ISTQB Mock Test 4

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following statements is TRUE about 'pesticide paradox'?

    • A.

      A small number of modules contain most of the defects discovered during per-release testing or show the most operational failures.

    • B.

      Testing can show defects are present , but cannot prove that there are no defects.

    • C.

      If same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find any new bugs.

    • D.

      Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusual and does not fulfill the user's needs and requirements.

    Correct Answer
    C. If same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find any new bugs.
    Explanation
    The statement that is TRUE about the 'pesticide paradox' is that if the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer find any new bugs. This is because as the system is tested repeatedly with the same set of test cases, the bugs that are initially discovered and fixed will no longer be present, leading to a decrease in the number of new bugs found. This highlights the need for regularly updating and diversifying the test cases to ensure that new bugs can be detected.

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  • 2. 

    What are the fundamental test activities for all levels of test placed in right order ?

    • A.

      Planning and control ; Test analysis ; Test Strategy , Test Design ; test closure activities

    • B.

      Planning and control ; test strategy , test approach , implementation and execution ; evaluate exit criteria and reporting .

    • C.

      Planning and control ; analysis and design ; implementation and execution ; test closure activities ; evaluate exit criteria and reporting

    • D.

      Planning and control ; analysis and design ; implementation and execution ; evaluate exit criteria and reporting ; test closure activities

    Correct Answer
    C. Planning and control ; analysis and design ; implementation and execution ; test closure activities ; evaluate exit criteria and reporting
    Explanation
    The correct order of fundamental test activities for all levels of test is as follows: Planning and control, analysis and design, implementation and execution, test closure activities, and evaluate exit criteria and reporting. This order ensures that the testing process is properly planned and controlled, followed by analyzing and designing the tests. Then, the tests are implemented and executed, and finally, the results are evaluated, exit criteria are assessed, and a report is generated. This order ensures a systematic and organized approach to testing, leading to effective and efficient results.

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  • 3. 

    All of the following are the incremental development models except one , which one is that ?

    • A.

      Rapid Unified Process

    • B.

      Rapid Application Development

    • C.

      Prototyping

    • D.

      Spiral Model

    Correct Answer
    D. Spiral Model
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the incremental development model that is not included in the given options. The options provided are Rapid Unified Process, Rapid Application Development, Prototyping, and Spiral Model. The correct answer is Spiral Model, as it is the only option that is not an incremental development model. The Spiral Model is a risk-driven software development process model that combines elements of both waterfall and iterative development approaches. It emphasizes on risk analysis and mitigation throughout the development process.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following statements regarding the functional and non-functional testing is TRUE ?

    • A.

      Functionality testing focuses on suitability , interoperability and compliance ; non-functional testing focuses on performance testing, load testing and stress testing

    • B.

      Functional testing is the testing of 'how well' the system works ; non-functional testing is the testing of ' what the system does'.

    • C.

      Functional testing is performed at all test levels ; non-functional testing is performed only at the integration and system levels.

    • D.

      Functionality testing considers the specified behavior and is also called as black -box testing ; non-functionality testing is often called as specification-based testing

    Correct Answer
    A. Functionality testing focuses on suitability , interoperability and compliance ; non-functional testing focuses on performance testing, load testing and stress testing
    Explanation
    Functional testing focuses on testing the suitability, interoperability, and compliance of the system, while non-functional testing focuses on performance testing, load testing, and stress testing. This means that functional testing is concerned with how well the system works, while non-functional testing is concerned with what the system does. This answer accurately describes the differences between functional and non-functional testing and aligns with commonly accepted definitions and practices in software testing.

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  • 5. 

    What is the MAJOR objective of reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing ?

    • A.

      Identifying defects

    • B.

      Both a and c

    • C.

      Fixing defects

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Identifying defects
    Explanation
    The major objective of reviews, static analysis, and dynamic testing is to identify defects. These activities are conducted to thoroughly examine the software or system being tested in order to uncover any flaws or errors that may exist. By identifying defects, the development team can take appropriate actions to address and fix them, ultimately improving the quality and reliability of the software or system.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following statements about sanity testing is UNTRUE?

