Medical Law And Ethics Quiz! Trivia Test

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Medical Law And Ethics Quiz! Trivia Test - Quiz

Welcome to the Medical Law and Ethics Quiz. There are specific guidelines that specify what medical practitioners should do under different circumstances, and some of them help practitioners if they get sued. As you start your journey as a medical practitioner, how well do you understand what is right and wrong when fulfilling your duties? This quiz will help you find out, give it a try, and polish your understanding!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Written codes of ethics for health care practitioners was primarily evolved to serve as moral guidelines for those who provide care to the sick?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because written codes of ethics in healthcare were developed to provide moral guidelines for healthcare practitioners who provide care to the sick. These codes help ensure that healthcare professionals uphold ethical standards, maintain patient confidentiality, provide competent care, and prioritize patient well-being. They serve as a framework for making ethical decisions and promoting trust and professionalism in the healthcare field.

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  • 2. 

    The Hippocratic oath is a pledge for physicians that remains influential today?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Hippocratic oath is a pledge for physicians that remains influential today because it sets ethical guidelines and principles for medical professionals to follow. It emphasizes the importance of patient care, confidentiality, and the avoidance of harm. This oath has been passed down through generations and is still taken by many medical graduates as a symbol of their commitment to uphold these values in their practice. The principles outlined in the Hippocratic oath continue to shape the doctor-patient relationship and ensure the provision of ethical and compassionate healthcare.

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  • 3. 

    Law is the minimum standard necessary to keep society functioning smoothly?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that law is the minimum standard required to maintain the smooth functioning of society. Laws provide a framework for acceptable behavior, protect individual rights, and ensure social order. Without laws, there would be chaos and conflicts among individuals, leading to an unstable society. Therefore, it can be concluded that the statement is true.

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  • 4. 

    Hospitals are immune from losses brought by patients?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Hospitals are not immune from losses brought by patients. While hospitals may have insurance coverage to mitigate some financial risks, they can still incur losses due to various factors such as unpaid medical bills, lawsuits, or reimbursement cuts from insurance companies. Additionally, hospitals may also face financial challenges due to factors like rising healthcare costs, changing healthcare regulations, or economic downturns. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that hospitals are immune from patient-related losses.

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  • 5. 

    Formalized codes of ethics are as enforceable as laws in governing the behavior of an organization's members?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Formalized codes of ethics are not as enforceable as laws in governing the behavior of an organization's members. While codes of ethics provide guidelines and standards for ethical behavior within an organization, they do not have the same legal standing or consequences as laws. Violations of laws can result in legal actions and penalties, whereas violations of codes of ethics typically result in internal disciplinary actions within the organization.

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  • 6. 

    Fill In: the doctering that is latin for let the master answer?

    • A.

      Respondant superior

    • B.

      False claims act

    • C.

      Co-payment

    • D.

      Licensure

    Correct Answer
    A. Respondant superior
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "respondent superior." This is a Latin term that means "let the master answer." It is a legal doctrine that holds an employer responsible for the actions of their employees, as long as those actions were within the scope of their employment. In other words, if an employee causes harm or injury to someone while performing their job duties, the employer can be held liable for any damages. This doctrine is important in determining liability and ensuring that victims are able to seek compensation for their injuries.

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  • 7. 

    Truth brought under the factor most related to the health care and defense industry?

    • A.

      Co-payment

    • B.

      Respondant superior

    • C.

      False claims act

    • D.

      Licensure

    Correct Answer
    C. False claims act
    Explanation
    The False Claims Act is the most related factor to the healthcare and defense industry because it is a federal law that imposes liability on individuals and companies who knowingly submit false claims for payment to the government. In the healthcare industry, this act is often used to combat fraud and abuse by healthcare providers who submit false claims for reimbursement. In the defense industry, the False Claims Act can be applied to contractors who submit false claims for payment under government contracts. Therefore, the False Claims Act is directly relevant to both the healthcare and defense industries.

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  • 8. 

    An insurance term indicating the fee paid by the patient.

    • A.

      Respondant superior

    • B.

      Licensure

    • C.

      False claims act

    • D.

      Co-payment

    Correct Answer
    D. Co-payment
    Explanation
    A co-payment is an insurance term that refers to the fee paid by the patient at the time of receiving medical services. It is a fixed amount that the patient is responsible for paying out of pocket, in addition to any deductibles or coinsurance. The purpose of a co-payment is to share the cost of healthcare between the insurance company and the patient, ensuring that the patient has a financial stake in their own healthcare expenses.

