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Explanation Euthanasia refers to the act of intentionally ending someone's life in order to relieve their suffering, typically due to a terminal illness or unbearable pain. The term "Good Death" or "good death" is often used to describe euthanasia because it emphasizes the intention of providing a peaceful and painless death for the individual.
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2.
Never perform a euthanasia without a:
Explanation Performing euthanasia without a signed consent form is not only unethical but also illegal in many jurisdictions. The consent form ensures that the decision to end a person's life is made willingly and with full understanding of the consequences. It protects both the patient and the healthcare provider from any potential legal or ethical issues that may arise. Without a signed consent form, there is no evidence that the patient or their legal representative authorized the euthanasia procedure, making it a violation of medical ethics and potentially subject to legal consequences.
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3.
What 3 things must you find out from the owner before a euthanasia?
A.
Where/when will the procedure take place
B.
What is to be done with the body
C.
Will the client/family be present for the procedure
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation Before performing euthanasia, it is crucial to gather important information from the owner. This includes knowing the location and time of the procedure, ensuring proper arrangements for the body after euthanasia, and determining whether the client or family members will be present during the procedure. Gathering all of this information is essential for ensuring a smooth and respectful euthanasia process.
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4.
What is a semi-private cremation?
A.
The pet is cremated with several other pets, and no ashes are returned.
B.
Pets are separated during cremation but still go through the process together. The ashes are mixed.
C.
Only one animal is placed through the crematory, and all ashes are returned to the client.
D.
Only some of the clients can be allowed to have their pet cremated.
Correct Answer
B. Pets are separated during cremation but still go through the process together. The ashes are mixed.
Explanation A semi-private cremation refers to the process where pets are separated during the cremation process but are still cremated together. This means that multiple pets are placed in the crematory at the same time, but their ashes are mixed together. As a result, no individual ashes are returned to the pet owners.
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5.
What is the most commonly used injectable euthanasia solution and what is the recommended dose?
A.
Sodium Phenobarbital, 1 ml/4.5 kg and 2ml/1 additional kg
B.
Sodium Pentobarbital, 2ml/1 kg
C.
Sodium Pentobarbital, 2ml/1st 4.5 kgs and 1ml/additional 4.5 kgs
D.
Sodium Pentobarbital, 1ml/10 lbs
Correct Answer(s)
C. Sodium Pentobarbital, 2ml/1st 4.5 kgs and 1ml/additional 4.5 kgs D. Sodium Pentobarbital, 1ml/10 lbs
Explanation The correct answer is Sodium Pentobarbital, 2ml/1st 4.5 kgs and 1ml/additional 4.5 kgs. This is the recommended dose for the most commonly used injectable euthanasia solution. It is important to administer the correct dosage based on the weight of the animal to ensure a humane and effective euthanasia process. Additionally, Sodium Pentobarbital, 1ml/10 lbs is not the correct answer as it does not specify the weight in kilograms, which is the standard unit of measurement for dosing in this context.
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6.
What are 6 things to tell the client before the euthanasia?
A.
The animal won't feel pain.
B.
The pet may go through an excitatory phase.
C.
The pet will lose control of their bowels.
D.
The DVM will be administering an overdose of an anesthetic.
E.
The animal's eyes won't close.
F.
The animal may take one last break (agonal breathing).
G.
The pet will roll off the table.
H.
The pet will take a few hours to pass on.
Correct Answer(s)
A. The animal won't feel pain. B. The pet may go through an excitatory pHase. C. The pet will lose control of their bowels. D. The DVM will be administering an overdose of an anesthetic. E. The animal's eyes won't close. F. The animal may take one last break (agonal breathing).
Explanation The explanation for the given answer is that these are the six important things to tell the client before euthanasia. It is important to assure the client that the animal won't feel pain during the process. The client should also be informed about the possibility of the pet going through an excitatory phase and losing control of their bowels. It is important to explain that the veterinarian will be administering an overdose of an anesthetic and that the animal's eyes won't close. The client should also be prepared for the possibility of the animal experiencing agonal breathing and rolling off the table. Additionally, the client should be informed that the process may take a few hours for the pet to pass on.