    • A.

      A sanity test is a narrow regression test that focuses on one or a few areas of functionality

    • B.

      A sanity test is scripted , either using a written set of tests or an automated test.

    • C.

      Sanity testing is a cursor testing.

    • D.

      Sanity testing is usually narrow and deep.

    Correct Answer
    B. A sanity test is scripted , either using a written set of tests or an automated test.
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. A sanity test is not necessarily scripted, as it can be performed informally by the testers without any specific test cases or scripts. It is a quick check to ensure that the basic functionality of the system is working as expected after making minor changes or fixes. Therefore, the statement that a sanity test is scripted is untrue.

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  • 7. 

    Who is responsible for the test readiness review ?

    • A.

      Test Reviewer

    • B.

      Author

    • C.

      Test Manager

    • D.

      Inspector

    Correct Answer
    C. Test Manager
    Explanation
    The test readiness review is a process conducted before the start of testing to ensure that all necessary resources, documentation, and conditions are in place for testing to begin. The responsibility for conducting this review lies with the Test Manager. The Test Manager is responsible for overseeing the testing activities, coordinating with the team members, and ensuring that all prerequisites for testing are met. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the testing process is well-prepared and ready to proceed smoothly.

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  • 8. 

    Exhaustive test suite would include :

    • A.

      All sets of input values and preconditions.

    • B.

      All sets of input values and actual results.

    • C.

      All sets of input values and postconditions

    • D.

      All sets of input values and output values.

    Correct Answer
    D. All sets of input values and output values.
    Explanation
    An exhaustive test suite includes all sets of input values and output values. This means that every possible combination of input values is tested, and the corresponding output values are checked to ensure the system functions correctly for all scenarios. This comprehensive approach helps identify any potential errors or bugs in the system by covering a wide range of test cases.

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  • 9. 

    When testing a student's grade report,  a tester determines that all scores between 85 and 100 yield  a of  Grade 'A+' , but scores below 85 will not. What type of analysis is this?

    • A.

      Boundary value analysis

    • B.

      Decision Table Testing.

    • C.

      State transition testing

    • D.

      Equivalence partitioning.

    Correct Answer
    D. Equivalence partitioning.
    Explanation
    This is an example of equivalence partitioning because the tester has identified two partitions - scores between 85 and 100 and scores below 85. The tester is treating all scores within each partition as equivalent and expects the same outcome (Grade 'A+') for all scores within the first partition, and a different outcome (not Grade 'A+') for all scores within the second partition.

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  • 10. 

    Which technique is used for both, input and output coverage ?

    • A.

      Boundary value analysis

    • B.

      Equivalence partitioning

    • C.

      State transition testing

    • D.

      Decision Table testing

    Correct Answer
    B. Equivalence partitioning
    Explanation
    Equivalence partitioning is a technique used for both input and output coverage. It involves dividing the input and output values into equivalent classes or partitions, where each partition represents a unique set of inputs or outputs that are expected to behave in the same way. By selecting test cases from each partition, this technique ensures that a representative set of inputs and outputs is covered, maximizing test coverage while minimizing the number of test cases needed. Therefore, equivalence partitioning is a suitable technique for achieving both input and output coverage.

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  • 11. 

     Which of the following is TRUE about Validation ?i. Helps to check that we have built the right product .ii. Helps in developing the product.iii. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoletness.iv. Halps to check the quality of the built product.

    • A.

      Ii , iii are correct ; i , iii are incorrect.

    • B.

      I is correst ; ii, iii , iv are incorrect.

    • C.

      I and ii are correct; iii, iv are incorrect.

    • D.

      I and iii are correct ; ii , iv are incorrect.

