LAN Switching And Wireless

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Ssv2

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 368

Questions: 83 | Attempts: 143 | Updated: Oct 5, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

Which 3 options correctly associate a layer of the hierarchical design model with its function? (choose 3)
- A.
  
  Core -- interface for end devices
- B.
  
  Distribution -- traffic control and security policies
- C.
  
  Access -- interface for end devices
- D.
  
  Distribution -- high-speed backbone
- E.
  
  Core -- high-speed backbone
- F.
  
  Access -- implementation of security policies
Correct Answer(s)
B. Distribution -- traffic control and security policies
C. Access -- interface for end devices
E. Core -- high-speed backbone

Explanation
The Distribution layer in the hierarchical design model is responsible for traffic control and implementing security policies. It acts as a middle layer between the Core and Access layers. The Access layer serves as the interface for end devices, providing connectivity and access to the network. Lastly, the Core layer functions as the high-speed backbone, handling the bulk of the network traffic and ensuring efficient communication between different parts of the network.

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2.

With respect to network design, what is convergence?
- A.
  
  Implementation of standard equipment sets for LAN design
- B.
  
  Implementation of core-distribution-access design model for all sites in an enterprise
- C.
  
  A point in the network where all traffic "converges" before transmission to the destination, normally the core switch
- D.
  
  Combining conventional data with voice and video on a common network
Correct Answer
D. Combining conventional data with voice and video on a common network

Explanation
Convergence in network design refers to the process of combining conventional data, voice, and video on a common network. This means that instead of having separate networks for each type of communication, they are all integrated into one network infrastructure. This allows for more efficient and cost-effective communication as well as easier management and troubleshooting.

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3.

What are convergence benefist? (Choose 3)
- A.
  
  Simplified data network config
- B.
  
  Simplified network changes
- C.
  
  Combines voice, video, and applications in one computer
- D.
  
  Conventional voice equipment can be used for new VoIP implementations
- E.
  
  Combines voice and data network staffs
- F.
  
  Simpler maintenance than hierarchical networks
- G.
  
  Lower quality of service config requirements
Correct Answer(s)
B. Simplified network changes
C. Combines voice, video, and applications in one computer
E. Combines voice and data network staffs

Explanation
Convergence benefits refer to the advantages of combining voice, video, and applications in one computer, combining voice and data network staffs, and simplifying network changes. These benefits include easier management and maintenance, as well as the ability to use conventional voice equipment for new VoIP implementations. Additionally, convergence allows for simplified data network configuration and reduces the quality of service configuration requirements.

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4.

What are the analysis actions for User Communities? (Choose 3)
- A.
  
  Workstation ports required for a dept
- B.
  
  Amount of server-to-server traffic
- C.
  
  Intensity of use of a dept application server
- D.
  
  Amount of traffic for a SAN
- E.
  
  Anticipated dept port growth
- F.
  
  Data backed up to tape
- G.
  
  Network attached storage
Correct Answer(s)
A. Workstation ports required for a dept
C. Intensity of use of a dept application server
E. Anticipated dept port growth

Explanation
The analysis actions for User Communities include determining the workstation ports required for a department, assessing the intensity of use of a department's application server, and anticipating department port growth. These actions help in understanding the network and infrastructure requirements for a department, ensuring that there are enough resources to support the users and their applications.

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5.

What are the analysis actions for Data Stores and Data Servers? (Choose 4)
- A.
  
  Network attached storage
- B.
  
  Data backed up to tape
- C.
  
  Anticipated dept port growth
- D.
  
  Amount of traffic for a SAN
- E.
  
  Intensity of use of a dept application server
- F.
  
  Amount of server-to-server traffic
- G.
  
  Workstation ports required for a dept
Correct Answer(s)
A. Network attached storage
B. Data backed up to tape
D. Amount of traffic for a SAN
F. Amount of server-to-server traffic

Explanation
The analysis actions for Data Stores and Data Servers include considering network attached storage, data backed up to tape, amount of traffic for a SAN, and amount of server-to-server traffic. These actions help in evaluating and determining the storage and backup requirements, as well as the network traffic and communication patterns between servers. This analysis is crucial for ensuring efficient data management and optimal performance of the data storage and server infrastructure.

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6.

What factor may complicate user communities analysis?
- A.
  
  Application changes may radically affect predicted data growth
- B.
  
  Server to server traffic may shew user port usage data
- C.
  
  Application usag is not always bound by dept or physical location
- D.
  
  Different organization applications may share data stores
Correct Answer
C. Application usag is not always bound by dept or pHysical location

Explanation
User communities analysis may be complicated because application usage is not always limited to specific departments or physical locations. This means that users from different departments or locations may be using the same applications, making it difficult to analyze user behavior based on department or location.

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7.

Define port density
- A.
  
  Number of ports available on a single switch
- B.
  