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7.
Blood should be collected after giving medications and fluids.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation Blood should not be collected immediately after giving medications and fluids because these substances can affect the composition and quality of the blood sample. Medications and fluids can alter the levels of certain components in the blood, such as electrolytes or drugs, which can lead to inaccurate test results. Therefore, it is important to wait for a certain period of time after administering medications or fluids before collecting blood for testing.
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8.
Collect enough blood to run the test how many times?
Correct Answer 3
Explanation The question asks how many times the test can be run with the collected amount of blood. The answer is 3, indicating that there is enough blood to conduct the test three times.
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9.
You should label blood tubes immediately after collection.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation Blood tubes should be labeled immediately after collection to ensure accurate identification of the sample. By labeling the tubes right away, healthcare professionals can avoid any confusion or mix-ups that may occur later on. Proper labeling also helps in maintaining the integrity of the sample and ensures that it is properly matched with the patient's information. This practice is crucial for patient safety and to prevent any errors in diagnosis or treatment. Therefore, it is important to label blood tubes immediately after collection.
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10.
Which blood tubes should be filled first?
A.
EDTA (purple top)
B.
Serum Separator (Tiger tops)
C.
Red top
D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
A. EDTA (purple top)
Explanation Fill anticoagulants and then clot tubes.
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11.
Most blood draws performed on dogs and cats are performed with a 20G needle.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation 22G (larger dog would require a 20G)
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12.
Glucose curves require what size needle?
Correct Answer 25-28G
Explanation Glucose curves require a needle size of 25-28G. This is because a larger gauge needle may cause discomfort or pain to the patient, while a smaller gauge needle may not be able to effectively draw blood for accurate glucose measurements. The 25-28G needle size strikes a balance between patient comfort and the ability to obtain a sufficient blood sample for glucose testing.
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13.
What are 3 benefits of alcohol?
A.
Getting drunk.
B.
Removing microbes.
C.
Making the vein firmer.
D.
Vasodilation.
E.
Improved visualization.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Removing microbes. D. Vasodilation. E. Improved visualization.
Explanation Alcohol has the benefit of removing microbes, as it acts as an antiseptic and can kill bacteria and viruses on surfaces or in wounds. It also causes vasodilation, which is the widening of blood vessels, allowing for increased blood flow and potentially reducing blood pressure. This can have positive effects on cardiovascular health. Lastly, alcohol can improve visualization, as it can act as a solvent and help dissolve substances, making them easier to see or detect.
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14.
What are the 2 most important aspects to venipuncture?
Correct Answer(s) Proper restraint and proper distention and immobilization of the vein.
Explanation The two most important aspects of venipuncture are proper restraint and proper distention and immobilization of the vein. Proper restraint ensures that the patient is held securely and safely during the procedure, minimizing the risk of injury or movement that could affect the accuracy of the puncture. Proper distention and immobilization of the vein involves techniques such as applying a tourniquet or using gravity to make the vein more prominent and stable, making it easier to locate and puncture. These two aspects are crucial for a successful and safe venipuncture procedure.
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15.
When attempting to draw blood from peripheral veins, always start at the most proximal portion.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation Start at the distal portion.
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16.
Going by the phrase "Leave left alone", which veins do you leave alone in the dog and cat?
A.
Dog-femoral
B.
Dog-cephalic
C.
Cat-cephalic
D.
Cat-jugular
E.
Cat-lateral saphenous
F.
Cat-medial saphenous
Correct Answer(s)
B. Dog-cepHalic F. Cat-medial sapHenous
Explanation The phrase "Leave left alone" suggests that the mentioned veins should not be touched or manipulated. In the dog, the cephalic vein should be left alone. In the cat, the medial saphenous vein should be left alone.
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17.
What should you never do when you are redirecting your needle?
Correct Answer(s) Never swing the needle swing the needle
Explanation When redirecting a needle, it is important to never swing it. Swinging the needle can cause it to veer off course and potentially cause injury. It is crucial to maintain control and precision when redirecting the needle to ensure accurate and safe insertion.
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18.