    Correct Answer
    B. I is correst ; ii, iii , iv are incorrect.
    Explanation
    Validation helps to check that we have built the right product. It ensures that the product meets the specified requirements and satisfies the needs of the stakeholders. However, it does not directly contribute to the development of the product itself. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness is not a direct function of validation. Checking the quality of the built product is typically performed during the verification process, not validation. Therefore, the correct answer is "i is correct; ii, iii, iv are incorrect."

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  • 12. 

    Stochastic testing is an example of which test strategy ?

    • A.

      Methodical

    • B.

      Analytical

    • C.

      Model-based

    • D.

      Heuristic

    Correct Answer
    C. Model-based
    Explanation
    Stochastic testing is an example of a model-based test strategy. In this approach, testing is performed based on probabilistic models that simulate real-world scenarios. It involves randomly selecting inputs and executing tests to observe the system's behavior under different conditions. This strategy helps identify potential issues and vulnerabilities that may not be discovered using other test strategies.

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  • 13. 

    Who typically use static analysis tools?

    • A.

      System and acceptance testers.

    • B.

      Customers and users

    • C.

      Business and system analysts.

    • D.

      Developers and designers

    Correct Answer
    D. Developers and designers
    Explanation
    Developers and designers typically use static analysis tools. These tools help them identify and fix potential issues in their code, such as bugs, security vulnerabilities, and coding standards violations. By using static analysis tools, developers and designers can ensure the quality and reliability of their software before it is deployed. System and acceptance testers may also use these tools to verify that the software meets the required specifications, but their primary users are developers and designers.

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  • 14. 

    For any risk , project or product , what are typically the risk-management options ?

    • A.

      Mitigate; contingency; Buy insurance; Have a plan in place to reduce the impact should the risk become an outcome.

    • B.

      Mitigate; Do nothing ; Ignore; Take steps in advance to reduce the likelihood

    • C.

      Mitigate ; Contingency; Transfer; Ignore

    • D.

      Mitigate; Ignore; Avoid; Transfer

    Correct Answer
    C. Mitigate ; Contingency; Transfer; Ignore
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that for any risk, project, or product, the typical risk-management options include mitigating the risk by taking steps in advance to reduce the likelihood, having contingency plans in place to reduce the impact if the risk becomes an outcome, transferring the risk through insurance or other means, and potentially ignoring the risk if it is deemed acceptable or insignificant.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a part of  IEEE 829 Test Item Transmittal Report Template ?

    • A.

      Location

    • B.

      Test Deliverables

    • C.

      Transmitted items

    • D.

      Status

    Correct Answer
    B. Test Deliverables
    Explanation
    The Test Deliverables is not a part of the IEEE 829 Test Item Transmittal Report Template. The template includes sections for Location, Transmitted items, and Status, but does not include a section for Test Deliverables. The Test Deliverables are typically listed separately in a different document or section of the test plan.

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  • 16. 

    What is quality?

    • A.

      Meeting and exceeding the customer's expectations.

    • B.

      Adding extra to make the customer happy.

    • C.

      The degree to which the project meets the reuirements.

    • D.

      Conformance to management's objectives.

    Correct Answer
    C. The degree to which the project meets the reuirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The degree to which the project meets the requirements." This answer accurately defines quality as the extent to which a project fulfills the specified requirements. It implies that a high-quality project is one that successfully meets all the necessary criteria and delivers the expected outcomes.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is  NOT part of the test implementation and  test execution phase ?

    • A.

      Designing the tests.

    • B.

      Comparing actual results.

    • C.

      Creating test suites from the test cases.

    • D.

      Executing test cases manually or either by test execution tools.

    Correct Answer
    A. Designing the tests.
    Explanation
    During the test implementation and test execution phase, various activities are carried out such as comparing actual results, creating test suites from the test cases, and executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools. However, designing the tests is not a part of this phase. Test design is typically done in the test planning phase, where test objectives, test conditions, and test cases are identified. In the test implementation and test execution phase, the focus is on executing the already designed test cases and analyzing the results.

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  • 18. 

