command allows the user to save IFS objects such as directories, files, and symbolic links to a save file. By using the SAV command, the user can create a backup of the IFS objects, which can be restored later if needed.
28.
An administrator plans to use a single LPAR and Management Central to manage PTFs for other systems in the enterprise. What is the most important consideration when deciding the baseline?
Correct Answer
A. All systems are the same OS level.
Explanation
When using a single LPAR and Management Central to manage PTFs for other systems, the most important consideration for deciding the baseline is that all systems are at the same OS level. This ensures that the PTFs being managed are compatible with all the systems in the enterprise, reducing the risk of compatibility issues or conflicts. Having all systems at the same OS level also allows for easier management and ensures consistency in terms of functionality and features across the enterprise.
29.
An administrator needs to set the compare value on a job to cause the subsystem to run the job with a specific class. Which parameter should the administrator use?
Correct Answer
C. RTGDTA
Explanation
The administrator should use the RTGDTA parameter to set the compare value on a job and cause the subsystem to run the job with a specific class.
30.
User HOK tries to login and received the message "User profile cannot sign on." What is the most likely cause for the error?
Correct Answer
B. The user's profile has been disabled.
Explanation
The most likely cause for the error is that the user's profile has been disabled. This means that the user is not allowed to sign on and access the system. It is possible that the user's profile was intentionally disabled by an administrator or there may be some security settings that have caused the profile to be disabled. Either way, the user will need to contact the system administrator to have their profile re-enabled in order to login successfully.
31.
Which command will always find the IBM QCMD program?
Correct Answer
A. WRKOBJ OBJ(*LIBL/QCMD) OBJTYPE(*PGM)
Explanation
The correct answer is WRKOBJ OBJ(*LIBL/QCMD) OBJTYPE(*PGM). This command will search for the QCMD program in all libraries in the library list.
32.
What are the correct data types for a CL variable?
Correct Answer
B. A logical value
A pointer value
An integer value
A packed decimal value
Explanation
The correct data types for a CL variable include a logical value, a pointer value, an integer value, and a packed decimal value. These data types allow for different types of values to be stored and manipulated in a CL program.
33.
An administrator needs to inform users that the system is about to be powered down, and ask if any user needs an additional 15 minutes to complete work in progress. The administrator entered "GO MANAGESYS" and selected Option 12-Work with Signed-On Users, but does not see the option to send a message to all signed on users. Why is the administrator unable to send the message to the users?
Correct Answer
D. The administrator is using the intermediate assistance level.
Explanation
The administrator is unable to send the message to the users because they are using the intermediate assistance level. This level does not provide the option to send a message to all signed-on users.
34.
What is a limitation of the IFS portion of a tape image catalog?
Correct Answer
D. Each catalog can have only 256 volumes added.
Explanation
The limitation of the IFS portion of a tape image catalog is that each catalog can have only 256 volumes added. This means that if there are more than 256 volumes to be added, multiple catalogs would need to be created, which can be inconvenient and time-consuming.
35.
IBM i provides the capability to use digital certificates to sign objects. What objects, other than Programs (*PGM), Service programs (*SRVPGM) and Modules (*MODULE) may be signed?
Correct Answer
C. Populated save files (TILE SAVF)
Commands (*CMD)
Explanation
IBM i provides the capability to use digital certificates to sign objects such as Programs, Service programs, and Modules. In addition to these, other objects that may be signed include Libraries, SQL Packages, Query definitions, Journals, Populated save files, Commands, Message queues, Populated data Queues, Physical files, and User Profiles. Therefore, the correct answer options are Populated save files and Commands.
36.
A printer has jammed while in the middle of printing a large file. After clearing the jam, what is the next step or steps?
Correct Answer
A. Restart the writer, specifying the starting page number.
Explanation
After clearing the jam, the next step is to restart the writer, specifying the starting page number. This is necessary to ensure that the printing process resumes from the correct page and does not cause any disruption or confusion in the printed output. Holding the spooled file on the output queue or releasing it, holding the writer, and clearing the printer buffer by turning the printer off and then on are not mentioned as the next steps in the given context.
37.
How does the "Save While Active" function work?
Correct Answer
A. A checkpoint image of the object is made and saved to media.
Explanation
The "Save While Active" function works by creating a checkpoint image of the object and saving it to media. This checkpoint image allows for the object to be restored at a later time.
38.
An administrator needs to authorize an operator to SST so the operator can perform required job functions. What is needed to authorize the new operator to sign on to SST?
Correct Answer
A. Create a user profile in SST/DST for the new operator.
Explanation
To authorize the new operator to sign on to SST, the administrator needs to create a user profile in SST/DST for the new operator. This will allow the operator to have a unique login and access to the necessary job functions.
39.
The number of jobs in a job queue is increasing. Jobs are running in the subsystem. What is a potential cause of this increase?
Correct Answer
D. The maximum number of concurrent jobs for the subsystem has been reached.
Explanation
The increase in the number of jobs in the job queue can be attributed to the subsystem reaching its maximum number of concurrent jobs. Once the maximum limit is reached, any new jobs that are submitted to the subsystem will be added to the job queue instead of being immediately processed. This backlog of jobs in the queue leads to the increase in the number of jobs.
40.
After restoring a file to LIBA schema, the administrator wants to display the contents of file using System i Navigator. After opening System i Navigator the administrator cannot see the LIBA schema. What will add the schema to the list of schemes?
Correct Answer
B. Right-Click Schemas and choose "Select Schemas to Display."
Explanation
Right-Click Schemas and choose "Select Schemas to Display" will add the LIBA schema to the list of schemas in System i Navigator. This option allows the administrator to select which schemas they want to see in the display, so by selecting the LIBA schema, it will be added to the list and become visible.
41.
An administrator creates a new user profile and assigns that new profile to two groups, GROUP1 and GROUP2. GROUP1 has update authority for APP1 application. GROUP2 has only read authority to APP2 application. The new user is able to access APP1 and APP2 as expected. A month later the administrator needs to stop the user from updating APP1 and assigns the user to GROUP3, which only has read authority to APP1. However, the user can still update APP1. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Correct Answer
A. The administrator did not remove GROUP1 from the user profile.
Explanation
The most likely cause of the problem is that the administrator did not remove GROUP1 from the user profile. Since the user was initially assigned to GROUP1, which had update authority for APP1, the user still retains that authority even after being assigned to GROUP3, which only has read authority. To resolve the issue, the administrator should remove GROUP1 from the user profile to remove the update authority for APP1.