ISTQB Test Management Quiz
One of the best ways that you can test out manage tests is by use of the test management tool. This tool is one of the topics we cover in the ISTQB course. Just how attentive were you in class and are you ready for the finals? Take up this ISTQB quiz on test management and get to refresh your memory.
- 1.
Why is independent testing important?
- A.
Independent testing is usually cheaper than testing your own work.
- B.
Independent testing is more effective at finding defects.
- C.
Independent testers should determine the processes and methodologies used.
- D.
Independent testers are dispassionate about whether the project succeeds or fails.
Correct Answer
B. Independent testing is more effective at finding defects.Explanation
Independent testing is more effective at finding defects because independent testers bring a fresh perspective and unbiased approach to the testing process. They are not influenced by the biases or assumptions made during the development phase, allowing them to identify defects that might be overlooked by the developers. Independent testers can also provide valuable feedback and suggestions for improvement, helping to enhance the overall quality of the product. Additionally, independent testing helps to ensure that the product meets the requirements and specifications, reducing the risk of defects and potential issues in the future.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is among the typical tasks of a test leader?
- A.
Develop system requirements, design specifications and usage models.
- B.
Handle all test automation duties.
- C.
Keep tests and test coverage hidden from programmers.
- D.
Gather and report test progress metrics.
Correct Answer
D. Gather and report test progress metrics.Explanation
The typical tasks of a test leader involve gathering and reporting test progress metrics. This means that the test leader is responsible for collecting data on the progress of the testing process, such as the number of tests executed, the number of defects found, and the overall test coverage. They then analyze this data and create reports to communicate the progress and status of the testing to stakeholders. This helps in monitoring the effectiveness of the testing efforts and making informed decisions regarding the project.Rate this question:
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- 3.
According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we mean when we call someone a test manager?
- A.
A test manager manages a collection of test leaders.
- B.
A test manager is the leader of a test team or teams.
- C.
A test manager gets paid more than a test leader.
- D.
A test manager reports to a test leader.
Correct Answer
B. A test manager is the leader of a test team or teams.Explanation
A test manager is referred to as the leader of a test team or teams. This means that they are responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of the test team, ensuring that testing is carried out effectively and efficiently. They are also responsible for planning, organizing, and controlling the testing process, as well as managing the resources and stakeholders involved. The test manager plays a crucial role in ensuring the quality and success of the testing activities and ultimately the overall software development project.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is the primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification?
- A.
The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test.
- B.
The test plan is for managers, the test design specification is for programmers and the test procedure specification is for testers who are automating tests.
- C.
The test plan is the least thorough, the test procedure specification is the most thorough and the test design specification is midway between the two.
- D.
The test plan is finished in the first third of the project, the test design specification is finished in the middle third of the project and the test procedure specification is finished in the last third of the project.
Correct Answer
A. The test plan describes one or more levels of testing, the test design specification identifies the associated high-level test cases and a test procedure specification describes the actions for executing a test.Explanation
The primary difference between the test plan, the test design specification, and the test procedure specification is the level of detail and the purpose they serve in the testing process. The test plan provides an overview of the testing approach and identifies the levels of testing that will be performed. The test design specification focuses on identifying the high-level test cases that need to be executed. On the other hand, the test procedure specification provides detailed instructions on how to execute a specific test. Each document serves a different audience and provides specific information necessary for effective testing.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following factors is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects?
- A.
Geographical separation of tester and programmers.
- B.
The departure of the test manager during the project.
- C.
The quality of the information used to develop the tests.
- D.
Unexpected long-term illness by a member of the project team.
Correct Answer
C. The quality of the information used to develop the tests.Explanation
The quality of the information used to develop the tests is an influence on the test effort involved in most projects. This is because the accuracy and completeness of the information will determine the effectiveness of the tests. If the information is of low quality, the tests may not cover all the necessary scenarios and may fail to detect defects. On the other hand, if the information is of high quality, the tests can be designed more efficiently and effectively, leading to better test coverage and defect detection.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The ISTQB Foundation Syllabus establishes a fundamental test process where test planning occurs early in the project, while test execution occurs at the end. Which of the following elements of the test plan, while specified during test planning, is assessed during test execution?
- A.
Test tasks
- B.
Environmental needs
- C.
Exit criteria
- D.
Test team training
Correct Answer
C. Exit criteriaExplanation
During test planning, the exit criteria are specified, which outline the conditions that must be met in order to determine when testing is complete and the product is ready for release. These criteria are assessed during test execution to ensure that all the necessary test activities have been performed and the desired objectives have been achieved. The exit criteria act as a benchmark to evaluate the success of the testing process and determine if the product is ready for the next phase or release.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Consider the following exit criteria which might be found in a test plan: I. No known customer-critical defects. II. All interfaces between components tested. III. 100% code coverage of all units. IV. All specified requirements satisfied. V. System functionality matches legacy system for all business rules. Which of the following statements is true about whether these exit criteria belong in an acceptance test plan?