You have to occlude arteries in order to obtain a blood sample.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation This statement is false. In order to obtain a blood sample, it is not necessary to occlude arteries. Blood samples are typically obtained by puncturing a vein, not an artery. Occluding arteries can lead to serious complications and is not a standard procedure for obtaining blood samples.
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19.
Asepsis:
A.
Surgical puncture of a vein
B.
The act of inhaling
C.
A bruise or contusion
D.
The absence of septic (infections) material/freedom from infection or infectious material
Correct Answer
D. The absence of septic (infections) material/freedom from infection or infectious material
Explanation The correct answer is "the absence of septic (infections) material/freedom from infection or infectious material." Asepsis refers to the state of being free from any infection or infectious material. It is the opposite of sepsis, which is the presence of harmful bacteria or toxins in the bloodstream. Asepsis is an important concept in healthcare settings, as it is crucial to maintain a sterile environment to prevent the spread of infections and ensure patient safety.
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20.
Perivascular means within a vessel.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation It means around a vessel.
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21.
How long are fecal samples good for if they are stored in the refrigerator?
A.
10 days
B.
4 hours
C.
3 days
D.
12 hours
Correct Answer
C. 3 days
Explanation Fecal samples are good for 3 days if stored in the refrigerator. This is because refrigeration helps to slow down the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms that can contaminate the sample. After 3 days, there is a higher risk of the sample becoming degraded or contaminated, which can affect the accuracy of any tests or analysis conducted on the sample. It is important to properly store and handle fecal samples to ensure reliable results.
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22.
What is the most common enema solution?
Correct Answer mild soap and water water and mild soap
Explanation The most common enema solution is a combination of mild soap and water or water and mild soap. This solution is used to cleanse the colon and rectum, typically before a medical procedure or to relieve constipation. The mild soap helps to soften and lubricate the stool, making it easier to pass. Water is added to dilute the soap and ensure a gentle and effective cleansing.
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23.
What is the correct order of ophthalmic procedures?
A.
Schrimer tear test, corneoconjunctival culture, staining of the cornea, corneoconjunctival smear and scraping
B.
Corneoconjunctival culture, cornealconjunctival smear and scraping, staining of the cornea, schrimer tear test
C.
Schrimer tear test, corneoconjunctival culture, corneoconjunctival smear and scraping, staining of the cornea
D.
Staining of the cornea, schrimer tear test, tonometry
Correct Answer
A. Schrimer tear test, corneoconjunctival culture, staining of the cornea, corneoconjunctival smear and scraping
Explanation The correct order of ophthalmic procedures is as follows: first, the schrimer tear test is performed to measure tear production. Then, a corneoconjunctival culture is taken to identify any bacterial or fungal infections. Next, the corneoconjunctival smear and scraping are done to collect samples for further analysis. Finally, the cornea is stained to detect any abnormalities or damage. This sequence ensures that the tear production is measured first, followed by the identification of infections and collection of samples, and lastly, the detection of any abnormalities or damage.
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24.
The purpose of the Schrimer tear test is to determine the presence, location and severity of corneal ulcers.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation The purpose is to assess the amount of tear production in each eye. (Tests for KCS)
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25.
The supplies for Schrimer Tear Test are:
A.
Proparacaine
B.
Ophthalmic irrigating solution
C.
Schrimer tear test strips
Correct Answer(s)
A. Proparacaine C. Schrimer tear test strips
Explanation The correct answer is Proparacaine, Schrimer tear test strips. These supplies are necessary for conducting the Schrimer Tear Test. Proparacaine is a local anesthetic used to numb the eye before performing the test. Schrimer tear test strips are small strips of filter paper that are placed in the lower eyelid to measure the amount of tears produced over a certain period of time. The ophthalmic irrigating solution is not required for this specific test.
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26.
The Schrimer Tear test #1 tests for only the basal reflex.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation It tests for the reflexive and basal reflexes.
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27.
How long do you leave the Schrimer tear test strip in place, and where you do put it?
Correct Answer 1 minute, and put it near the lateral canthus between the cornea and lower eyelid.