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  • 9. 

    The mandatory process established by law and required by certain health care practitioners?

    • A.

      Co-payment

    • B.

      Licensure

    • C.

      Respondant superior

    • D.

      False claims act

    Correct Answer
    B. Licensure
    Explanation
    Licensure refers to the mandatory process established by law that requires certain health care practitioners to obtain a license in order to practice. This process ensures that practitioners meet specific qualifications and standards set by regulatory bodies, such as education, training, and competency. Licensure helps protect the public by ensuring that practitioners are qualified and competent to provide safe and effective healthcare services. It also provides a legal framework for accountability and regulation within the healthcare industry.

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  • 10. 

    Correct the statement: A physician is or is not obligated to effect the recovery with each patient?

    • A.

      Is

    • B.

      Is not

    Correct Answer
    B. Is not
    Explanation
    A physician is not obligated to effect the recovery with each patient. This means that a physician is not required to guarantee or ensure the recovery of every patient they treat. While physicians have a duty to provide appropriate medical care and treatment, the ultimate outcome of a patient's recovery is not solely dependent on the physician's efforts. There are various factors that can influence a patient's recovery, including the severity of the condition, the patient's overall health, and their adherence to treatment plans.

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  • 11. 

    A physician is or is not obligated to use due care skills and diligence in treating patients?

    • A.

      Is

    • B.

      Is not

    Correct Answer
    A. Is
    Explanation
    A physician is obligated to use due care skills and diligence in treating patients because it is their professional responsibility to provide the best possible care to their patients. This includes staying updated with the latest medical knowledge, accurately diagnosing and treating illnesses, and ensuring patient safety. Failing to exercise due care skills and diligence can lead to medical errors, harm to patients, and potential legal consequences for the physician. Therefore, it is crucial for physicians to fulfill their obligation and provide the highest standard of care to their patients.

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  • 12. 

    A physician is or is not obligated to know allergic or advance or reverse reactions to medications reported by a specific patient?

    • A.

      Is

    • B.

      Is not

    Correct Answer
    A. Is
    Explanation
    A physician is obligated to know allergic or advance or reverse reactions to medications reported by a specific patient. This is because it is crucial for a physician to be aware of any potential adverse reactions or allergies a patient may have to certain medications. By knowing this information, the physician can make informed decisions regarding the prescription and administration of medications, ensuring the safety and well-being of the patient.

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  • 13. 

    A physician is or is not obligated to be a skilled specialist if he or she is a general practitioner?

    • A.

      Is

    • B.

      Is not

    Correct Answer
    B. Is not
    Explanation
    A general practitioner is not obligated to be a skilled specialist because their role is to provide primary healthcare to patients across a wide range of medical conditions. Unlike specialists who focus on a specific area of medicine and undergo additional training, general practitioners have a broad knowledge base and are trained to handle common illnesses and injuries. While they may refer patients to specialists for more complex cases, they are not required to possess the same level of specialized expertise.

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  • 14. 

    List:  list the 4 D's of negligence.

    • A.

      Dude, drain, defete, and demand

    • B.

      Duty, derelect, direct cause, and damages

    • C.

      Dip, dog, doctor, and disinfect

    Correct Answer
    B. Duty, derelect, direct cause, and damages
    Explanation
    The correct answer is duty, derelict, direct cause, and damages. These four elements are commonly known as the "4 D's of negligence." Duty refers to the legal obligation to act in a certain way to prevent harm. Derelict means failing to fulfill that duty, such as through negligence or carelessness. Direct cause refers to the link between the defendant's actions and the plaintiff's injuries. Damages refer to the harm or loss suffered by the plaintiff as a result of the defendant's negligence.

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  • 15. 

    A claim that has been previously tried and decided?

    • A.

      Sumption of risk

    • B.

      Restudicata

    • C.

      Statue of limitations

    • D.

      Denile

    Correct Answer
    B. Restudicata
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "res judicata." Res judicata is a legal term that refers to a claim or issue that has already been decided by a court. Once a claim has been adjudicated and a final judgment has been reached, it cannot be re-litigated between the same parties. This principle is based on the idea that there should be finality and certainty in legal decisions, preventing parties from repeatedly bringing the same claim to court.

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  • 16. 

    Time for filing a suit?

    • A.

      Sumption of risk

    • B.

      Statue of limitations

    • C.

      Denile

    • D.