  Data rate that each port on the switch is capable of attaining
- C.
  
  Processing capabilities of a switch by quantifying performance of the switch by how much data it can process per second
- D.
  
  Ability to utilize multiple switch ports concurrently for higher throughput data communication
Correct Answer
A. Number of ports available on a single switch

Explanation
Port density refers to the number of ports available on a single switch. It determines the capacity of the switch to connect multiple devices or networks simultaneously. A higher port density means that more devices can be connected to the switch, allowing for greater scalability and flexibility in network configurations. This is particularly important in large-scale networks where a large number of devices need to be connected and managed efficiently. Therefore, port density is a crucial factor to consider when designing and implementing network infrastructure.

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8.

Define wire speed
- A.
  
  Number of ports available on a single switch
- B.
  
  Data rate that each port on the switch is capable of attaining
- C.
  
  Processing capabilities of a switch by quantifying performance of the switch by how much data it can process per second
- D.
  
  Ability to utilize multiple switch ports concurrently for higher throughput data communication
Correct Answer
B. Data rate that each port on the switch is capable of attaining

Explanation
Wire speed refers to the maximum data rate that each port on a switch is capable of achieving. It quantifies the performance of the switch by measuring how much data it can process per second. This means that the switch can handle data at its maximum capacity without any loss or delay. Therefore, the correct answer is the data rate that each port on the switch is capable of attaining.

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9.

Define forwarding rate
- A.
  
  Number of ports available on a single switch
- B.
  
  Data rate that each port on the switch is capable of attaining
- C.
  
  Processing capabilities of a switch by quantifying performance of the switch by how much data it can process per second
- D.
  
  Ability to utilize multiple switch ports concurrently for higher throughput data communication
Correct Answer
C. Processing capabilities of a switch by quantifying performance of the switch by how much data it can process per second

Explanation
The term "forwarding rate" refers to the processing capabilities of a switch, specifically measuring the performance of the switch by determining how much data it can process per second. It quantifies the ability of the switch to efficiently forward data packets, indicating its processing speed and efficiency. This metric is important in evaluating the performance and capacity of a switch, as a higher forwarding rate indicates a more powerful and capable switch in terms of data processing.

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10.

Define link aggregation
- A.
  
  Number of ports available on a single switch
- B.
  
  Data rate that each port on the switch is capable of attaining
- C.
  
  Processing capabilities of a switch by quantifying performance of the switch by how much data it can process per second
- D.
  
  Ability to utilize multiple switch ports concurrently for higher throughput data communication
Correct Answer
D. Ability to utilize multiple switch ports concurrently for higher throughput data communication

Explanation
Link aggregation refers to the ability of a switch to utilize multiple ports simultaneously in order to achieve higher throughput for data communication. By combining the bandwidth of multiple ports, link aggregation allows for increased data transfer rates and improved network performance. This technique is commonly used in scenarios where high data throughput is required, such as in server clusters or for connecting network switches together.

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11.

What would be the port capacity of a single port on a 48-port Gigabit Ethernet switch?
- A.
  
  48 Gbps
- B.
  
  10 Mbps
- C.
  
  1000 Mbps
- D.
  
  100 Mbps
Correct Answer
C. 1000 Mbps

Explanation
The port capacity of a single port on a 48-port Gigabit Ethernet switch would be 1000 Mbps. This is because Gigabit Ethernet supports a data transfer rate of 1000 Mbps, and each port on the switch is capable of handling this speed. Therefore, the correct answer is 1000 Mbps.

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12.

A switch that uses MAC addresses to forward frames operates at which layer of the OSI model?
- A.
  
  Layer 1
- B.
  
  Layer 2
- C.
  
  Layer 3
- D.
  
  Layer 4
- E.
  
  Layer 5
- F.
  
  Layer 6
Correct Answer
B. Layer 2

Explanation
A switch that uses MAC addresses to forward frames operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model. Layer 2, also known as the Data Link layer, is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between network devices on the same local network. Switches use MAC addresses to identify the source and destination of data frames and forward them accordingly. This layer ensures that data is delivered error-free and in the correct order within a local network.

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13.

What is a feature offered by all stackable switches?
- A.
  
  Predetermined number of ports
- B.
  
  Fully redundant backplane
- C.
  
  Support for Gigabit connectivity
- D.
  
  Low bandwidth for inter-switch communications
- E.
  
  PoE capability
Correct Answer
B. Fully redundant backplane

Explanation
A feature offered by all stackable switches is a fully redundant backplane. This means that the switch has multiple physical connections between its modules, allowing for seamless communication and data transfer even if one of the connections fails. This redundancy ensures high availability and reliability in the network, as it eliminates a single point of failure.

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14.

What function is performed by a Cisco access level switch?
- A.
  
  Inter-VLAN support
- B.
  
  Routing
- C.
  