Explanation The Schirmer tear test strip is left in place for 1 minute and is placed near the lateral canthus between the cornea and lower eyelid. This is done to measure the amount of tear production and assess the function of the lacrimal glands. The lateral canthus is the outer corner of the eye, and placing the strip in this location allows for accurate measurement of tear production.
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28.
The Fluorescein stain strip is placed on the bulbar conjunctiva for 1-2 seconds.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation The explanation for the correct answer, which is True, is that the Fluorescein stain strip is indeed placed on the bulbar conjunctiva for a short duration of 1-2 seconds. This stain is commonly used in ophthalmology to detect corneal abrasions, foreign bodies, and other eye conditions. By placing the strip on the bulbar conjunctiva, the dye spreads across the surface of the eye, highlighting any abnormalities or damage that may be present.
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29.
What is the purpose of the Tono-Pen?
A.
To check for KCS
B.
To measure IOP
C.
To assess tear production
D.
To check the patency of the nasolacrimal duct
Correct Answer
B. To measure IOP
Explanation The purpose of the Tono-Pen is to measure intraocular pressure (IOP). Intraocular pressure refers to the pressure inside the eye and is an important measurement in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as glaucoma. The Tono-Pen is a handheld device that uses a small probe to gently touch the cornea and provide a reading of the pressure. By measuring IOP, healthcare professionals can assess the health of the eye and determine if any treatment is necessary.
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30.
If the Tono-Pen reads >10% accuracy, you can call it a day and go to the next patient.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation You need to redo the procedure.
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31.
60% of the body is composed of water called:
Correct Answer Total Body Water TBW
Explanation Total Body Water (TBW) refers to the percentage of water present in the human body. It is estimated that around 60% of the body is composed of water. TBW is an important factor in maintaining various bodily functions such as digestion, circulation, and temperature regulation. It is crucial for overall health and hydration.
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32.
3 areas that fluids are found include:
A.
Intravascular fluid (plasma)
B.
Intracellular fluid (ICF)
C.
Interstitial fluid
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation The correct answer is "All of the above" because fluids are found in all three areas mentioned: intravascular fluid (plasma), intracellular fluid (ICF), and interstitial fluid. Intravascular fluid refers to the fluid found within blood vessels, intracellular fluid refers to the fluid inside cells, and interstitial fluid refers to the fluid that surrounds cells in tissues. Therefore, all three areas mentioned contain fluids.
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33.
2/3 of TBW is intracellular fluid.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation Two-thirds of TBW (Total Body Water) refers to the amount of water present inside the cells of the body, which is known as intracellular fluid. This statement is true because the majority of the body's water is indeed located within the cells.
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34.
Sometimes fluids can accumulate in areas such as the abdomen, pleural cavity, or in the extremeties and is known as:
Correct Answer third space fluids Third space fluids
Explanation Third space fluids refer to the accumulation of fluids in areas of the body such as the abdomen, pleural cavity, or extremities. These fluids are referred to as "third space" because they are not in the normal spaces where fluids are typically found, such as the blood vessels or cells. This accumulation can occur due to various reasons, such as inflammation, trauma, or certain medical conditions. It is important to monitor and manage third space fluids as their accumulation can lead to complications and imbalances in the body.
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35.
What are the major ECF electrolytes?
A.
Potassium
B.
Chloride
C.
Sodium
D.
Phosphorus
E.
Magnesium
F.
Bicarbonate
Correct Answer(s)
B. Chloride C. Sodium F. Bicarbonate
Explanation The major ECF electrolytes are chloride, sodium, and bicarbonate. These electrolytes play crucial roles in maintaining the balance of fluids and pH levels in the extracellular fluid (ECF). Chloride is an anion that helps maintain fluid balance, while sodium is a cation that regulates fluid levels and plays a role in nerve and muscle function. Bicarbonate is also an anion that helps regulate the pH of the ECF by acting as a buffer. These electrolytes are essential for normal bodily functions and maintaining homeostasis.
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36.
The major ICF electrolytes are:
A.
Potassium
B.
Chloride
C.
Sodium
D.
Phosphorus
E.
Magnesium
F.
