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Which of the following is a MAJOR activity of Demand Management?
A.
Understanding patterns of business activity
B.
Increasing customer value
C.
Aligning the business with IT cost
D.
Increasing the value of IT
Correct Answer
A. Understanding patterns of business activity
Explanation Demand management involves understanding patterns of business activity in order to effectively plan and forecast demand for goods or services. By analyzing historical data and trends, organizations can identify peak periods, seasonality, and other factors that impact demand. This information helps in making informed decisions regarding inventory management, production scheduling, and resource allocation. Understanding patterns of business activity is crucial for meeting customer demands, optimizing operational efficiency, and ensuring business success.
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2.
The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
A.
Information Security Management staff only
B.
Senior business managers and all IT staff only
C.
Senior business managers, IT executives and the Information Security Manager only
D.
All customers, users and IT staff
Correct Answer
D. All customers, users and IT staff
Explanation The Information Security Policy should be available to all customers, users, and IT staff. This is because all these groups of people have a role in ensuring the security of the information. Customers and users need to be aware of the policy so that they can adhere to it and understand their responsibilities in protecting the information. IT staff, on the other hand, need to be familiar with the policy in order to implement and enforce security measures effectively. By making the policy available to all these groups, the organization can ensure that everyone is on the same page when it comes to information security.
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3.
Which of the following should IT services deliver to customers?
A.
Risk
B.
Cost
C.
Capabilities
D.
Value
Correct Answer
D. Value
Explanation IT services should deliver value to customers. This means that the services provided should bring benefits and meet the needs and expectations of the customers. Value can be measured in terms of the positive impact the services have on the customer's business, such as increased efficiency, improved productivity, cost savings, or enhanced customer satisfaction. By delivering value, IT services contribute to the overall success and competitiveness of the customer's organization.
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4.
Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of activities for handling an incident?
Prioritization, Identification, Logging, Categorization, Initial Diagnosis, Functional Escalation, Investigation and Diagnosis, Resolution and Recovery, Closure
C.
Identification, Logging, Initial Diagnosis, Categorization, Prioritization, Functional Escalation, Resolution and Recovery, Investigation and Diagnosis, Closure
D.
Identification, Logging, Categorization, Prioritization, Initial Diagnosis, Functional Escalation, Investigation and Diagnosis, Resolution and Recovery, Closure
Correct Answer
D. Identification, Logging, Categorization, Prioritization, Initial Diagnosis, Functional Escalation, Investigation and Diagnosis, Resolution and Recovery, Closure
Explanation The correct sequence of activities for handling an incident is as follows: Identification, Logging, Categorization, Prioritization, Initial Diagnosis, Functional Escalation, Investigation and Diagnosis, Resolution and Recovery, Closure. This sequence ensures that the incident is properly identified, logged, categorized, and prioritized. After that, an initial diagnosis is made, followed by functional escalation if necessary. Investigation and diagnosis are then conducted to determine the root cause of the incident. Finally, resolution and recovery measures are implemented, and the incident is closed.
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5.
Which statement about the relationship between the Configuration Management System (CMS) and the Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is CORRECT?
A.
The CMS forms part of the SKMS
B.
There is no relationship between the CMS and the SKMS
C.
The CMS and SKMS are the same thing
D.
The SKMS is part of the CMS
Correct Answer
A. The CMS forms part of the SKMS
Explanation The correct answer is that the CMS forms part of the SKMS. This means that the Configuration Management System (CMS) is a component of the Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS). The SKMS is a broader system that includes other components such as the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) and other knowledge management tools. The CMS specifically focuses on managing and controlling the configuration items and their relationships within the broader SKMS.
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6.
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
A.
Thorough testing to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
B.
To manage the technology used to deliver services
C.
To deliver and manage IT services
D.
To monitor the performance of technology and processes
Correct Answer
A. Thorough testing to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
Explanation The objective of Service Operation is to deliver and manage IT services, manage the technology used to deliver services, and monitor the performance of technology and processes. Thorough testing to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs is not an objective of Service Operation.
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7.
A technician uses a pre-defined technique to restore service as the incident has been seen before.This is an example of which of the following?
A.
