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Given the following scenario: A stock exchange company requires its 1000 stockbrokers to have stock market continual feeds to the brokers computers. All brokers reside in the same building on Wall Street. Which multicast routing protocol is most appropriate?
A.
Sparse-Mode
B.
Dense-Mode Question
C.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Dense-Mode Question
Explanation Dense-Mode is the most appropriate multicast routing protocol in this scenario because it is designed for situations where there is a high density of receivers in a specific area, such as the brokers all residing in the same building on Wall Street. Dense-Mode is optimized for efficient delivery of multicast traffic to a large number of receivers within a limited geographical area. Sparse-Mode, on the other hand, is more suitable for scenarios where there are widely dispersed receivers and network resources need to be conserved.
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2.
All UTP connections between the end devices and switch must be within _____ meters.
A.
5
B.
90
C.
100
D.
500
E.
1000
Correct Answer
B. 90
Explanation All UTP connections between the end devices and switch must be within 90 meters. This is because the maximum distance for UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cables, which are commonly used for Ethernet connections, is 100 meters. Going beyond this distance can result in signal degradation and loss of data. Therefore, to ensure optimal performance and reliable connections, it is recommended to keep UTP connections within 90 meters.
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3.
Spanning-Tree Algorithm is used in bridged or switched LANs to _____.
A.
Identify destinations for multicasts
B.
Flood segments with frames from unknown sources
C.
Identify the segments connected to the bridge or switch
D.
Flood segments with frames to unknown destinations
E.
Avoid broadcast storms by eliminating loops in the network Question
Correct Answer
E. Avoid broadcast storms by eliminating loops in the network Question
Explanation The Spanning-Tree Algorithm is used in bridged or switched LANs to avoid broadcast storms by eliminating loops in the network. By creating a loop-free topology, the algorithm ensures that there is only one active path between any two network devices, preventing the circulation of broadcast frames indefinitely. This helps to optimize network performance and prevent excessive network traffic.
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4.
Multilayer switching is based on the _____ model.
A.
Switch once, route many
B.
Route once, switch many
C.
Never switch Layer 4 packets
D.
Switch when you can, route when you must
E.
Switch on Layer 2 frames, route on Layer 3 packets
Correct Answer
A. Switch once, route many
Explanation Multilayer switching is based on the concept of switching packets at Layer 2 and then routing them at Layer 3. This means that the switch makes the initial decision on where to send the packet based on Layer 2 information, such as MAC addresses, and then the routing decision is made based on Layer 3 information, such as IP addresses. This allows for efficient forwarding of packets within the network, as the switch only needs to make the routing decision once for a group of packets that have the same destination.
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5.
Which command is used to verify a default gateway on a Set command-based switch?
A.
Switch#show ip
B.
Switch(enable)#show ip
C.
Switch(enable) show ip route
D.
Switch(enable)ip route ip address
E.
Switch(enable)show ip default Question
Correct Answer
C. Switch(enable) show ip route
Explanation The correct answer is "Switch(enable) show ip route". This command is used to display the IP routing table on a Set command-based switch, which includes information about the default gateway. By using this command, the user can verify the default gateway configured on the switch.
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6.
You can improve the convergence time of Spanning Tree during a network reconfiguration by decreasing the forward delay timer. Which conditions must be met for UplinkFast to trigger a fast convergence?
A.
The switch must have at least one blocked port and the failure must be on the Root port.
B.
The switch must have at least one blocked port and the failure must be on the link to the next hop neighbor switch.
C.
The switch must have more than one port in blocked state and the failure must be on one of the links in a Fast EtherChannel bundle.
D.
The switch must have a group of ports bundled with the same neighbor ID, link speed and port duplex, and the failure must be on the Root bundle.
Correct Answer
A. The switch must have at least one blocked port and the failure must be on the Root port.
Explanation UplinkFast is a feature in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) that helps to improve the convergence time during network reconfiguration. It works by immediately transitioning a blocked port to a forwarding state when a failure occurs on the Root port. This allows for faster restoration of connectivity. Therefore, for UplinkFast to trigger a fast convergence, the switch must have at least one blocked port and the failure must be on the Root port.
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7.
In which of the following VTP modes will switches forward VTP advertisements?
A.
Server mode
B.
Client mode
C.
Transparent mode (version 2)
D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.