Bicarbonate
Correct Answer(s)
A. Potassium D. pHospHorus E. Magnesium
Explanation The major ICF electrolytes are potassium, phosphorus, and magnesium. These electrolytes are essential for various physiological processes in the body. Potassium is important for maintaining proper fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contractions. Phosphorus is involved in energy production, bone formation, and cell signaling. Magnesium plays a role in muscle and nerve function, protein synthesis, and blood pressure regulation. These electrolytes are primarily found inside the cells and are crucial for maintaining cellular health and function.
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37.
What are the normal pHs of arterial and venous blood?
Correct Answer(s) 7.4, 7.35 7.35, 7.4
Explanation The normal pH of arterial blood is 7.4, while the normal pH of venous blood is 7.35. This slight difference in pH is due to the fact that arterial blood is oxygenated and has a higher concentration of oxygen, which increases the pH. Venous blood, on the other hand, is deoxygenated and has a lower concentration of oxygen, leading to a slightly lower pH. Therefore, the correct answer is 7.4 for arterial blood and 7.35 for venous blood.
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38.
What 4 things help determine the need for fluid therapy?
A.
Dryness of MM
B.
Heart rate
C.
CRT
D.
Pulse rate
E.
Position of the eyes in the socket
F.
Skin turgor test
Correct Answer(s)
A. Dryness of MM C. CRT E. Position of the eyes in the socket F. Skin turgor test
Explanation The need for fluid therapy can be determined by assessing the dryness of mucous membranes (MM), which can indicate dehydration. The capillary refill time (CRT) is another important factor, as a prolonged CRT may suggest poor circulation and the need for fluid replacement. The position of the eyes in the socket can also provide information about hydration status, as sunken eyes can be a sign of dehydration. Lastly, the skin turgor test can help assess fluid balance, as decreased skin turgor may indicate dehydration and the need for fluid therapy.
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39.
What 3 primary mechanisms are used to control the acid base balance?
A.
Blood buffers (sodium bicarbonate)
B.
Lungs
C.
Kidneys
D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above
Explanation The question asks about the primary mechanisms used to control the acid-base balance. The answer "All of the above" is correct because all three options mentioned (blood buffers, lungs, and kidneys) play crucial roles in maintaining the acid-base balance in the body. Blood buffers, such as sodium bicarbonate, help to regulate the pH of the blood by absorbing or releasing hydrogen ions. The lungs regulate the levels of carbon dioxide, which affects the pH of the blood. The kidneys excrete excess acid or base through urine, thereby maintaining the acid-base balance. Therefore, all three mechanisms are essential for controlling the acid-base balance.
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40.
What are clinical signs of a degree of dehydration of 6%-8%?
A.
Subtle loss of skin elasticity
B.
Dry MM
C.
Obvious signs of shock
D.
Eyes possibly sunken in the orbits
E.
Obvious delay in return of tented skin to normal position
F.
Possible signs of shock
G.
Slightly prolonged CRT
H.
Possibly dry MM
Correct Answer(s)
D. Eyes possibly sunken in the orbits E. Obvious delay in return of tented skin to normal position G. Slightly prolonged CRT H. Possibly dry MM
Explanation The clinical signs of a degree of dehydration of 6%-8% include eyes possibly sunken in the orbits, obvious delay in return of tented skin to normal position, slightly prolonged CRT, and possibly dry MM. These signs indicate a moderate level of dehydration, where the body has lost a significant amount of fluid. The sunken eyes and delayed return of tented skin suggest decreased fluid volume, while slightly prolonged CRT and dry MM indicate reduced blood circulation and moisture levels in the body. These signs may be indicative of dehydration and should be monitored and addressed promptly.
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41.
The goal of fluid therapy is to:
A.
Restore fluid losses
B.
Reestablish normal blood volume
C.
Improve tissue perfusion
D.
Facilitate the administration of drugs
E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the above
Explanation Fluid therapy aims to achieve multiple goals, including restoring fluid losses, reestablishing normal blood volume, improving tissue perfusion, and facilitating the administration of drugs. By replenishing lost fluids, normal blood volume can be maintained, ensuring adequate circulation and oxygenation of tissues. This helps improve tissue perfusion, which is essential for optimal organ function. Additionally, fluid therapy provides a route for the administration of medications, allowing for their effective delivery. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."