      Restudicata

    Correct Answer
    B. Statue of limitations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "statute of limitations." This refers to the time limit within which a lawsuit must be filed. Once this time period has expired, the plaintiff is no longer able to bring a legal action against the defendant. The statute of limitations varies depending on the type of case and jurisdiction, and it exists to ensure that cases are brought in a timely manner, allowing for a fair and efficient legal process.

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  • 17. 

    The plaintiff knew of the risks and agreed to them ahead of time.

    • A.

      Restudicata

    • B.

      Denile

    • C.

      Statue of limitations

    • D.

      Sumption of risk

    Correct Answer
    D. Sumption of risk
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "sumption of risk." This legal concept refers to the idea that the plaintiff was aware of the potential risks involved in a certain activity or situation and voluntarily chose to proceed despite this knowledge. In other words, the plaintiff cannot hold the defendant responsible for any harm or injury that may occur because they willingly assumed the associated risks. This defense is often used in personal injury cases where the plaintiff participated in a dangerous sport or signed a waiver acknowledging the risks involved.

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  • 18. 

    Written codes of ethics for health care practitioners evolved primarily to serve as moral guidelines for those who provide care to the sick?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The written codes of ethics for healthcare practitioners evolved primarily to serve as moral guidelines for those who provide care to the sick. These codes outline the expected behavior and values that healthcare professionals should adhere to in order to ensure the well-being and safety of their patients. They provide a framework for ethical decision-making and help to maintain trust and professionalism in the healthcare field. By following these codes, healthcare practitioners can ensure that they are providing the best possible care and treatment to their patients.

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  • 19. 

    The Hippocratic oath for physicians is a pledge that remains influential today?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Hippocratic oath is a pledge taken by physicians that outlines ethical principles and professional conduct. It emphasizes the importance of patient care, confidentiality, and the avoidance of harm. Despite being created over 2,000 years ago, the principles of the Hippocratic oath still hold relevance and influence in modern medical practice. It serves as a moral compass for physicians, reminding them of their responsibilities and guiding their decision-making process. The oath's enduring influence is evident in its continued use and adaptation by medical schools and organizations worldwide.

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  • 20. 

    Laws are the minimum standard necessary to keep society functioning smoothly?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Laws are indeed the minimum standard necessary to keep society functioning smoothly. They provide a framework for maintaining order, resolving conflicts, and protecting the rights and well-being of individuals within a community. Without laws, there would be chaos, as people would have no guidelines or consequences for their actions. Laws establish a sense of security, promote fairness, and ensure that everyone is held accountable for their behavior. They are essential for maintaining social order and enabling a harmonious coexistence among individuals in a society.

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  • 21. 

    Hospitals are immune from lawsuits that fall in the formalized codes of ethics?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Hospitals are not immune from lawsuits that fall within the formalized codes of ethics. While hospitals may have certain legal protections, such as sovereign immunity or charitable immunity, these protections are not absolute and lawsuits can still be filed against them. Additionally, hospitals can be held accountable for unethical conduct through legal and regulatory mechanisms. Therefore, the statement that hospitals are immune from lawsuits that fall within the formalized codes of ethics is false.

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  • 22. 

    Who may give informed consent?

    • A.

      Minors

    • B.

      Adults of sound mind

    • C.

      Adults without sound mind

    Correct Answer
    B. Adults of sound mind
    Explanation
    Adults of sound mind are capable of giving informed consent because they have the mental capacity to understand the information provided to them and make a rational decision based on that information. They are able to comprehend the potential risks and benefits of a situation or decision and can give their consent voluntarily without any external influence or coercion. In contrast, minors are typically not considered capable of giving informed consent due to their age and lack of maturity, while adults without sound mind may have impaired judgment or decision-making abilities that prevent them from fully understanding the consequences of their consent.

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  • 23. 

    Who may not give informed consent?

    • A.

      Physically disabled

    • B.

      Adults

    • C.

      Minors

    Correct Answer
    C. Minors
    Explanation
    Minors may not give informed consent because they are typically under the legal age of adulthood and may not have the necessary maturity or understanding to fully comprehend the risks and consequences of their decisions. As a result, they are generally considered to lack the capacity to provide informed consent, particularly in medical or legal situations where their well-being or rights may be at stake.

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  • 24. 

    Must consent to perform routine care such as a physical exam always be in writing?

    • A.

      Yes

    • B.