Explanation In all three VTP modes - Server mode, Client mode, and Transparent mode (version 2) - switches will forward VTP advertisements. Server mode is responsible for creating, modifying, and deleting VLANs and VTP information, and it also forwards VTP advertisements to other switches. Client mode receives VTP advertisements from servers and forwards them to other switches. Transparent mode (version 2) does not synchronize VLAN information, but it still forwards VTP advertisements to other switches. Therefore, in all three modes, switches will forward VTP advertisements.
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8.
Before you insert a new switch into a VTP domain, you should _____.
A.
Place the switch in client mode, enter the clear config all command, and power cycle the switch.
B.
Place the switch in transparent mode and enter the clear config all command prior to introducing the switch.
C.
Place the switch in server mode to set the configuration revision number to zero (0).
D.
Place the switch in client mode, enter the clear config all command and disable ISL so as not to update the existing VTP domain configuration.
E.
Place the switch in client mode first to learn the existing configuration then in server mode to set the configuration revision number to zero (0).
Correct Answer
A. Place the switch in client mode, enter the clear config all command, and power cycle the switch.
9.
A root bridge _____.
A.
Is the switch with the highest priority and lowest MAC address.
B.
Is the switch with the lowest priority and the highest MAC address.
C.
Sends a Bridge Protocol Data Unit to notify a port that it is in blocking mode.
D.
Uses the Root Identifier and the Path Cost fields in the Bridge Protocol Data Unit to determine which port forwards data.
E.
Is the reference point that all switches use to determine if there are loops in the network.
Correct Answer
E. Is the reference point that all switches use to determine if there are loops in the network.
Explanation A root bridge is the reference point that all switches use to determine if there are loops in the network. This means that the root bridge is the central point in the network that all other switches connect to. By designating a root bridge, switches can determine the best path for forwarding data and avoid creating loops in the network, which can cause network congestion and instability.
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10.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the configuration guidelines for configuring Fast EtherChannel technology?
A.
Enable half the ports in a channel as actively forwarding links and use the remaining ports for failover.
B.
If you configure a broadcast limit on the ports, configure the broadcast limit as a percentage limit for the channeled ports.
C.
If the channel is composed of trunk ports, you must configure a separate VLAN range on each the ports to ensure load-balancing of traffic.
D.
Enable port security on a channeled port to ensure packets with source addresses that do not match the secure address of the port are filtered out.
E.
Within a channel, you should always configure the heavier utilized ports or those ports carrying larger size frames in full duplex mode to increase performance.
Correct Answer
B. If you configure a broadcast limit on the ports, configure the broadcast limit as a percentage limit for the channeled ports.
Explanation The statement that most accurately describes the configuration guidelines for configuring Fast EtherChannel technology is to configure the broadcast limit on the ports as a percentage limit for the channeled ports. This means that when setting a limit on the amount of broadcast traffic allowed on the ports, it should be configured as a percentage of the total bandwidth of the channeled ports. This ensures that the broadcast traffic is evenly distributed across all the ports in the channel, optimizing the performance and preventing any single port from being overwhelmed by excessive broadcast traffic.
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11.
Which of the following statements describes a characteristic of PortFast?
A.
PortFast is initiated when a root port or blocked port on a switch receives inferior BPDUs from the designated switch.
B.
PortFast causes a spanning-tree port to enter the forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening and learning states.
C.
PortFast moves a non-trunk port directly to the forwarding state and generates a Topology Change Notice.
D.
PortFast is used to reduce STP convergence when an access switch is first linked to the distribution switch.
E.
PortFast is used to reduce STP convergence when connecting a link containing multiple end stations to a single switch port for the first time.
Correct Answer
B. PortFast causes a spanning-tree port to enter the forwarding state immediately, bypassing the listening and learning states.
Explanation PortFast is a feature in spanning-tree protocol that allows a port to bypass the listening and learning states and enter the forwarding state immediately. This is useful when connecting a link containing multiple end stations to a single switch port for the first time, as it reduces the time it takes for the port to become operational. By bypassing the listening and learning states, PortFast helps to minimize the STP convergence time and ensures that end stations can start communicating without delay.
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12.
Which of the following commands accurately depicts the mode and command used to configure a default gateway on an IOS command-based switch.
A.
Switch(config) ip route ip address.
B.
Switch(enable)set ip route ip address.
C.
Switch(enable)ip route-default ip address.
D.
Switch(config)ip default-gateway ip address.
E.
Switch(enable) set ip default-gateway ip address.