A workaround
B.
A standard change
C.
A standard change
D.
A service capability
Correct Answer
A. A workaround
Explanation A workaround refers to a temporary solution or alternative method that is used to address an issue or problem when the standard or preferred approach is not available or effective. In this case, the technician is using a pre-defined technique to restore service because they have encountered a similar incident before. This demonstrates the use of a workaround to resolve the issue at hand.
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8.
Which of the following would be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?1. Copies of purchased software2. Copies of internally developed software3. Relevant licence documentation4. The Change Schedule
A.
All of the above
B.
3 and 4 only
C.
1, 2 and 3 only
D.
1 and 2 only
Correct Answer
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation The Definitive Media Library (DML) is a secure library where copies of purchased software, internally developed software, and relevant license documentation are stored. The DML is used to manage and control the distribution, access, and versioning of these assets. The Change Schedule, on the other hand, is not typically stored in the DML as it is a document that outlines the schedule for implementing changes in the organization's IT systems. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3 only.
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9.
What does the term Operations Control refer to?
A.
Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
B.
It is the tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications
C.
Managing the Technical and Applications Management functions
D.
It is the Service Desk monitoring the status of the infrastructure when operators are not available
Correct Answer
A. Overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events
Explanation Operations Control refers to the process of overseeing the execution and monitoring of operational activities and events. This involves ensuring that all operational tasks and events are carried out efficiently and effectively, and monitoring their progress to identify any issues or deviations from the plan. It is a crucial function in managing and maintaining the smooth operation of an organization's activities and events.
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10.
Which of the following statements about the Service Desk is/are CORRECT?1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational issues2. The Service Desk should be the owner of the Problem Management process
A.
Both of the above
B.
Neither of the above
C.
1 only
D.
2 only
Correct Answer
C. 1 only
Explanation The correct answer is "1 only". This is because the first statement accurately describes the Service Desk as a function that facilitates communication between IT and its users for all operational issues. However, the second statement is incorrect as the Service Desk is not necessarily the owner of the Problem Management process.
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11.
Which of the following can be described as "Self-Contained units of organizations"?
A.
Processes
B.
Roles
C.
Functions
D.
Procedures
Correct Answer
C. Functions
Explanation Functions can be described as "self-contained units of organizations" because they represent specific areas or departments within an organization that perform a distinct set of tasks or activities. Functions are responsible for carrying out specific objectives and goals, and they often have their own resources, personnel, and responsibilities. They operate independently within the larger organization and are designed to efficiently and effectively fulfill their designated roles.
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12.
What is the MAIN goal of Availability Management?
A.
To monitor and report availability of components
B.
To ensure that all targets in the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
C.
To guarantee availability levels for services and components
D.
To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business
Correct Answer
D. To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business
Explanation The main goal of Availability Management is to ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business. This means that the availability of services should meet the requirements and expectations of the business, ensuring that they are able to function and operate effectively. It involves monitoring, measuring, and reporting on the availability of services and components, as well as implementing measures to guarantee the desired availability levels. By doing so, Availability Management helps to minimize disruptions and downtime, ensuring that the business can continue to deliver services to its customers without interruption.
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13.
Which of the following statements about Problem Management is/are CORRECT?1. It ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a Configuration Item (CI) are submitted through Change Management2. It provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems
A.
Neither of the above
B.
1 only
C.
2 only
D.
Both of the above
Correct Answer
D. Both of the above
Explanation Problem Management ensures that all resolutions or workarounds that require a change to a Configuration Item (CI) are submitted through Change Management. This is important to maintain control and ensure that changes are properly documented and approved. Additionally, Problem Management provides management information about the cost of resolving and preventing problems. This information is valuable for decision-making and resource allocation purposes. Therefore, both statements are correct.
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14.
Which of the following is NOT a type of metric described in Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
A.
Personnel Metrics
B.
Process Metrics
C.
Technology Metrics
D.
Service Metrics
Correct Answer
A. Personnel Metrics
Explanation Personnel Metrics is not a type of metric described in Continual Service Improvement (CSI). CSI focuses on the improvement of processes, technology, and services within an organization. Personnel Metrics, on the other hand, typically measure the performance and effectiveness of individuals or teams within an organization, and are not directly related to the improvement of services or processes.