  Providing PoE
- D.
  
  Link aggregation
Correct Answer
C. Providing PoE

Explanation
A Cisco access level switch performs the function of providing Power over Ethernet (PoE). This means that it can supply power to connected devices such as IP phones, wireless access points, or security cameras, eliminating the need for separate power sources. This feature is particularly useful in situations where it may be difficult or impractical to provide individual power sources to each device.

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15.

What are some of the features of the Core Layer? (Choose 3)
- A.
  
  Port security
- B.
  
  Layer 3 support
- C.
  
  Redundant components
- D.
  
  VLANs
- E.
  
  10 Gigabit Ethernet
- F.
  
  PoE
Correct Answer(s)
B. Layer 3 support
C. Redundant components
E. 10 Gigabit Ethernet

Explanation
The Core Layer is responsible for high-speed backbone connectivity in a network. Layer 3 support is a feature of the Core Layer as it enables routing between different networks. Redundant components are also a feature of the Core Layer to ensure high availability and fault tolerance. 10 Gigabit Ethernet is another feature of the Core Layer as it provides fast and efficient data transmission.

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16.

What are some of the features of the AccessLayer? (Choose 3)
- A.
  
  PoE
- B.
  
  VLANs
- C.
  
  10 Gigabit Ethernet
- D.
  
  Redundant components
- E.
  
  Layer 3 support
- F.
  
  Port security
Correct Answer(s)
A. PoE
B. VLANs
F. Port security

Explanation
The Access Layer is responsible for connecting end devices to the network. Power over Ethernet (PoE) allows the Access Layer switches to provide power to devices such as IP phones or wireless access points through the Ethernet cable. VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) help in logically segmenting the network into smaller broadcast domains, improving security and efficiency. Port security allows the Access Layer switches to restrict access to specific devices by binding MAC addresses to specific ports, preventing unauthorized access. These three features are commonly found in Access Layer switches to enhance network functionality and security.

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17.

Which 2 characteristics describe the Core Layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose 2)
- A.
  
  Redundant paths
- B.
  
  High-level policy enforcement
- C.
  
  PoE
- D.
  
  Controls access of end devices to network
- E.
  
  Rapid forwarding of traffic
Correct Answer(s)
A. Redundant paths
E. Rapid forwarding of traffic

Explanation
The Core Layer of the hierarchical network design model is responsible for the rapid forwarding of traffic and ensuring redundant paths. It is designed to provide high-speed connectivity between different network segments and to enable efficient and fast communication between devices. Redundant paths help to ensure network reliability and minimize downtime by providing alternative routes for traffic in case of link failures. Rapid forwarding of traffic ensures that data is quickly and efficiently transmitted across the network, reducing latency and improving overall performance.

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18.

Refer tot he exhibit. What does this error message signify?
- A.
  
  A parameter is missing
- B.
  
  The command was entered in the wrong CLI mode
- C.
  
  The data of one of the parameters is incorrect
- D.
  
  The command is ambiguous
Correct Answer
C. The data of one of the parameters is incorrect

Explanation
This error message signifies that the data of one of the parameters entered in the command is incorrect.

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19.

What is the effect of entering the banner login #Authorized Personnel Only!# command?
- A.
  
  #Authorized Personnel Only!# appears after the user logs in
- B.
  
  Authorized Personnel Only! appears only when the user makes a Telnet connection
- C.
  
  #Authorized Personnel Only!# appears only when the user enters global config mode
- D.
  
  Authorized Personnel Only! appears before the username and password login prompts for any connection
Correct Answer
D. Authorized Personnel Only! appears before the username and password login prompts for any connection

Explanation
The effect of entering the "banner login #Authorized Personnel Only!#" command is that "Authorized Personnel Only!" will appear before the username and password login prompts for any connection.

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20.

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security violation protect
- A.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and notification is sent
- B.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent
- C.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses make the port errdisabled and notification is sent
- D.
  
  Defines the number of MAC addresses associated with a port
- E.
  
  Allows dynamically learned MAC addresses to be stored in the running config
Correct Answer
B. Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent

Explanation
The correct description for "Switchport port-security violation protect" is that frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent. This means that if a frame enters the switch with a source address that is not recognized or allowed, the switch will discard the frame and not send any notification about it. This helps to protect the network from unauthorized devices or potential security threats.

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21.

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security violation restrict
- A.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and notification is sent
- B.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent
- C.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses make the port errdisabled and notification is sent
- D.
  
  Defines the number of MAC addresses associated with a port
- E.
  
  Allows dynamically learned MAC addresses to be stored in the running config
Correct Answer
A. Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and notification is sent

Explanation
Switchport port-security violation restrict is a feature that drops frames with unknown source addresses and sends a notification. This means that if a frame with an unknown source address is detected, it will be dropped and the network administrator will be notified about the violation. This helps to ensure network security by preventing unauthorized devices from accessing the network.

