Medical Materiel - 4a151 CDC - Version D *working*
To prepare for 4A151 CDC test. Version D.
- 1.
What items are eligible for the Department of Defense/Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Shelf-Life Extension Program (SLEP)?
- A.
Only drugs in Federal Supply Class (FSC) 6505.
- B.
Water pruification tablets.
- C.
Nutritional produicts.
- D.
Biological products.
Correct Answer
A. Only drugs in Federal Supply Class (FSC) 6505.Explanation
The Department of Defense/Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Shelf-Life Extension Program (SLEP) is only applicable to drugs in Federal Supply Class (FSC) 6505. This means that water purification tablets, nutritional products, and biological products are not eligible for the program.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is an option for re-labeling items extended under the Shelf-Life Extension Program (SLEP)?
- A.
Re-label all items within 30 ays of receipt of the Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)-procured commercially printed labels.
- B.
Defer re-labeling the materiel if it is not maintained under centralized control in medical logistics.
- C.
Re-label all items withing 60 days of receipt of the AFMSA-procured commercially printed labels.
- D.
Defer re-labeling the materiel if it is needed for imminent deploument or contingency.
Correct Answer
A. Re-label all items within 30 ays of receipt of the Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA)-procured commercially printed labels.Explanation
The correct answer is to re-label all items within 30 days of receipt of the AFMSA-procured commercially printed labels. This option suggests that all items should be re-labeled within a specific time frame after receiving the commercially printed labels from AFMSA. This ensures that the items are properly labeled and ready for use.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What return status code does the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system initially assign to all war reserve material (WRM) items processed for commercial return?
- A.
P- Disposition Pending.
- B.
R- Ready for Pick-up.
- C.
X- Check Pending.
- D.
Y- Credit Pending.
Correct Answer
B. R- Ready for Pick-up.Explanation
The Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system initially assigns the return status code "R- Ready for Pick-up" to all war reserve material (WRM) items processed for commercial return.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who do you contact to take appropriate actions to load funds against a project/expense center when processing a war reserve materiel (WRM) issue and funds are not available?
- A.
Air Force Medical Support Agency (AFMSA).
- B.
Resource management officer (RMO).
- C.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- D.
Supply custodian.
Correct Answer
D. Supply custodian.Explanation
When processing a war reserve materiel (WRM) issue and funds are not available, the appropriate person to contact to take appropriate actions to load funds against a project/expense center is the supply custodian. The supply custodian is responsible for managing and maintaining the inventory of supplies and materials, including ensuring that funds are available for procurement. They would have the necessary knowledge and authority to address the issue and allocate funds for the project/expense center.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What existing condition will preclude you from initiating an inventory for an assemblage?
- A.
The assemblage was inventoried within the last 12 months.
- B.
The "Date of last inventory" field for the assemblage is blank.
- C.
There are already multiple assemblage inventories in progress.
- D.
An assemblage component has a source of supply (SOS) type code of "UNK" loaded in the project.
Correct Answer
D. An assemblage component has a source of supply (SOS) type code of "UNK" loaded in the project.Explanation
If an assemblage component has a source of supply (SOS) type code of "UNK" loaded in the project, it will preclude you from initiating an inventory for the assemblage. This means that there is an unknown or unspecified source of supply for that component, which could affect the accuracy and completeness of the inventory. Therefore, it is necessary to address and resolve this issue before initiating the inventory for the assemblage.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What criteria must be met before you can process an assemblage outshipment (loss) transfer?
- A.
Funds for transfer are associated with the assemblage/
- B.
Commingled quantities exist in the assemblage.
- C.
Commingled codes have been removed.
- D.
The assemblage is in inventory status.
Correct Answer
C. Commingled codes have been removed.Explanation
Before processing an assemblage outshipment (loss) transfer, the criteria that must be met include the removal of commingled codes. This means that any codes indicating the mixing of different quantities or types of items in the assemblage must be taken out. This ensures that the transfer is accurate and only includes the intended quantities or types of items. The other criteria mentioned, such as associated funds, existing commingled quantities, and inventory status, are not directly related to the specific requirement of removing commingled codes.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A customer-owned assemblage is an assemblage that
- A.
Was purchased with the customer's operations and maintenance (O&M) funds.
- B.
Is limited to allowance standard (AS) assemblages.
- C.
Cannot have items coded for deferred procurement.
- D.
Cannot have prime/sub relationships.
Correct Answer
A. Was purchased with the customer's operations and maintenance (O&M) funds.Explanation
This answer is correct because it accurately describes a customer-owned assemblage. A customer-owned assemblage is one that was purchased using the customer's own funds for operations and maintenance. This means that the customer is responsible for the upkeep and maintenance of the assemblage. The other options provided are incorrect because they do not accurately describe a customer-owned assemblage.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What Assemblage Manangement (AM) reoprt identifies the number and type of assemblages owned by all organizations?