Correct Answer
D. Switch(config)ip default-gateway ip address.
Explanation The correct answer is "Switch(config)ip default-gateway ip address." This command is used to configure a default gateway on an IOS command-based switch. The "config" mode indicates that the command is being entered in global configuration mode, where the switch's global settings can be configured. The "ip default-gateway" command is used to specify the IP address of the default gateway for the switch. By setting the default gateway, the switch knows where to send traffic that is destined for a network outside of its own local network.
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13.
Which of the following statements accurately describe the functions of the hierarchical model?
A.
Implements interVlan routing at the access layer.
B.
Places the access lists and packet filtering in the backbone where packets are processed faster.
C.
Places the switch bandwidth devices at the distribution layer to increase resource accessiability.
D.
Defines building blocks that encompass both distributed network services and network intelligence.
E.
Places basic network-level intelligence at the user level to offload the backbone.
Correct Answer
D. Defines building blocks that encompass both distributed network services and network intelligence.
Explanation The correct answer accurately describes the functions of the hierarchical model by stating that it defines building blocks that encompass both distributed network services and network intelligence. This means that the hierarchical model organizes the network infrastructure into different layers, each with its own specific functions and responsibilities. These building blocks allow for the distribution of network services and intelligence throughout the network, ensuring efficient and effective communication and resource management.
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14.
The ip security command disables multilayer switching on an interface.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation The IP security command is used to enable or disable IP Security (IPsec) on an interface. When the IP security command is enabled, it can disable multilayer switching on that particular interface. This means that the interface will not perform any multilayer switching functions, such as routing or switching between different network layers. Therefore, the given statement that the IP security command disables multilayer switching on an interface is true.
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15.
Which of the following multicast routing protocols is most appropriate for the following scenario? I. M. Bhossi, the CEO, for the ABC Toy Company, wants to implement a "Happy Teddy Bear Friday" program to promote goodwill within the company. However, most of his divisions are oversees. These divisions need to tune into a replay broadcast when it is convenient for them.
A.
Sparse-Mode
B.
Dense-Mode
C.
None of the Above
Correct Answer
A. Sparse-Mode
Explanation Sparse-Mode is the most appropriate multicast routing protocol for this scenario because it is designed for situations where there are a small number of receivers spread across a wide area network. In this case, the CEO wants to broadcast a replay of the program to divisions overseas, indicating that there are likely only a few receivers in different locations. Sparse-Mode efficiently delivers multicast traffic to only those receivers that have explicitly requested it, making it suitable for this scenario. Dense-Mode, on the other hand, is designed for situations where there are many receivers in a localized area, which does not align with the given scenario.
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16.
Which of the following two methods can be used to control the routing information that is sent to the Core Block?
A.
Port security and VLANs
B.
Passwords and access class
C.
Extended and Standard access lists
D.
Route Summarization and Distribution Lists
E.
Routing Protocols and Protocol Independent Multicasting
Correct Answer
D. Route Summarization and Distribution Lists
Explanation Route summarization and distribution lists can be used to control the routing information that is sent to the Core Block. Route summarization involves aggregating multiple network addresses into a single summary address, reducing the size of the routing table and improving network performance. Distribution lists, on the other hand, allow network administrators to filter and control the flow of routing updates between routers, enabling them to selectively advertise or block specific routes. By using these methods, network administrators can have more control over the routing information that is sent to the Core Block.
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17.
Access lists are a component of policies at the access layer.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation Access lists are not a component of policies at the access layer. Access lists are actually a component of policies at the network layer. Access lists are used to control the flow of traffic in and out of a network device by filtering packets based on certain criteria such as source or destination IP address, protocol, or port number. These access control policies are typically implemented at the network layer to secure the network and control the traffic flow. Therefore, the correct answer is False.
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18.
This layer provides segmentation and terminates collision domains as well as broadcast domains.
A.
Access Layer
B.
Distribution Layer
C.
Core Layer Question
Correct Answer
B. Distribution Layer
Explanation The Distribution Layer is responsible for providing segmentation and terminating collision domains as well as broadcast domains. This layer acts as an intermediary between the Access Layer and the Core Layer, facilitating communication between different network segments and controlling the flow of data. It helps to improve network performance, scalability, and security by efficiently managing the distribution of data packets across the network.
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19.
Which of the following statements most accurately list the required components of the Cisco Systems multilayer switching implementation?
A.
The CGMP, the IGMP, the PIM.
B.
The SUPIII, the NFFC, the RSM.
C.
The MLS-SE, the MLS-RP, the MLSP.