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22.

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security violation shutdown
- A.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and notification is sent
- B.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent
- C.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses make the port errdisabled and notification is sent
- D.
  
  Defines the number of MAC addresses associated with a port
- E.
  
  Allows dynamically learned MAC addresses to be stored in the running config
Correct Answer
C. Frames with unknown source addresses make the port errdisabled and notification is sent

Explanation
This answer is correct because when the "Switchport port-security violation shutdown" command is configured on a switch port, frames with unknown source addresses will cause the port to go into an "errdisabled" state. This means that the port is effectively shut down and no traffic is allowed through. Additionally, a notification is sent to the network administrator to alert them of the violation.

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23.

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security mac-address sticky
- A.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and notification is sent
- B.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent
- C.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses make the port errdisabled and notification is sent
- D.
  
  Defines the number of MAC addresses associated with a port
- E.
  
  Allows dynamically learned MAC addresses to be stored in the running config
Correct Answer
E. Allows dynamically learned MAC addresses to be stored in the running config

Explanation
The "Switchport port-security mac-address sticky" command allows dynamically learned MAC addresses to be stored in the running config.

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24.

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security maximum
- A.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and notification is sent
- B.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses are dropped and no notification is sent
- C.
  
  Frames with unknown source addresses make the port errdisabled and notification is sent
- D.
  
  Defines the number of MAC addresses associated with a port
- E.
  
  Allows dynamically learned MAC addresses to be stored in the running config
Correct Answer
D. Defines the number of MAC addresses associated with a port

Explanation
The correct answer is "defines the number of MAC addresses associated with a port." This option explains that the "Switchport port-security maximum" command is used to specify the maximum number of MAC addresses that can be associated with a port. It does not mention anything about dropping frames, sending notifications, or making the port errdisabled. Additionally, it does not mention storing dynamically learned MAC addresses in the running config.

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25.

Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the MAC address table shown in blue. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown below the MAC address table?
- A.
  
  Forward the frame out all interfaces
- B.
  
  Forward the frame out all interfaces except interface 3
- C.
  
  Discard the frame
- D.
  
  Forward the frame out interface 1
- E.
  
  Forward the frame out interface 2
- F.
  
  Forward the frame out interface 3
Correct Answer
D. Forward the frame out interface 1

Explanation
Based on the MAC address table shown in blue, the switch has learned that the destination MAC address in the frame corresponds to interface 1. Therefore, the switch will forward the frame out of interface 1.

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26.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the command output?
- A.
  
  The system has 32 LB of NVRAM
- B.
  
  The system has 24 physical ports
- C.
  
  The system was last restarted on May 18, 2005
- D.
  
  The Cisco IOS is a non-standard image
Correct Answer
A. The system has 32 LB of NVRAM

Explanation
From the command output, it can be determined that the system has 32 LB (Long Bytes) of NVRAM.

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27.

What does pressing Ctrl+P on the command line do?
- A.
  
  Begin context checking
- B.
  
  Access symbolic translation
- C.
  
  Access the command history buffer
- D.
  
  Initiate command prompting
Correct Answer
C. Access the command history buffer

Explanation
Pressing Ctrl+P on the command line allows the user to access the command history buffer. This means that it will display the previous command that was entered, allowing the user to easily recall and reuse commands without having to retype them. This can be a time-saving feature, especially when working with complex or lengthy commands.

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28.

What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely connecting to a device?
- A.
  
  Encryption
- B.
  
  More connection lines
- C.
  
  Connection-oriented services
- D.
  
  Username and password authentication
Correct Answer
A. Encryption

Explanation
SSH offers the advantage of encryption over Telnet when remotely connecting to a device. This means that the data transmitted between the client and the server is encrypted, making it difficult for unauthorized individuals to intercept and understand the information being exchanged. In contrast, Telnet sends data in plain text, which can be easily intercepted and read by anyone with access to the network. Encryption provided by SSH ensures the confidentiality and integrity of the data, enhancing the security of the remote connection.

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29.

Refer to the exhibit. How many colision and broadcast domains are presented in the network?
- A.
  
  8 collision domains / 2 broadcast domains
- B.
  
  8 collision domains / 3 broadcast domains
- C.
  
  12 collision domains / 5 broadcast domains
- D.
  
  13 collision domains / 2 broadcast domains
Correct Answer
C. 12 collision domains / 5 broadcast domains

Explanation
Based on the given exhibit, we can determine the number of collision and broadcast domains in the network. A collision domain is a network segment where collisions can occur between devices. In this case, there are 12 collision domains because there are 12 separate network segments shown in the exhibit.