    What information is typically shown in a IEEE 829 Test Log Template ?i. Items being tested, environment in which the testing was conducted.ii. execution description, procedure results, environmental information, anomaloue events, incident report identifiers.iii.Features to be tested.iv. Schedule

    • A.

      I, ii are correct ; iii , iv are incorrect.

    • B.

      I, iii are correct; ii , iv are incorrect.

    • C.

      Ii , iii are correct ; i and iv are incorrect

    • D.

      I , ii , iii , iv are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. I, ii are correct ; iii , iv are incorrect.
    Explanation
    The IEEE 829 Test Log Template typically includes information about the items being tested and the environment in which the testing was conducted. It also includes the execution description, procedure results, environmental information, anomalous events, and incident report identifiers. However, it does not typically include features to be tested or the schedule. Therefore, option i, ii are correct; iii, iv are incorrect.

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  • 19. 

    What is the KEY characteristic of structure-based testing?

    • A.

      They are used both to measure coverage and design tests to increase coverage.

    • B.

      They use a formal or informal model of the software / component.

    • C.

      They are mainly used to access the structure of a spcification.

    • D.

      They are based on the skills and the experience of the tester.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are used both to measure coverage and design tests to increase coverage.
    Explanation
    Structure-based testing is focused on testing the internal structure of a software or component. The key characteristic of structure-based testing is that it is used both to measure coverage and design tests to increase coverage. This means that it not only ensures that the software or component is tested thoroughly, but also helps in identifying areas that have not been covered by testing and designing tests to improve coverage. By using this approach, testers can ensure that all parts of the software or component are tested and potential defects are identified and addressed.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following are the EXTERNAL factors that influence the decision about which technique to use ?

    • A.

      Documentation

    • B.

      Risk

    • C.

      Life cycle Model

    • D.

      Tester experience

    Correct Answer
    B. Risk
    Explanation
    Risk is considered an external factor that influences the decision about which technique to use. When making a decision, the level of risk associated with each technique should be assessed. Factors such as the likelihood of failure, impact on the project, and potential consequences should be considered. By evaluating the risks involved, decision-makers can choose the most appropriate technique that minimizes potential negative outcomes and maximizes the chances of success.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following statements about decision coverage are TRUE ?i. Decision coverage is stronger that statement coverage.ii . 100 % decision coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage and vice versa.iii. 100% decision coverage always guarantees 100% statement coverage.iv. 100 % decision coverage can never be achieved.

    • A.

      I, ii, iii are correct ; iv is incorrect.

    • B.

      I , iii are correct ; ii , iv are incorrect.

    • C.

      I , ii, iv are correct ; iii is incorrect

    • D.

      Ii , iii .are correct ; i , iv are incorrect

    Correct Answer
    B. I , iii are correct ; ii , iv are incorrect.
    Explanation
    Decision coverage is a measure of how many decision outcomes have been tested. It is stronger than statement coverage because statement coverage only measures if each statement has been executed at least once, while decision coverage ensures that all possible decision outcomes have been tested. However, 100% decision coverage does not guarantee 100% statement coverage and vice versa because there can be multiple statements within a decision outcome. Therefore, statement ii is incorrect. Statement iv is also incorrect because 100% decision coverage can be achieved if all possible decision outcomes are tested.

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  • 22. 

    For the program below , how many test cases are neede to achieve 100% statement coverage ?READ AREAD BC = A + (2 *B)IF C >100 THENPRINT 'LARGE C'ENDIF

    • A.

      SC = 2 ; DC = 2

    • B.

      SC = 1; DC = 2

    • C.

      SC = 2; DC = 1

    • D.

      SC = 1; DC = 1

    Correct Answer
    B. SC = 1; DC = 2
    Explanation
    To achieve 100% statement coverage, we need to ensure that every statement in the program is executed at least once. In this program, there are four statements: READ A, READ B, IF C > 100 THEN, and PRINT 'LARGE C'. The given answer SC = 1; DC = 2 means that there is one test case where statement coverage is achieved, but decision coverage is not. This implies that the IF statement has not been executed in this particular test case. Therefore, to achieve 100% statement coverage, we need at least one additional test case where the condition C > 100 is true, so that the IF statement is executed and the PRINT statement is also executed.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following are the static testing techniques ?