      No

    Correct Answer
    B. No
    Explanation
    The answer is "no" because routine care such as a physical exam does not always require written consent. In many cases, verbal consent or implied consent may be sufficient. Written consent is usually required for more invasive or complex procedures where the risks are higher. However, for routine care, verbal consent or even the patient's presence and cooperation can be considered as implied consent.

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  • 25. 

    In what health care situation is and imply of consent not sufficient?

    • A.

      At a doctors appointment

    • B.

      At a nursing home

    • C.

      In an emergency or minor surgery

    Correct Answer
    C. In an emergency or minor surgery
    Explanation
    In an emergency or minor surgery, the implication of consent is not sufficient because these situations often require immediate medical intervention where there may not be enough time to obtain explicit consent. In such cases, the healthcare provider may need to make quick decisions to save the patient's life or prevent further harm. However, in non-emergency situations like a doctor's appointment or at a nursing home, implied consent may be sufficient as there is more time to discuss and obtain explicit consent from the patient.

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  • 26. 

    HIPAA states in plain English that patients have no right to sue health care practitioners?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false. HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) does not state that patients have no right to sue healthcare practitioners. In fact, HIPAA primarily focuses on protecting the privacy and security of patients' health information, and does not directly address the issue of patient lawsuits against healthcare practitioners.

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  • 27. 

    HIPAA requires every health care provider to become 100% compliant?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is a federal law in the United States that sets standards for the protection of sensitive patient health information. It requires every health care provider to comply with its regulations in order to safeguard patient privacy and security. Therefore, the statement that HIPAA requires every health care provider to become 100% compliant is true.

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  • 28. 

    Who can approve drugs for public sale?

    • A.

      Public health statute

    • B.

      Child abuse prevention act

    • C.

      FDA

    Correct Answer
    C. FDA
    Explanation
    The FDA, or the Food and Drug Administration, is responsible for approving drugs for public sale. They ensure that drugs are safe and effective for use by the general public. The FDA conducts rigorous testing and evaluation of drugs before granting approval. They also regulate the manufacturing, labeling, and advertising of drugs to ensure that they meet the required standards. This ensures that the public is protected from harmful or ineffective drugs and can have access to safe and reliable medications.

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  • 29. 

    Who mandates the reporting of child abuse?

    • A.

      Child abuse prevention act

    • B.

      FDA

    • C.

      Public health statute

    Correct Answer
    A. Child abuse prevention act
    Explanation
    The Child Abuse Prevention Act mandates the reporting of child abuse. This act is a federal law that requires certain professionals, such as teachers, doctors, and social workers, to report any suspected cases of child abuse or neglect to the appropriate authorities. The act aims to protect children from abuse and ensure that they receive the necessary support and intervention to prevent further harm.

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  • 30. 

    Who requires reports of communicable disease and certain injuries as mandated by state laws?

    • A.

      FDA

    • B.

      Public health statute

    • C.

      Child abuse prevention act

    Correct Answer
    B. Public health statute
    Explanation
    A public health statute requires reports of communicable diseases and certain injuries as mandated by state laws. This means that individuals or organizations who are responsible for enforcing public health regulations and laws are required to collect and report information related to communicable diseases and specific injuries. The FDA and the Child Abuse Prevention Act are not directly related to this requirement.

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  • 31. 

    List 4 vital statistics the government collect?

    • A.

      Births, deaths, marages, and divorces

    • B.

      Sickness, disease, dizzyness, and queeziness

    Correct Answer
    A. Births, deaths, marages, and divorces
    Explanation
    The government collects vital statistics such as births, deaths, marriages, and divorces. These statistics are important for various reasons. Births help in tracking population growth and planning for healthcare and education services. Deaths provide information on mortality rates and help in monitoring public health concerns. Marriages and divorces help in understanding family dynamics and social trends. Collecting and analyzing these vital statistics allows the government to make informed decisions and develop policies that cater to the needs of the population.

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  • 32. 

    Who insures a state's work environment?

    • A.

      Civil rights act

    • B.

      Equal pay act

    • C.

      OSHA

    • D.

      Rehabilitation act

    Correct Answer
    C. OSHA
    Explanation
    OSHA, or the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, insures a state's work environment. OSHA is a federal agency that sets and enforces standards to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for employees. They provide guidelines and regulations for employers to follow, conduct inspections, and impose penalties for non-compliance. OSHA plays a crucial role in protecting workers' rights and ensuring their safety in the workplace.

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  • 33. 