A broadcast domain is a network segment where broadcast packets are sent to all devices. We can identify the number of broadcast domains by looking at the routers or layer 3 devices in the network. In this case, there are 5 broadcast domains because there are 5 routers or layer 3 devices shown in the exhibit.

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30.

Define: MAC address flooding
- A.
  
  Broadcasting requests for IP addresses with spoofed MAC addresses
- B.
  
  Using proprietary Cisco protocols to gain info about a switch
- C.
  
  The attacker fills the switch Content Addressable Memory(CAM) table with invalid MAC addresses
- D.
  
  Using brute force password attacks to gain access to a switch
Correct Answer
C. The attacker fills the switch Content Addressable Memory(CAM) table with invalid MAC addresses

Explanation
MAC address flooding is a technique used by attackers to overwhelm a switch's Content Addressable Memory (CAM) table with a large number of invalid MAC addresses. By flooding the switch with these addresses, the attacker aims to exhaust the memory resources of the switch, causing it to fail or behave unpredictably. This can lead to a denial of service (DoS) attack, as legitimate network traffic may be dropped or delayed due to the switch's inability to handle the flood of MAC addresses.

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31.

Define: DHCP starvation
- A.
  
  Broadcasting requests for IP addresses with spoofed MAC addresses
- B.
  
  Using proprietary Cisco protocols to gain info about a switch
- C.
  
  The attacker fills the switch Content Addressable Memory(CAM) table with invalid MAC addresses
- D.
  
  Using brute force password attacks to gain access to a switch
Correct Answer
A. Broadcasting requests for IP addresses with spoofed MAC addresses

Explanation
DHCP starvation refers to the act of broadcasting requests for IP addresses with spoofed MAC addresses. This means that the attacker is sending fake requests for IP addresses using MAC addresses that they have manipulated or falsified. By doing this, the attacker can exhaust the available IP addresses in the DHCP pool, preventing legitimate devices from obtaining an IP address and causing a denial of service. This technique is commonly used in network attacks to disrupt network connectivity and cause inconvenience to users.

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32.

Define: CDP attacks
- A.
  
  Broadcasting requests for IP addresses with spoofed MAC addresses
- B.
  
  Using proprietary Cisco protocols to gain info about a switch
- C.
  
  The attacker fills the switch Content Addressable Memory(CAM) table with invalid MAC addresses
- D.
  
  Using brute force password attacks to gain access to a switch
Correct Answer
B. Using proprietary Cisco protocols to gain info about a switch

Explanation
CDP attacks refer to the act of using proprietary Cisco protocols to gain information about a switch. Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a network protocol used by Cisco devices to share information about themselves with other devices on the network. In a CDP attack, an attacker leverages these protocols to gather details about the targeted switch, such as its configuration, neighboring devices, and other network-related information. This unauthorized access can potentially compromise the security and integrity of the network.

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33.

Define: Telnet attacks
- A.
  
  Broadcasting requests for IP addresses with spoofed MAC addresses
- B.
  
  Using proprietary Cisco protocols to gain info about a switch
- C.
  
  The attacker fills the switch Content Addressable Memory(CAM) table with invalid MAC addresses
- D.
  
  Using brute force password attacks to gain access to a switch
Correct Answer
D. Using brute force password attacks to gain access to a switch
34.

Which 3 statements are true about the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) technology? (choose 3)
- A.
  
  In an Ethernet LAN domain, each station continuously listens for traffic on the medium to determine when gaps between frame transmissions occur and then sends the frame.
- B.
  
  In an Ethernet LAN domain, stations may begin transmitting any time they detect that the network is quite(there is no traffic)
- C.
  
  In the CSMA/CD process, priorities are assigned to particular stations, and the station with the highest priority transmits frames on the medium.
- D.
  
  If a collision occurs in an Ethernet LAN domain, transmitting stations stop transmitting and wait a random length for time before attempting to retransmit the frame.
- E.
  
  If a collision occurs in an Ethernet LAN domain, only the station with the highest priority continues to transmit and the rest of the stations wait a random length of time before attempting to retransmit the frame
- F.
  
  In an Ethernet LAN domain, all stations execute a backoff algorithm based on their assigned priorities before they transmit frames on the medium
Correct Answer(s)
A. In an Ethernet LAN domain, each station continuously listens for traffic on the medium to determine when gaps between frame transmissions occur and then sends the frame.
B. In an Ethernet LAN domain, stations may begin transmitting any time they detect that the network is quite(there is no traffic)
D. If a collision occurs in an Ethernet LAN domain, transmitting stations stop transmitting and wait a random length for time before attempting to retransmit the frame.

Explanation
The first statement is true because in CSMA/CD, each station continuously listens for traffic on the medium to determine when gaps between frame transmissions occur and then sends the frame. The second statement is true because stations in an Ethernet LAN domain can begin transmitting anytime they detect that the network is quiet (no traffic). The fourth statement is true because if a collision occurs in an Ethernet LAN domain, transmitting stations stop transmitting and wait a random length of time before attempting to retransmit the frame.