    • A.

      Statement coverage

    • B.

      Walkthroughs

    • C.

      Error guessing

    • D.

      State transition testing

    Correct Answer
    B. Walkthroughs
    Explanation
    Walkthroughs are a type of static testing technique where the author of the document or code leads a group of reviewers through the material, explaining it and answering questions. The purpose of a walkthrough is to find defects, improve the quality of the material, and ensure that it meets the specified requirements. It is a collaborative approach that allows for early detection of issues and promotes knowledge sharing among team members. Therefore, walkthroughs are considered one of the static testing techniques.

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  • 24. 

    The value of static analysis is especially for :i. Early detection of defects prior to test exectution.ii. Early warning about suspicious aspects of the code. iii. Identification of defects not easily found in dynamic testing.iv. Imrpoved maintainability of the code and design.

    • A.

      I , ii, iii are correct ; iv is incorrect

    • B.

      Ii, iv are correct ; i, iii are incorrect

    • C.

      I ,ii , iii , iv are correct

    • D.

      I, iii are correct ; ii, iv are incorrect.

    Correct Answer
    C. I ,ii , iii , iv are correct
    Explanation
    Static analysis is valuable for several reasons. Firstly, it helps in the early detection of defects before executing tests. This allows for timely fixes and reduces the chances of bugs occurring during runtime. Secondly, it provides early warnings about suspicious aspects of the code, allowing developers to address potential issues before they become major problems. Thirdly, static analysis can identify defects that may not be easily found through dynamic testing, providing a more comprehensive assessment of the code's quality. Lastly, static analysis contributes to improved maintainability of the code and design, making it easier to understand, modify, and update in the future.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is the success factor of the review ?

    • A.

      Find a 'champion'

    • B.

      Train participants

    • C.

      Manage people issues

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The success factor of the review is determined by finding a 'champion' who can lead the process effectively, training the participants to ensure they have the necessary skills and knowledge, and managing any people issues that may arise during the review. All of these factors are important for the review to be successful.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Inspection ?

    • A.

      Inspections help the author to improve the quality of the document under inspection.

    • B.

      Inspection create a common understanding by exchanging information among the participants.

    • C.

      Inspection is usually led by a trained moderator , but possibly also by a technical expert.

    • D.

      The defects found during inspection are documented in a logging list or issue log.

    Correct Answer
    C. Inspection is usually led by a trained moderator , but possibly also by a technical expert.
    Explanation
    Inspections are typically led by a trained moderator, not by a technical expert. The moderator's role is to facilitate the inspection process and ensure that all participants are following the inspection guidelines. The moderator is responsible for managing the inspection meeting, keeping the discussion focused, and ensuring that all relevant issues are addressed. While a technical expert may be present during the inspection to provide expertise on the subject matter, they do not typically lead the inspection.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following TRUE about maintenance testing?

    • A.

      Tests the changes.

    • B.

      Regression tests to show that the rest of the system has not been affected by the maintenance work.

    • C.

      Maintenance testing includes extensive regression testing to parts of the system that have not been changed.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    Maintenance testing is a type of testing that is performed to ensure that changes made to a system or software do not have any adverse effects on the rest of the system. It involves testing the changes made to the system, as well as conducting regression tests to verify that the rest of the system has not been impacted by the maintenance work. Additionally, maintenance testing includes extensive regression testing to parts of the system that have not been changed. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is NOT a non-functional characteristic ?

    • A.

      Interoperaibility

    • B.

      Usability

    • C.

      Reliability

    • D.