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15.
What is the RACI model used for?
A.
Analyzing the business impact of an incident
B.
Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of service management
C.
Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
D.
Defining requirements for a new service or process
Correct Answer
C. Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
Explanation The RACI model is used for documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity. It helps to clarify and define the responsibilities of each stakeholder involved in a project or task, ensuring that everyone understands their role and contribution. The model identifies four key roles: Responsible (the person accountable for completing the task), Accountable (the person ultimately responsible for the task's success), Consulted (those who provide input or expertise), and Informed (those who need to be kept up to date on progress). By using the RACI model, organizations can improve communication, collaboration, and accountability within their processes and activities.
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16.
Which statement about value creation through services is CORRECT?
A.
Delivering service provider outcomes is important in the value of a service
B.
Service provider preferences drive the value perception of a service
C.
The value of a service can only ever be measured in financial terms
D.
The customer's perception of the service is an important factor in value creation
Correct Answer
D. The customer's perception of the service is an important factor in value creation
Explanation The customer's perception of the service is an important factor in value creation. This means that the value of a service is not solely determined by financial terms or the service provider's preferences. Instead, it is influenced by how the customer perceives and experiences the service. If the customer perceives the service to be valuable and beneficial, then value is created. This highlights the significance of understanding and meeting customer expectations and needs in order to create value through services.
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17.
Which of the following is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?
A.
A written agreement between the IT service provider and their customer(s) defining key targets and responsibilities of both parties
B.
An agreement between a 3rd party Service Desk and the IT customer about fix and response times
C.
An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization that assists in the provision of services
D.
An agreement between two service providers about the levels of service required by the customer
Correct Answer
C. An agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization that assists in the provision of services
Explanation An Operational Level Agreement (OLA) is an agreement between an IT service provider and another part of the same organization that assists in the provision of services. This agreement outlines the responsibilities and targets of both parties in order to ensure the smooth delivery of services. It is specifically focused on the internal workings of the organization and does not involve external parties or customers.
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18.
Which of the following is an activity of the Service Asset and Configuration Management process?
A.
Specify the relevant attributes of each Configuration Item (CI)
B.
Account for all the financial assets of the organization
C.
Design service models to justify ITIL implementations
D.
Implement ITIL across the organization
Correct Answer
A. Specify the relevant attributes of each Configuration Item (CI)
Explanation The correct answer is "Specify the relevant attributes of each Configuration Item (CI)". The Service Asset and Configuration Management process is responsible for maintaining information about Configuration Items (CIs) and their relationships. This includes specifying the relevant attributes of each CI, such as its version, location, owner, and relationships with other CIs. This helps in effectively managing and controlling the CIs throughout their lifecycle. The other options mentioned, such as accounting for financial assets, designing service models, and implementing ITIL, are not specific activities of the Service Asset and Configuration Management process.
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19.
Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components?
A.
Incident Management
B.
Service Portfolio Management
C.
Service Level Management
D.
Service Asset and Configuration Management
Correct Answer
D. Service Asset and Configuration Management
Explanation Service Asset and Configuration Management is responsible for recording relationships between service components. This process ensures that accurate and up-to-date information about the configuration of assets and their relationships is maintained in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). By recording these relationships, Service Asset and Configuration Management helps to establish a clear understanding of how different service components are connected and how changes to one component may impact others. This information is crucial for effective change management, problem management, and overall service delivery.
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20.
Which of the following are the Four Ps of Service Design?
A.
People, Partners, Products, Processes
B.
Planning, Perspective, Position, People
C.
Perspective, Partners, Problems, People
D.
Planning, Products, Position, Processes
Correct Answer
A. People, Partners, Products, Processes
Explanation The Four Ps of Service Design are People, Partners, Products, and Processes. These four elements are essential in designing and delivering a successful service. People refer to the customers and employees involved in the service. Partners are the external entities that collaborate with the service provider. Products include the tangible and intangible aspects of the service. Processes are the procedures and systems used to deliver the service effectively.
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21.
Which statement BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
A.