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35.

Match the wireless standard to the correct description. 802.11b
- A.
  
  Specifies data rates of 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps due to differently sized spreading sequences specified in the DSSS modulation technique
- B.
  
  Uses the 5.7 GHz band with less interference, but obstructions can affect performance and limit range
- C.
  
  Uses multiple radios and antennae at endpoints, each broadcasting on the same freq to establish multiple streams
- D.
  
  Uses the 802.11 MAC, but with higher data rates in the 2.4 GHx ISM band by using the OFDM modulation technique
Correct Answer
A. Specifies data rates of 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps due to differently sized spreading sequences specified in the DSSS modulation technique

Explanation
802.11b is a wireless standard that specifies data rates of 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps. These data rates are achieved by using differently sized spreading sequences specified in the Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) modulation technique. DSSS spreads the signal over a wider frequency band, which helps to improve signal quality and reduce interference. By using different spreading sequences, 802.11b is able to achieve different data rates.

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36.

Match the wireless standard to the correct description. 802.11g
- A.
  
  Specifies data rates of 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps due to differently sized spreading sequences specified in the DSSS modulation technique
- B.
  
  Uses the 5.7 GHz band with less interference, but obstructions can affect performance and limit range
- C.
  
  Uses multiple radios and antennae at endpoints, each broadcasting on the same freq to establish multiple streams
- D.
  
  Uses the 802.11 MAC, but with higher data rates in the 2.4 GHx ISM band by using the OFDM modulation technique
Correct Answer
D. Uses the 802.11 MAC, but with higher data rates in the 2.4 GHx ISM band by using the OFDM modulation technique

Explanation
The correct answer explains that 802.11g uses the 802.11 MAC (Media Access Control) protocol, but with higher data rates in the 2.4 GHz ISM (Industrial, Scientific, and Medical) band by utilizing the OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing) modulation technique. This means that 802.11g can achieve faster data transfer speeds compared to previous standards, while still using the same MAC protocol and operating within the 2.4 GHz frequency band. OFDM allows for more efficient data transmission by dividing the signal into multiple subcarriers, reducing interference and increasing overall performance.

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37.

Match the wireless standard to the correct description. 802.11a
- A.
  
  Specifies data rates of 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps due to differently sized spreading sequences specified in the DSSS modulation technique
- B.
  
  Uses the 5.7 GHz band with less interference, but obstructions can affect performance and limit range
- C.
  
  Uses multiple radios and antennae at endpoints, each broadcasting on the same freq to establish multiple streams
- D.
  
  Uses the 802.11 MAC, but with higher data rates in the 2.4 GHx ISM band by using the OFDM modulation technique
Correct Answer
B. Uses the 5.7 GHz band with less interference, but obstructions can affect performance and limit range

Explanation
802.11a uses the 5.7 GHz band with less interference, but obstructions can affect performance and limit range. This means that the wireless standard operates on a higher frequency band, which results in less interference from other devices. However, obstacles such as walls or furniture can hinder the signal and reduce the range of the wireless network.

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38.

Match the wireless standard to the correct description. 802.11n
- A.
  
  Specifies data rates of 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps due to differently sized spreading sequences specified in the DSSS modulation technique
- B.
  
  Uses the 5.7 GHz band with less interference, but obstructions can affect performance and limit range
- C.
  
  Uses multiple radios and antennae at endpoints, each broadcasting on the same freq to establish multiple streams
- D.
  
  Uses the 802.11 MAC, but with higher data rates in the 2.4 GHx ISM band by using the OFDM modulation technique
Correct Answer
C. Uses multiple radios and antennae at endpoints, each broadcasting on the same freq to establish multiple streams

Explanation
802.11n uses multiple radios and antennae at endpoints, each broadcasting on the same frequency to establish multiple streams. This allows for higher data rates and improved performance compared to previous wireless standards. By utilizing multiple streams, 802.11n can achieve faster and more reliable wireless connections, making it suitable for applications that require high bandwidth, such as video streaming or online gaming.

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39.

Choose the correct description : Wireless NIC
- A.
  
  Connects multiple wireless clients or stations to the wired LAN
- B.
  
  Connects 2 separated, isolated wired networks together
- C.
  
  Encodes a data stream onto an RF signal using the configd modulation technique
Correct Answer
C. Encodes a data stream onto an RF signal using the configd modulation technique

Explanation
The correct answer is "encodes a data stream onto an RF signal using the configured modulation technique." This description accurately explains the function of a Wireless NIC, which is to encode data onto a radio frequency signal using a specific modulation technique. This allows wireless clients or stations to connect to a wired LAN without the need for physical cables.

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40.

Choose the correct description : Access Point
- A.
  