- A.
All statements belong in an acceptance test plan.
- B.
Only statement I belongs in an acceptance test plan.
- C.
Only statements I, II, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
- D.
Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.
Correct Answer
D. Only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.Explanation
The exit criteria that belong in an acceptance test plan are those that are related to customer satisfaction and meeting the specified requirements. Statement I, which refers to having no known customer-critical defects, is important for ensuring that the system is ready for acceptance by the customer. Statement IV, which states that all specified requirements are satisfied, is crucial for determining if the system meets the necessary criteria. Statement V, which mentions that the system functionality matches the legacy system for all business rules, is also relevant as it ensures that the new system performs as expected. Therefore, only statements I, IV, and V belong in an acceptance test plan.Rate this question:
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- 8.
According to the ISTQB Glossary, what is a test level?
- A.
A group of test activities that are organized together.
- B.
One or more test design specification documents.
- C.
A test type.
- D.
An ISTQB certification.
Correct Answer
A. A group of test activities that are organized together.Explanation
A test level refers to a group of test activities that are organized together. This means that a test level consists of various related testing activities that are performed collectively. It helps in organizing and managing the testing process effectively by grouping similar activities together. This can include activities such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing, which are all part of a specific test level.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following metrics would be most useful to monitor during test execution?
- A.
Percentage of test cases written.
- B.
Number of test environments remaining to be configured.
- C.
Number of defects found and fixed.
- D.
Percentage of requirements for which a test has been written.
Correct Answer
C. Number of defects found and fixed.Explanation
The number of defects found and fixed would be the most useful metric to monitor during test execution. This metric provides insights into the quality of the software being tested and the effectiveness of the testing process. By tracking the number of defects found and fixed, it is possible to assess the progress of the testing effort and make informed decisions about the readiness of the software for release. Monitoring this metric helps identify any bottlenecks or issues in the testing process and allows for timely corrective actions to be taken.Rate this question:
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- 10.
During test execution, the test manager describes the following situation to the project team: '90% of the test cases have been run. 20% of the test cases have identified defects. 127 defects have been found. 112 defects have been fixed and have passed confirmation testing. Of the remaining 15 defects, project management has decided that they do not need to be fixed prior to release.' Which of the following is the most reasonable interpretation of this test status report?
- A.
The remaining 15 defects should be confirmation tested prior to release.
- B.
The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release.
- C.
The system is now ready for release with no further testing or development effort.
- D.
The programmers should focus their attention on fixing the remaining known defects prior to release.
Correct Answer
B. The remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release.Explanation
The given test status report indicates that 90% of the test cases have been executed and 20% of them have identified defects. Out of the total defects found, 112 have been fixed and passed confirmation testing. This implies that there are still 15 defects remaining, which should be fixed before the release. Therefore, the most reasonable interpretation is that the remaining 10% of test cases should be run prior to release to identify and fix these remaining defects.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In a test summary report, the project's test leader makes the following statement, The payment processing subsystem fails to accept payments from American Express cardholders, which is considered a must-work feature for this release.' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections?
- A.
Evaluation
- B.
Summary of activities
- C.
Variances
- D.
Incident description
Correct Answer
D. Incident descriptionExplanation
The statement provided is likely to be found in the "Incident description" section of the test summary report. This section typically details any incidents or issues encountered during testing, including descriptions of failures or defects identified in the system.Rate this question:
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- 12.
During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down?
- A.
Traceability
- B.
Confirmation testing
- C.
Configuration control
- D.
Test documentation management
Correct Answer
C. Configuration controlExplanation
Configuration control is the testing-related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down in this scenario. Configuration control involves managing and controlling changes to the software and hardware configurations throughout the testing process. In this case, the defect was located, resolved, and confirmed as resolved, but it reappeared later during subsequent test execution. This suggests that the configuration control process may have failed to properly manage and control the changes made to the configuration, leading to the reappearance of the defect.Rate this question:
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- 13.
You are working as a tester on a project to develop a point-of-sales system for grocery stores and other similar retail outlets. Which of the following is a product risk for such a project?
- A.
The arrival of a more-reliable competing product on the market.
- B.
Delivery of an incomplete test release to the first cycle of system test.
- C.
An excessively high number of defect fixes fail during re-testing.
- D.
Failure to accept allowed credit cards.
Correct Answer
D. Failure to accept allowed credit cards.Explanation
Failure to accept allowed credit cards is a product risk for a point-of-sales system for grocery stores and retail outlets. This means that the system may not be able to process payments using certain credit cards that are commonly accepted by these businesses. This could lead to a loss of customers and revenue for the stores if they are unable to accept the preferred payment method of their customers. It is important for the system to be able to handle all allowed credit cards to ensure smooth and efficient transactions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A product risk analysis meeting is held during the project planning period. Which of the following determines the level of risk?
- A.
Difficulty of fixing related problems in code
- B.
The harm that might result to the user
- C.