      Portability

    Correct Answer
    A. Interoperaibility
    Explanation
    The given question asks for a non-functional characteristic among the options provided. Interoperability refers to the ability of different systems or software to communicate and work together effectively. It is a functional characteristic rather than a non-functional one. Non-functional characteristics typically relate to the performance, behavior, and quality of a system, such as usability, reliability, and portability.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is NOT a test closure activity ?

    • A.

      Check which planned deliverables we actually delivered and ensure all incident reports have been resolved.

    • B.

      Evaluate how the testing went and analyze lessons learned.

    • C.

      Assess if more tests are needed.

    • D.

      Finalize and archive testware .

    Correct Answer
    C. Assess if more tests are needed.
    Explanation
    The activity of "Assess if more tests are needed" is not a test closure activity because it is related to the planning and execution of future tests, rather than the closure of the current testing phase. Test closure activities involve tasks such as checking the delivered planned deliverables, resolving incident reports, evaluating the testing process, analyzing lessons learned, and finalizing and archiving testware. Assessing if more tests are needed would fall under the activities of test planning or test execution, as it pertains to determining the need for additional tests in the future.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following  is one of the most important activities in any project , and is the key activity and the reason for testing ?

    • A.

      Schedule

    • B.

      Risk

    • C.

      Cost

    • D.

      Scope

    Correct Answer
    B. Risk
    Explanation
    Risk is one of the most important activities in any project because it involves identifying potential problems or uncertainties that could impact the project's success. By assessing and managing risks, project teams can proactively address potential issues and develop contingency plans. Testing is directly related to risk management as it helps identify and mitigate risks by ensuring that the project meets its objectives and quality standards. Therefore, risk is a key activity and the reason for testing in any project.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Quality?

    • A.

      Quality is measured by looking at the attributes of the product.

    • B.

      Quality is fitness for use.

    • C.

      Quality is based on good quality processes, and meeting defined requirements.

    • D.

      Everything must be tested

    Correct Answer
    D. Everything must be tested
    Explanation
    The given answer, "Everything must be tested," is not a characteristic of quality because quality is not solely determined by testing. While testing is an important part of ensuring quality, it is not the only factor. Quality is measured by looking at the attributes of the product, such as its performance, reliability, and durability. It is also about fitness for use, meaning that the product meets the needs and expectations of the customer. Additionally, quality is based on good quality processes and meeting defined requirements, which includes factors such as design, production, and customer satisfaction.

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  • 32. 

    When we think what might go wrong we have to consider defects and failures arising from :

    • A.

      Error in use of the systems

    • B.

      Environmental conditions

    • C.

      Intentional damage

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because when we think about what might go wrong, we need to consider all possible sources of defects and failures. Errors in the use of systems can lead to malfunctions or incorrect results. Environmental conditions such as extreme temperatures or humidity can also cause failures. Additionally, intentional damage, such as sabotage or hacking, can result in defects or failures. Therefore, considering all these factors is crucial in identifying potential risks and preventing problems.

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  • 33. 

    For a two-speed hair dryer , first press of the button turns it ON to speed 1 (state A) , second press of the button turns it to speed 2(state B) , and the third press of the button turns it to the OFF position (State C). Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage ?

    • A.

      B, C, A

    • B.

      A, B, C

    • C.

      C, B, A

    • D.

      A, C, B

    Correct Answer
    B. A, B, C
    Explanation
    The series of state transitions A, B, C covers all three states of the hair dryer: A (speed 1), B (speed 2), and C (OFF). This sequence ensures that all possible states are covered, providing 0-switch coverage.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following uses Impact analysis MOST ?

    • A.

      Component testing

    • B.

      Non-functional system testing

    • C.

      User acceptance testing

    • D.

      Maintenance testing.

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance testing.
    Explanation
    Maintenance testing is the process of testing a system after changes have been made in order to ensure that the system still functions correctly. Impact analysis is a technique used in maintenance testing to determine the potential effects of changes on the existing system. By analyzing the impact of changes, maintenance testing can prioritize and focus on the areas that are most likely to be affected. This helps in identifying and mitigating any potential risks or issues that may arise due to the changes. Therefore, maintenance testing uses impact analysis the most compared to the other options mentioned.