  Connects multiple wireless clients or stations to the wired LAN
- B.
  
  Connects 2 separated, isolated wired networks together
- C.
  
  Encodes a data stream onto an RF signal using the configd modulation technique
Correct Answer
A. Connects multiple wireless clients or stations to the wired LAN

Explanation
An access point is a device that connects multiple wireless clients or stations to the wired LAN. It acts as a central hub, allowing wireless devices to connect to a wired network and access its resources. This enables multiple devices to connect to the internet or share files and data within the network.

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1
0
41.

Choose the correct description : Wireless Router
- A.
  
  Connects multiple wireless clients or stations to the wired LAN
- B.
  
  Connects 2 separated, isolated wired networks together
- C.
  
  Encodes a data stream onto an RF signal using the configd modulation technique
Correct Answer
B. Connects 2 separated, isolated wired networks together

Explanation
The correct answer is "connects 2 separated, isolated wired networks together." A wireless router can bridge two separate wired networks together, allowing devices connected to each network to communicate with each other. This is useful in situations where there are multiple wired networks in a location, and wireless connectivity is needed between them.

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42.

At which layer of the OSI model do wireless access points operate?
- A.
  
  Physical
- B.
  
  Data link
- C.
  
  Network
- D.
  
  Application
Correct Answer
B. Data link

Explanation
Wireless access points operate at the data link layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on a network. Wireless access points use protocols such as Ethernet to connect devices to a wireless network, and they handle tasks such as error detection and correction, as well as controlling access to the network through techniques like MAC address filtering.

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1
0
43.

Which 2 steps are required for a wireless client to associate with an access point? (choose 2)
- A.
  
  IP addressing
- B.
  
  Wireless address translation
- C.
  
  Wireless client authentication
- D.
  
  Channel identification
- E.
  
  Wireless client association
Correct Answer(s)
C. Wireless client authentication
E. Wireless client association

Explanation
To associate with an access point, a wireless client needs to go through two steps. The first step is wireless client authentication, where the client verifies its identity to the access point. This is typically done through a password or other credentials. The second step is wireless client association, where the client connects to the access point and establishes a network connection. This allows the client to communicate with other devices on the network.

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44.

Which 3 WLAN client authentication types require a preprogrammed network key to be set on the client? (choose 3)
- A.
  
  OPEN with data encryption disabled
- B.
  
  SHARED with data encryption algorithm WEP
- C.
  
  WPA with data encryption algorithm TKIP
- D.
  
  WPA-PSK with data encryption algorithm TKIP
- E.
  
  WPA2 with data encryption algorithm AES
- F.
  
  WPA2-PSK with data encryption algorithm AES
Correct Answer(s)
B. SHARED with data encryption algorithm WEP
D. WPA-PSK with data encryption algorithm TKIP
F. WPA2-PSK with data encryption algorithm AES

Explanation
The three WLAN client authentication types that require a preprogrammed network key to be set on the client are SHARED with data encryption algorithm WEP, WPA-PSK with data encryption algorithm TKIP, and WPA2-PSK with data encryption algorithm AES. These authentication types rely on a pre-shared key (PSK) that is configured on both the client and the access point. This key is used to authenticate the client and establish a secure connection between the client and the network. The other authentication types mentioned do not require a preprogrammed network key and use different methods for authentication and encryption.

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45.

Which 2 items contribute to the security of a WLAN?
- A.
  
  WPA2
- B.
  
  Use of multiple channels
- C.
  
  Hiding the SSID
- D.
  
  Open authentication
- E.
  
  AES
Correct Answer(s)
A. WPA2
E. AES

Explanation
WPA2 and AES contribute to the security of a WLAN. WPA2 is a security protocol that provides encryption and authentication for wireless networks, making it difficult for unauthorized users to access the network. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a cryptographic algorithm used to secure data transmission over the network, ensuring that the information remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access. Both WPA2 and AES work together to enhance the security of a WLAN by encrypting data and providing secure authentication methods.

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46.

Which term is used for products that are tested to be interoperable in both PSK and 802.11X/Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) operation for authentication?
- A.
  
  Personal mode
- B.
  
  WPA2 compatible
- C.
  
  RADIUS authenticated
- D.
  
  Enterprise mode
- E.
  
  Pre-shared key authenticated
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise mode

Explanation
Enterprise mode is the term used for products that are tested to be interoperable in both PSK and 802.11X/Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) operation for authentication. This mode is typically used in larger organizations where a centralized authentication server, such as a RADIUS server, is used to authenticate users. It allows for more secure and flexible authentication methods, such as certificate-based authentication, compared to the simpler pre-shared key (PSK) authentication used in personal mode.

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47.

To help ensure a secure wireless network, most enterprise networks should follow which IEEE standard?
- A.
  
  802.11 a
- B.
  
  802.11 b
- C.
  