D.
The MLS-SE, the MLS-RP, the EARL.
Correct Answer
C. The MLS-SE, the MLS-RP, the MLSP.
Explanation The correct answer is "The MLS-SE, the MLS-RP, the MLSP." In a Cisco Systems multilayer switching implementation, the MLS-SE (Multilayer Switching Service Engine) is used to provide high-performance switching capabilities. The MLS-RP (Multilayer Switching Route Processor) is responsible for making forwarding decisions based on routing protocols. The MLSP (Multilayer Switching Protocol) is used to establish communication between the MLS-SE and MLS-RP, allowing for efficient packet forwarding. These three components work together to enable multilayer switching in the Cisco Systems implementation.
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20.
When connecting the 10BasetT switch ports to servers, workstations, and routers, ensure that you use a crossover cable.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation When connecting the 10BasetT switch ports to servers, workstations, and routers, it is not necessary to use a crossover cable. This is because 10BasetT switches are designed to automatically detect and adjust the wiring configuration, allowing for straight-through cables to be used instead. Therefore, the statement that a crossover cable should be used is false.
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21.
Which of the following statements accurately lists the all the states and correct order in which a HSRP route processor may pass during initialization?
A.
Initial state, learn state, standby state, active state.
B.
Initial state, learn state, speak state, standby state, active state.
C.
Initial state, listen state, standby state, listen state, active state.
Correct Answer
D. Initial state, learn state, listen state, speak state, standby state, active state.
Explanation During initialization, a HSRP route processor goes through the following states in order: Initial state, learn state, listen state, speak state, standby state, active state.
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22.
To configure the preempt status of a router, enter the
A.
Standby preempt command in privileged mode.
B.
Standby preempt command in global configuration mode.
C.
Standby preempt command in interface configuration mode.
D.
Standby group number preempt command in interface configuration mode
Correct Answer
D. Standby group number preempt command in interface configuration mode
Explanation The correct answer is "standby group number preempt command in interface configuration mode." This is because the "standby preempt" command is used to configure the preempt status of a router in the interface configuration mode. By specifying the group number, the router can determine which group should preempt the active router and become the new active router in case of a failure.
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23.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the characteristics of the HSRP Interface Tracking function?
A.
When a tracked interface becomes unavailable, the HSRP priority of that router is increased.
B.
When configuring HSRP interface tracking, the interface priority argument indicates the priority to which the router will be decremented.
C.
Interface tracking enables the priority of a standby group router to be automatically adjusted based on the available of the interfaces of that router.
D.
When HSRP tracking is enable, ICMP must also be enable to ensure ICMP redirects are send to other group members in case of an active router failure.
Correct Answer
C. Interface tracking enables the priority of a standby group router to be automatically adjusted based on the available of the interfaces of that router.
24.
Which of the following statements best describe a trunk link?
A.
A trunk link belongs to a specific VLAN.
B.
A trunk link only supports the native VLAN for a given port.
C.
Trunk links use 802.10 to identify VLANs over an Ethernet backbone.
D.
The native VLAN of the trunk link is the VLAN that the trunk uses if that link fails for any reason.
E.
Trunk links are used to connect multiple devices on a single subnet to a switch port.
Correct Answer
D. The native VLAN of the trunk link is the VLAN that the trunk uses if that link fails for any reason.
Explanation A trunk link is a type of connection that allows multiple VLANs to be carried over a single physical link between switches. The native VLAN refers to the default VLAN that is used for untagged traffic on a trunk link. In the event of a failure on the trunk link, the native VLAN is used to maintain connectivity. Therefore, the given answer correctly describes a trunk link.
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25.
Which of the following statements accurately identify VLAN characteristics?
A.
The most common type of VLAN is an end-to-end VLAN.
B.
All devices in a VLAN are members of the same broadcast domain.
C.
VLAN membership maps to the physical subnet on which the device resides.
D.
VLAN membership is most commonly based on the management IP address of the device.
E.
Geographic VLANs can span multiple wiring closets but the closets have to be in the same building.
Correct Answer
B. All devices in a VLAN are members of the same broadcast domain.
Explanation All devices in a VLAN are members of the same broadcast domain. This means that they can communicate with each other directly without the need for routing. VLANs are used to segment a network into smaller broadcast domains, improving network performance and security. By grouping devices together based on their VLAN membership, broadcast traffic is contained within the VLAN, reducing the amount of broadcast traffic that needs to be processed by each device.
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