- A.
Assemblages Managed.
- B.
Assemblages Status Report.
- C.
Assemblages Status Rollup.
- D.
Assemblages Status Summary.
Correct Answer
A. Assemblages Managed.Explanation
The correct answer is "Assemblages Managed." This report identifies the number and type of assemblages owned by all organizations. It provides a comprehensive overview of the assemblages under management, allowing organizations to track and analyze their assets effectively. The other options, such as "Assemblages Status Report," "Assemblages Status Rollup," and "Assemblages Status Summary," do not specifically mention the management aspect and may not provide the same level of detail as the "Assemblages Managed" report.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What term defines the process of obtaining products, services, applications or forces, and equipment or materiel from Air Force organizations that are not forward deployed?
- A.
Lead unit.
- B.
Reachback.
- C.
Air Expenditionary Wings (AEW).
- D.
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).
Correct Answer
B. Reachback.Explanation
Reachback is the term that defines the process of obtaining products, services, applications or forces, and equipment or materiel from Air Force organizations that are not forward deployed. It refers to the ability to access resources and support from locations that are not in the immediate operational area. This allows for efficient and effective coordination and utilization of resources, even when they are not physically present in the same location as the operation.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What term defines the concept of how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips, and sustains itself to meet the national security challenges of the 21st century?
- A.
Total Force.
- B.
Lead Mobility Wings.
- C.
Air Expeditionary Wings (AEW).
- D.
Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).
Correct Answer
D. Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).Explanation
The term that defines the concept of how the Air Force organizes, trains, equips, and sustains itself to meet the national security challenges of the 21st century is Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF).Rate this question:
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- 11.
What is the purpose of cold-chain management?
- A.
Minimize risk by measuring and understanding thermal exposure in the uncontrolled segments of the distribution system.
- B.
Use validated shipping containers to keep products chilled at proper temperature and prevent freezing.
- C.
Inclusion of temperature-monitoring devices.
- D.
Rapid movement of products.
Correct Answer
A. Minimize risk by measuring and understanding thermal exposure in the uncontrolled segments of the distribution system.Explanation
The purpose of cold-chain management is to minimize risk by measuring and understanding thermal exposure in the uncontrolled segments of the distribution system. This involves ensuring that products are kept at the proper temperature and preventing freezing by using validated shipping containers. Additionally, temperature-monitoring devices are included to monitor and maintain the required temperature throughout the distribution process. Rapid movement of products may be important for efficiency, but it is not specifically mentioned as the purpose of cold-chain management in this context.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Blood services in a theater of operations containing actual combat operations consist of a combination of operational capabilities with importance on
- A.
Limited potency periods.
- B.
Inventory management constraints.
- C.
Planning for blood and other tranfusion products.
- D.
Collection and processing bood in the theatr of operations.
Correct Answer
D. Collection and processing bood in the theatr of operations.Explanation
In a theater of operations containing actual combat operations, blood services need to focus on collecting and processing blood. This is important because in a combat situation, there is a high likelihood of injuries and casualties that require blood transfusions. Therefore, having the capability to collect and process blood in the theater of operations ensures that there is an adequate supply of blood available for transfusions when needed. This operational capability is crucial for saving lives and providing necessary medical support in the midst of combat.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is the primary objective of the Air Force Theater Medical Information Program (TMIP) infrasturcture?
- A.
Automate medical information functional processes.
- B.
Imbed TMIP within equipment assemblages.
- C.
Integrate software systems.
- D.
Command and control.
Correct Answer
A. Automate medical information functional processes.Explanation
The primary objective of the Air Force Theater Medical Information Program (TMIP) infrastructure is to automate medical information functional processes. This means that the TMIP infrastructure is designed to streamline and computerize various medical processes, such as record-keeping, data analysis, and information management. By automating these processes, the Air Force can improve efficiency, accuracy, and accessibility of medical information, ultimately enhancing the overall medical support provided to personnel in theater.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The principle means of informing holders of classified information about the specific protection requirements for the information is the type of
- A.
Markings used.
- B.
Access control used.
- C.
Storage containers used.
- D.
Information system media used.
Correct Answer
A. Markings used.Explanation
The principle means of informing holders of classified information about the specific protection requirements for the information is through markings used. Markings provide clear indications and instructions regarding the level of classification, handling procedures, and dissemination limitations associated with the information. They serve as a visual reminder to individuals about the sensitivity and security measures required when accessing, storing, or transmitting classified information. Access control, storage containers, and information system media may also play a role in safeguarding classified information, but they are not the primary means of informing holders about the specific protection requirements.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 24, 2009Quiz Created by
Pathomphone
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