  802.11 c
- D.
  
  802.11 i
Correct Answer
D. 802.11 i

Explanation
The IEEE standard 802.11i, also known as WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2), is specifically designed to provide strong encryption and security measures for wireless networks. It uses advanced encryption algorithms like AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) to protect data transmission and prevent unauthorized access. Therefore, choosing 802.11i helps to ensure a secure wireless network for enterprise environments.

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48.

Which method of network authentication provides the highest level of security?
- A.
  
  OPEN
- B.
  
  SHARED
- C.
  
  WPA
- D.
  
  WPA-PSK
Correct Answer
D. WPA-PSK

Explanation
WPA-PSK (Wi-Fi Protected Access Pre-Shared Key) provides the highest level of security among the given options. WPA-PSK uses a strong encryption algorithm and requires a pre-shared key (password) to authenticate and access the network. This method ensures that only authorized users with the correct key can connect to the network, making it more secure compared to OPEN, SHARED, and WPA methods.

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49.

Which 2 combinations of 802.11b RF channels would allow 2 wireless APs to operate simultaneoulsy in the same room with no channel overlap? (choose 2)
- A.
  
  Channels 10 and 6
- B.
  
  Channels 9 and 6
- C.
  
  Channels 8 and 5
- D.
  
  Channels 7 and 2
- E.
  
  Channels 6 and 2
- F.
  
  Channels 6 and 11
Correct Answer(s)
D. Channels 7 and 2
F. Channels 6 and 11
50.

Why do cordless devices, such as cordless phones, sometimes interfere with wireless access points?
- A.
  
  These devices operate at similar frequencies
- B.
  
  These devices operate at the same frequencies and have higher RF power settings
- C.
  
  These devices flood the entire frequency spectrum with low power noise, which may cause loss of signal for wireless devices trying to connect with an access point
- D.
  
  The signal from the cordless device is non-polarized and combines with the access point polarized signal, thus reducing overall signal strength.
Correct Answer
A. These devices operate at similar frequencies

Explanation
Cordless devices, such as cordless phones, sometimes interfere with wireless access points because they operate at similar frequencies. This similarity in frequencies can lead to signal interference and loss of connectivity for wireless devices trying to connect with an access point.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

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Current Version
Oct 05, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Sep 28, 2011

Quiz Created by
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LAN Switching And Wireless

Which 3 options correctly associate a layer of the hierarchical design model with its function? (choose 3)

With respect to network design, what is convergence?

What are convergence benefist? (Choose 3)

What are the analysis actions for User Communities? (Choose 3)

What are the analysis actions for Data Stores and Data Servers? (Choose 4)

What factor may complicate user communities analysis?

Define port density

Define wire speed

Define forwarding rate

Define link aggregation

What would be the port capacity of a single port on a 48-port Gigabit Ethernet switch?

A switch that uses MAC addresses to forward frames operates at which layer of the OSI model?

What is a feature offered by all stackable switches?

What function is performed by a Cisco access level switch?

What are some of the features of the Core Layer? (Choose 3)

What are some of the features of the AccessLayer? (Choose 3)

Which 2 characteristics describe the Core Layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose 2)

Refer tot he exhibit. What does this error message signify?

What is the effect of entering the banner login #Authorized Personnel Only!# command?

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security violation protect

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security violation restrict

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security violation shutdown

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security mac-address sticky

Choose the correct description for: Switchport port-security maximum

Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the MAC address table shown in blue. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown below the MAC address table?

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the command output?

What does pressing Ctrl+P on the command line do?

What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely connecting to a device?

Refer to the exhibit. How many colision and broadcast domains are presented in the network?

Define: MAC address flooding

Define: DHCP starvation

Define: CDP attacks

Define: Telnet attacks

Which 3 statements are true about the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) technology? (choose 3)

Match the wireless standard to the correct description. 802.11b

Match the wireless standard to the correct description. 802.11g

Match the wireless standard to the correct description. 802.11a

Match the wireless standard to the correct description. 802.11n

Choose the correct description : Wireless NIC

Choose the correct description : Access Point

Choose the correct description : Wireless Router

At which layer of the OSI model do wireless access points operate?

Which 2 steps are required for a wireless client to associate with an access point? (choose 2)

Which 3 WLAN client authentication types require a preprogrammed network key to be set on the client? (choose 3)

Which 2 items contribute to the security of a WLAN?

Which term is used for products that are tested to be interoperable in both PSK and 802.11X/Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) operation for authentication?

To help ensure a secure wireless network, most enterprise networks should follow which IEEE standard?

Which method of network authentication provides the highest level of security?

Which 2 combinations of 802.11b RF channels would allow 2 wireless APs to operate simultaneoulsy in the same room with no channel overlap? (choose 2)

Why do cordless devices, such as cordless phones, sometimes interfere with wireless access points?