    Who established the EEOC?

    • A.

      Civil rights act

    • B.

      Rehabilitation act

    • C.

      OSHA

    • D.

      Equal pay act

    Correct Answer
    A. Civil rights act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Civil Rights Act. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) as a federal agency responsible for enforcing laws against workplace discrimination. The EEOC works to promote equal opportunity in employment and investigate complaints of discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information. The other options mentioned in the question, such as the Rehabilitation Act, OSHA, and the Equal Pay Act, are important laws but were not responsible for establishing the EEOC.

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  • 34. 

    Who required equal pay for equal work?

    • A.

      Rehabilitation act

    • B.

      OSHA

    • C.

      Civil rights act

    • D.

      Equal pay act

    Correct Answer
    D. Equal pay act
    Explanation
    The Equal Pay Act is the correct answer because it is a federal law in the United States that requires employers to pay men and women equally for doing the same job. The Act was passed in 1963 as an amendment to the Fair Labor Standards Act and aims to eliminate gender-based wage discrimination in the workplace. It ensures that employees receive equal pay for equal work, regardless of their gender.

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  • 35. 

    Define zenotransplantation?

    • A.

      At normal transplant done in the hospital

    • B.

      A transplant done in a doctors office

    • C.

      The transplanting of animal tissues into human beings

    Correct Answer
    C. The transplanting of animal tissues into human beings
    Explanation
    Zenotransplantation refers to the process of transplanting animal tissues into human beings. This procedure involves taking tissues or organs from animals, such as pigs, and implanting them into humans to replace damaged or diseased organs. This technique is being researched as a potential solution to the shortage of human organs available for transplantation. By using animal tissues, it is hoped that more organs will be available for those in need.

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  • 36. 

    What is the greek word for a good death?

    • A.

      Suicide

    • B.

      Chemical death

    • C.

      Euthanasia

    Correct Answer
    C. Euthanasia
    Explanation
    The Greek word for a good death is euthanasia. Euthanasia refers to the act of intentionally ending someone's life in order to alleviate their suffering, typically in cases of terminal illness or severe pain. It is derived from the Greek words "eu" meaning good and "thanatos" meaning death. Euthanasia is a highly debated and controversial topic, with different perspectives on its ethical and legal implications.

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  • 37. 

    One who has 6 months to live or less is considered?

    • A.

      Teminally ill

    • B.

      Healthy

    • C.

      Dead

    Correct Answer
    A. Teminally ill
    Explanation
    Someone who has 6 months to live or less is considered terminally ill. This term is used to describe individuals who have a progressive, incurable disease or condition that is expected to result in their death within a relatively short period of time. It indicates that medical treatment may focus on palliative care and symptom management rather than curative measures.

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  • 38. 

    An irreversable condition that determines when death has occured?

    • A.

      No breathing

    • B.

      System shut down

    • C.

      Brain death

    Correct Answer
    C. Brain death
    Explanation
    Brain death is considered an irreversible condition that determines when death has occurred. When a person is brain dead, it means that there is complete and irreversible loss of all brain function, including activity in the brainstem. This means that the person is unable to breathe on their own and their vital systems, such as the cardiovascular system, have shut down. Brain death is a legal and medical definition of death, as it indicates the permanent loss of all brain activity and the inability for the person to ever regain consciousness or function.

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  • 39. 

    A range of emotions one feels in response to loss?

    • A.

      Sadness

    • B.

      Sick

    • C.

      Grief

    • D.

      Healthy

    Correct Answer
    C. Grief
    Explanation
    Grief is the correct answer because it refers to the range of emotions that one feels in response to loss. It encompasses feelings of sadness, pain, and sorrow that are experienced when someone or something valuable is lost. Grief is a natural and healthy response to loss, and it involves a process of mourning and adjusting to the new reality without the person or thing that was lost.

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  • 40. 

    What is the significance of the Cruzan case?

    • A.

      Made everyone sad

    • B.

      Established to legal pressidence to die

    • C.

      Gave everyone hope

    Correct Answer
    B. Established to legal pressidence to die
    Explanation
    The significance of the Cruzan case is that it established a legal precedent regarding the right to die. This means that the case set a standard or example for future legal decisions regarding end-of-life choices. It likely involved a situation where someone wanted to make decisions about their own medical treatment or end-of-life care, and the court ruling in the Cruzan case established that individuals have the right to make these decisions for themselves.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jun 21, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 30, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Ang06
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