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  • 35. 

    Technical review is led by :

    • A.

      Only trained moderator

    • B.

      Trained moderator or by a technical expert

    • C.

      Only Technical expert.

    • D.

      None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    B. Trained moderator or by a technical expert
    Explanation
    Technical review is a process that involves analyzing and evaluating technical documents or projects. In order to ensure accuracy and effectiveness, this review is led by either a trained moderator or a technical expert. The trained moderator has the necessary skills and knowledge to oversee the review process, while a technical expert can provide expertise and insights specific to the technical aspects of the subject matter. Both options are suitable for leading a technical review, ensuring that it is thorough and comprehensive. Therefore, the correct answer is "Trained moderator or by a technical expert."

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following statements is UNTRUE ?

    • A.

      Use cases are a sequence of steps that describe the interactions between the actor and the system.

    • B.

      Use cases are defined in terms of the system.

    • C.

      Use cases often use the language and terms of the business rather than technical terms.

    • D.

      Use cases can uncover integration defects.

    Correct Answer
    B. Use cases are defined in terms of the system.
    Explanation
    Use cases are not defined in terms of the system, but rather in terms of the actor (user or external system) and their interactions with the system. Use cases describe the functionality or behavior of the system from the perspective of the actors involved, rather than focusing on the internal workings of the system itself.

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  • 37. 

    We can measure coverage for each of the following techniques EXCEPT :

    • A.

      EV

    • B.

      BVA

    • C.

      Decision table testing

    • D.

      Software that has not been written.

    Correct Answer
    D. Software that has not been written.
    Explanation
    The given question asks about the techniques for measuring coverage, and we need to identify the technique that is not applicable for this purpose. EV (Equivalence Partitioning), BVA (Boundary Value Analysis), and Decision table testing are all commonly used techniques to measure coverage in software testing. However, measuring coverage for software that has not been written is not possible, as there is no code or functionality to analyze. Therefore, the correct answer is "Software that has not been written."

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is a glass-box testing technique?

    • A.

      Condition Combination Coverage

    • B.

      LCSAJ

    • C.

      MCDS

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Glass-box testing is a technique where the internal structure, design, and implementation details of the software are known and used to create test cases. Condition Combination Coverage, LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump), and MCDS (Modified Condition/Decision Coverage) are all examples of glass-box testing techniques. These techniques involve analyzing the code and its logical conditions to ensure that all possible combinations, sequences, and decisions are tested. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" as all three options are glass-box testing techniques.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the tester ?

    • A.

      Testers should review and contribute to the test plans, as well as analyzing , reviewing and accessing requirements and design specifications.

    • B.

      Tester's review each other's work throughout the testing life cycle.

    • C.

      They might implement unit tests which were designed by the programmers.

    • D.

      They write summary reports on test status.

    Correct Answer
    D. They write summary reports on test status.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of writing summary reports on test status is not assigned to the tester. The other responsibilities mentioned, such as reviewing and contributing to test plans, analyzing requirements and design specifications, reviewing each other's work, and implementing unit tests, are all part of the tester's role. However, the task of writing summary reports on test status is typically assigned to a test manager or a test lead, who consolidates the information provided by the testers and prepares the summary reports for communication and decision-making purposes.

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  • 40. 

    What is NOT included in the IEEE 829 Test Summary Report ?

    • A.

      Variaces

    • B.

      Summary of activities

    • C.

      Comprehensive assessment

    • D.

      Impact

    Correct Answer
    D. Impact
    Explanation
    The IEEE 829 Test Summary Report is a document that provides a comprehensive assessment of the testing activities conducted. It includes a summary of activities performed during testing, such as test design, execution, and results. It also includes any variances found during testing, which are deviations from the expected results. However, the report does not include information about the impact of the testing activities, such as the effect on the project timeline or budget.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 23, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Salbhar
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