The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
B.
The ability to detect events, restore normal service as soon as possible and minimize the adverse impact on business operations
C.
The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices
D.
The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
Correct Answer
A. The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
Explanation The purpose of Event Management is to detect events, make sense of them, and determine the appropriate control action. This involves identifying and understanding events that occur within a system, analyzing their impact, and taking necessary actions to mitigate any potential issues or disruptions. It is focused on proactive monitoring, problem identification, and resolution to ensure the smooth functioning of business operations.
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22.
What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
A.
To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made during particularly volatile business periods
B.
To assist the Change Manager by implementing emergency changes
C.
To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process so that no unacceptable delays occur
D.
To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether they should be approved
Correct Answer
D. To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether they should be approved
Explanation The role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is to assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and deciding whether they should be approved. This means that the ECAB helps in assessing the impact and risks associated with emergency changes and determining if they are necessary and appropriate. Their involvement ensures that there is a proper evaluation process in place for emergency changes, helping to maintain control and make informed decisions.
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23.
Which of the following does Service Transition provide guidance on?1. Moving new and changed services into production2. Testing and Validation3. Transfer of services to or from an external service provider
A.
All of the above
B.
2 only
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
1 and 3 only
Correct Answer
A. All of the above
Explanation Service Transition provides guidance on all of the options mentioned. It includes the process of moving new and changed services into production, which ensures a smooth transition and minimizes disruption to the business. It also includes testing and validation, which helps to ensure that the services meet the required quality standards before being deployed. Additionally, Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external service provider, which involves managing the transition and ensuring that the services are effectively transferred and integrated.
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24.
Which of the following are valid elements of a Service Design Package?1. Agreed and documented business requirements2. A service definition for transition and operation of the service3. Requirements for new or changed processes4. Metrics to measure the service
A.
2 and 3 only
B.
All of the above
C.
1 only
D.
1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer
B. All of the above
Explanation All of the elements listed in the options are valid elements of a Service Design Package. Agreed and documented business requirements are important for designing a service that meets the needs of the business. A service definition for transition and operation of the service is necessary for ensuring smooth implementation and ongoing operation. Requirements for new or changed processes are essential for designing efficient and effective processes to support the service. Metrics to measure the service are crucial for monitoring and evaluating its performance. Therefore, all of the above options are valid elements of a Service Design Package.
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25.
What is the purpose of the Request Fulfilment Process?
A.
Making sure all requests within an IT organization are fulfilled
B.
Making sure the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is met
C.
Dealing with service requests from the users
D.
Ensuring fulfilment of change requests
Correct Answer
C. Dealing with service requests from the users
Explanation The purpose of the Request Fulfilment Process is to deal with service requests from the users. This process ensures that all user requests are handled and resolved in a timely and efficient manner. It involves managing the lifecycle of service requests, from initial logging to final resolution. By focusing on addressing user requests, the Request Fulfilment Process helps to improve customer satisfaction and meet their service expectations.
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26.
Which of the following represents the BEST course of action to take when a problem workaround is found?
A.
The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented within it
B.
The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented on all related incident records
C.
The problem record is closed
D.
The problem record is closed and details of the workaround are documented in a Request for Change (RFC)
Correct Answer
A. The problem record remains open and details of the workaround are documented within it
Explanation When a problem workaround is found, the best course of action is to keep the problem record open and document the details of the workaround within it. This allows for ongoing tracking and management of the problem, ensuring that all relevant information is recorded and easily accessible. Closing the problem record or documenting the workaround in a separate RFC may result in the loss of valuable information and hinder the resolution process. Similarly, documenting the workaround only on related incident records may not provide a comprehensive view of the problem and its resolution.
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27.
Which of the following are examples of tools that might support the Service Transition phase of the Lifecycle?1. A tool to store definitive versions of software2. A workflow tool for managing changes3. An automated software distribution tool4. Testing and validation tools
A.
1, 2 and 3 only
B.
1, 3 and 4 only
C.