The price for which the software is sold
- D.
The technical staff in the meeting
Correct Answer
B. The harm that might result to the userExplanation
During a product risk analysis meeting, the level of risk is determined by considering the potential harm that might result to the user. This means evaluating the possible negative consequences or adverse effects that the product may have on the user, such as safety hazards, financial losses, or damage to their reputation. By assessing and prioritizing these potential harms, the project team can make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to mitigate or minimize the risks associated with the product.Rate this question:
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- 15.
You are writing a test plan using the IEEE 829 template and are currently completing the Risks and Contingencies section. Which of the following is most likely to be listed as a project risk?
- A.
Unexpected illness of a key team member
- B.
Excessively slow transaction-processing time
- C.
Data corruption under network congestion
- D.
Failure to handle a key use case
Correct Answer
A. Unexpected illness of a key team memberExplanation
The unexpected illness of a key team member is most likely to be listed as a project risk because it can impact the project schedule and resource allocation. If a key team member becomes ill, it may result in delays in completing tasks or finding a replacement for their role, which can affect the overall project timeline. It is important to identify this risk in the test plan to ensure appropriate contingency plans are in place to mitigate any potential negative impact on the project.Rate this question:
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- 16.
You and the project stakeholders develop a list of product risks and project risks during the planning stage of a project. What else should you do with those lists of risks during test planning?
- A.
Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks.
- B.
Obtain the resources needed to completely cover each product risk with tests and transfer responsibility for the project risks to the project manager.
- C.
Execute sufficient tests for the product risks, based on the likelihood and impact of each product risk and execute mitigation actions for all project risks.
- D.
No further risk management action is required at the test planning stage.
Correct Answer
A. Determine the extent of testing required for the product risks and the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks.Explanation
During the test planning stage, it is important to take the lists of product risks and project risks and determine the extent of testing required for the product risks. This involves assessing the likelihood and impact of each product risk and determining the appropriate level of testing needed to address these risks. Additionally, it is necessary to identify the mitigation and contingency actions required for the project risks. This ensures that appropriate measures are in place to address any potential issues or challenges that may arise during the project. By doing so, the project team can effectively manage and mitigate risks throughout the testing phase.Rate this question:
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- 17.
According to the ISTQB Glossary, a product risk is related to which of the following?
- A.
Control of the test project
- B.
The test object
- C.
A single test item
- D.
A potential negative outcome
Correct Answer
B. The test objectExplanation
A product risk is related to the test object. In software testing, a product risk refers to the potential negative outcomes or hazards associated with the test object. It involves identifying and assessing the risks that may impact the quality, functionality, or performance of the test object. By understanding the product risks, testers can prioritize their testing efforts and focus on mitigating the most critical risks to ensure the overall quality of the test object.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In an incident report, the tester makes the following statement, 'At this point, I expect to receive an error message explaining the rejection of this invalid input and asking me to enter a valid input. Instead the system accepts the input, displays an hourglass for between one and five seconds and finally terminates abnormally, giving the message, "Unexpected data type: 15. Click to continue." ' This statement is likely to be found in which of the following sections of an IEEE 829 standard incident report?
- A.
Summary
- B.
Impact
- C.
Item pass/fail criteria
- D.
Incident description
Correct Answer
D. Incident descriptionExplanation
The given statement describes the behavior of the system when the tester enters an invalid input. It provides details about the expected error message and the actual response of the system. This information is typically included in the incident description section of an incident report, where the tester describes the specific incident or issue encountered during testing.Rate this question:
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- 19.
According to the ISTQB Glossary, what do we call a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation?
- A.
A bug report
- B.
A defect report
- C.
An incident report
- D.
A test summary report
Correct Answer
C. An incident reportExplanation
An incident report is a document that describes any event that occurred during testing which requires further investigation. It is used to document and track any unexpected or abnormal behavior observed during the testing process. This report provides detailed information about the incident, including its description, steps to reproduce, severity, priority, and any other relevant details. It helps the testing team to analyze and resolve the issue effectively, ensuring the quality and reliability of the software being tested.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A product risk analysis is performed during the planning stage of the test process. During the execution stage of the test process, the test manager directs the testers to classify each defect report by the known product risk it relates to (or to 'other'). Once a week, the test manager runs a report that shows the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks. What is one possible use of such a report?
- A.
To identify new risks to system quality.
- B.
To locate defect clusters in product subsystems.
- C.
To check risk coverage by tests.
- D.
To measure exploratory testing.
Correct Answer
A. To identify new risks to system quality.Explanation
One possible use of the report is to identify new risks to system quality. By analyzing the percentage of defects related to each known product risk and to unknown risks, the test manager can identify any patterns or trends that may indicate new risks that were not initially considered. This information can then be used to update the risk analysis and adjust the test strategy accordingly, ensuring that all potential risks to system quality are addressed.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Feb 21, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Nov 12, 2011Quiz Created by
Akre_minal
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