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42.
Crystalloids contain small molecules that will pass through semipermeable membranes and enter all body compartments.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation Crystalloids are solutions that contain small molecules such as salts and sugars. These small molecules are able to pass through semipermeable membranes, which means they can enter all body compartments, including the intracellular and extracellular spaces. This property of crystalloids allows them to be used for fluid resuscitation and maintenance in medical settings. Therefore, the statement that crystalloids contain small molecules that will pass through semipermeable membranes and enter all body compartments is true.
Explanation Lactated Ringer's Solution is the most common type of crystalloid. It is a balanced electrolyte solution that contains sodium, potassium, calcium, and lactate. It is commonly used for fluid resuscitation and maintenance in patients with fluid and electrolyte imbalances. LRS helps restore and maintain the body's fluid balance and electrolyte levels, making it a popular choice in various medical settings.
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44.
What are 3 other types of crystalloids?
A.
Normosol-R
B.
0.9% NaCl
C.
5% Dextrose
D.
All of the above.
Correct Answer
D. All of the above.
Explanation The correct answer is "All of the above" because Normosol-R, 0.9% NaCl, and 5% Dextrose are all examples of crystalloids. Crystalloids are a type of intravenous fluid that contains small molecules that can easily pass through cell membranes. They are commonly used to replace fluids and electrolytes in the body and to maintain hydration. Normosol-R is a balanced crystalloid solution that contains multiple electrolytes, 0.9% NaCl is a saline solution, and 5% Dextrose is a solution containing glucose.
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45.
Because of the small molecules of crystalloids, only about 75% or the solution will remain in the vasculature 30 minutes after infusion.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation 25% will remain
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46.
What type of fluid contains large molecules that don't readily pass through semipermeable membranes?
Correct Answer Colloids colloids
Explanation Colloids are a type of fluid that contains large molecules that cannot easily pass through semipermeable membranes. These large molecules are suspended in the fluid and do not dissolve completely. Due to their size, they are unable to pass through the pores of the semipermeable membranes, resulting in the fluid being unable to pass through as well. Therefore, colloids are the correct answer to the question.
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47.
When administered IV, most of the solution stays in the intravascular space and therefore are more effective at expanding blood volume.
A.
True
B.
False
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation When a solution is administered intravenously (IV), it is directly delivered into the bloodstream. This means that most of the solution remains within the intravascular space, which refers to the blood vessels. As a result, IV solutions are more effective at expanding blood volume because they directly enter the circulatory system and increase the overall volume of blood. This can be beneficial in situations where there is a need to rapidly restore blood volume, such as in cases of severe dehydration or blood loss. Therefore, the statement "When administered IV, most of the solution stays in the intravascular space and therefore are more effective at expanding blood volume" is true.
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48.
The loss of total body water without affecting vascular volume.
Correct Answer Dehydration dehydration
Explanation Dehydration refers to the loss of total body water without affecting vascular volume. This means that the body is losing water, but the volume of blood within the blood vessels remains the same. Dehydration can occur due to various reasons such as inadequate fluid intake, excessive sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, or certain medical conditions. It is important to replenish the lost fluids to prevent complications associated with dehydration.
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49.
The loss of vascular volume large enough to affect cardiac output.
Correct Answer Hypovolemia hypovolemia
Explanation Hypovolemia refers to a decrease in the volume of blood circulating in the body, specifically a loss of vascular volume. This loss of blood volume can be significant enough to impact the cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. When there is not enough blood volume, the heart has to work harder to maintain adequate circulation, leading to a decrease in cardiac output. Therefore, hypovolemia is the correct answer to the given question.
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50.
A significant loss of blood during minutes to hours that can cause hypovolemia and collapse of the cardiac system.
Correct Answer Hemorrhage hemorrhage
Explanation Hemorrhage refers to a significant loss of blood within a short period of time, ranging from minutes to hours. This can lead to hypovolemia, which is a decreased volume of blood in the body, and ultimately result in the collapse of the cardiac system. Hemorrhage can occur due to various reasons such as trauma, internal bleeding, or medical conditions. It is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or even death.
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