2, 3 and 4 only
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation All of the mentioned tools can support the Service Transition phase of the Lifecycle. A tool to store definitive versions of software helps in managing and controlling the different versions of software during the transition phase. A workflow tool for managing changes helps in documenting and tracking the changes made during the transition phase. An automated software distribution tool assists in the smooth distribution and deployment of software during the transition phase. Testing and validation tools are essential for ensuring the quality and reliability of the software being transitioned. Therefore, all of these tools are examples of tools that might support the Service Transition phase of the Lifecycle.
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28.
Which of the following basic concepts are included in Access Management?1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorised users3. Defining security policies for system access4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
A.
2 and 4 only
B.
2 and 3 only
C.
1 and 3 only
D.
1 and 2 only
Correct Answer
D. 1 and 2 only
Explanation Access Management includes the basic concepts of setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users (2) and verifying the identity of users requesting access to services (1). It does not include defining security policies for system access (3) or monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to (4). Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.
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29.
Which of the following activities is part of the Service Level Management (SLM) process?
A.
Designing the Configuration Management system from a business perspective
B.
Creating technology metrics to align with customer needs
C.
Training Service Desk staff how to deal with customer complaints about service
D.
Discussing service achievements with customers
Correct Answer
D. Discussing service achievements with customers
Explanation Discussing service achievements with customers is part of the Service Level Management (SLM) process. This activity involves reviewing and communicating the performance and achievements of the services provided to customers. It helps in building a strong relationship with customers, understanding their expectations, and ensuring that the services meet their needs and requirements.
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30.
Which of the following are aims of the Release and Deployment Management process?1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans2. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services, operations and support3. To authorize changes to support the process
A.
1 and 3 only
B.
All of the above
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
2 and 3 only
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 2 only
Explanation The aims of the Release and Deployment Management process are to ensure there are clear release and deployment plans and to ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services, operations, and support. This means that the process focuses on creating and following well-defined plans for releasing and deploying changes, as well as minimizing any negative impacts on the live environment. The third option, "2 and 3 only," is incorrect because it does not include the aim of ensuring clear release and deployment plans.
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31.
Which of the following are objectives of Continual Service Improvement?1. To improve process efficiency and effectiveness2. To improve services3. To improve all phases of the Service Lifecycle EXCEPT Service Strategy4. To improve international standards such as ISO/IEC 20000
A.
All of the above
B.
1, 2 and 3 only
C.
1 and 2 only
D.
2 and 4 only
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 2 only
Explanation The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. Continual Service Improvement aims to improve process efficiency and effectiveness (objective 1) as well as improve services (objective 2). It does not focus on improving all phases of the Service Lifecycle except for Service Strategy (objective 3) or improving international standards such as ISO/IEC 20000 (objective 4).
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32.
Plan, Do, Check, Act are the four stages of which quality improvement method?
A.
Continual Service Improvement
B.
Benchmarking
C.
The Deming Cycle
D.
Business Knowledge Management Framework
Correct Answer
C. The Deming Cycle
Explanation The Deming Cycle, also known as the PDCA cycle (Plan, Do, Check, Act), is a quality improvement method that was developed by W. Edwards Deming. It is a systematic approach that helps organizations to continuously improve their processes and achieve better results. The cycle starts with planning, where goals and objectives are set. Then, actions are taken to implement the plan. After that, the results are checked and compared to the desired outcomes. Finally, necessary adjustments and improvements are made to ensure continuous improvement.
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33.
Agreeing business requirements and service levels for a new service is part of:
A.
Service Operation
B.
Service Design
C.
Service Strategy
D.
Service Transition
Correct Answer
B. Service Design
Explanation Agreeing business requirements and service levels for a new service is part of Service Design. Service Design is responsible for designing new or changed services that meet the needs of the business and its customers. This includes defining the business requirements, service levels, and other design aspects to ensure the service can be delivered effectively and efficiently. Service Design focuses on creating and maintaining the overall service design package, which includes all the necessary documentation and specifications for the new service.
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34.
What types of changes are NOT usually included within the scope of service Change Management?
A.
Changes to a Service Level Agreement (SLA)
B.
The retirement of a service
C.
Changes to business strategy
D.
Changes to a mainframe computer
Correct Answer
C. Changes to business strategy
Explanation Changes to business strategy are not usually included within the scope of Service Change Management because they are typically strategic decisions made by senior management and are not considered operational changes to the service. Service Change Management focuses on managing and controlling changes to the service infrastructure, processes, and components to ensure that they are implemented smoothly and do not negatively impact the service. Business strategy changes, on the other hand, involve broader organizational decisions and are typically managed through strategic planning processes.
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35.
Which of the following is a process owner responsible for?
A.
Ensuring that the process is performed as documented
B.
Carrying out all activities defined in the process
C.
Ensuring that targets specified in a Service Level Agreement (SLA) are met
D.
Purchasing tools to support the process
Correct Answer
A. Ensuring that the process is performed as documented
Explanation The process owner is responsible for ensuring that the process is performed as documented. This means that they are accountable for making sure that the steps and procedures outlined in the process are followed correctly. They are responsible for monitoring and controlling the execution of the process, making any necessary adjustments or improvements, and ensuring that it meets the desired outcomes and objectives. This role requires a thorough understanding of the process, strong leadership skills, and the ability to communicate and collaborate with stakeholders to ensure compliance and effectiveness.
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36.
Which of the following is a benefit of using an incident model?
A.
It will make problems easier to identify and diagnose
B.
It ensures all incidents are easy to solve
C.
It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
D.
It means known incident types never recur
Correct Answer
C. It provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents
Explanation Using an incident model provides pre-defined steps for handling particular types of incidents. This means that when a specific incident occurs, the model can be followed to ensure a consistent and effective response. Having pre-defined steps helps in reducing the time and effort required to identify and diagnose the problem, as well as in solving the incident efficiently. It also helps in maintaining consistency in incident handling and ensures that known incident types are addressed effectively, reducing the chances of recurrence.
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37.
Learning and Improvement is the PRIMARY concern of which of the following phases of the Service Lifecycle?
A.
Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement
B.
Service Strategy, Service Transition, and Service Operation
C.
Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
D.
Continual Service Improvement
Correct Answer
D. Continual Service Improvement
Explanation The primary concern of the Continual Service Improvement phase of the Service Lifecycle is learning and improvement. This phase focuses on analyzing and evaluating the performance of services and processes, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to enhance the overall quality and efficiency of the services. It involves monitoring and measuring key performance indicators, conducting regular reviews and audits, and implementing a culture of continuous improvement within the organization. By continuously learning from past experiences and making necessary improvements, the organization can ensure that its services meet the evolving needs and expectations of its customers.
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38.
"Warranty of a service" means?
A.
There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service
B.
The service is fit for purpose
C.
Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
D.
All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of time
Correct Answer
C. Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security
Explanation The correct answer is "Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security." This means that when a service is under warranty, customers can expect that it will meet certain standards in terms of availability (being accessible when needed), capacity (being able to handle the required workload), continuity (being reliable and uninterrupted), and security (protecting data and preventing unauthorized access). The warranty provides assurance to customers that the service will perform at a certain level and that any issues related to these aspects will be addressed.
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39.
Which of the following should a service catalogue contain?
A.
The organizational structure of the company
B.
The version information of all software
C.
Asset information
D.
Details of all operational services
Correct Answer
D. Details of all operational services
Explanation A service catalogue should contain details of all operational services. This is because a service catalogue is a comprehensive list of all the services offered by an organization to its customers or users. It provides information about the services, including their description, availability, pricing, and any service level agreements. Including details of all operational services in the catalogue helps users or customers to understand the services available to them and make informed decisions about which services to use. It also helps the organization to manage and track the delivery of these services effectively.
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40.
Which process is responsible for reviewing Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
A.
Service Level Management
B.
Supplier Management
C.
Service Portfolio Management
D.
Demand Management
Correct Answer
A. Service Level Management
Explanation Service Level Management is responsible for reviewing Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis. This process ensures that the agreed-upon service levels are being met and that OLAs are aligned with the overall service strategy. By regularly reviewing OLAs, Service Level Management can identify any gaps or areas for improvement and take corrective actions to ensure the delivery of high-quality services. Supplier Management, Service Portfolio Management, and Demand Management are not directly responsible for reviewing OLAs.
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