Can You Pass This Toughest Microbiology Test? Quiz

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  • 1/50 Questions

    The process of stimulating an immune response is called:

    • Atrophy
    • Immunogenicity
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About This Quiz

The study of microbiology has helped to find the cure on many diseases that affect living things and therefore helping in coming up with a cure or preventive measures. How well informed are you when it comes to microbiology? Take up the quiz below and see if you indeed do have what it takes to pass the toughest microbiology test. All the best!

Can You Pass This Toughest Microbiology Test? Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A microorganism that is normally not pathogenic but can cause diseases if tissue injury occurs or if body defenses are compromised is called a __________ pathogen.

    • Primary

    • Opportunistic

    Correct Answer
    A. Opportunistic
    Explanation
    An opportunistic pathogen refers to a microorganism that is typically harmless but can cause diseases under specific circumstances. These circumstances include tissue injury or a weakened immune system. In such situations, the opportunistic pathogen takes advantage of the compromised defenses of the body to cause infection or disease.

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  • 3. 

    Infections which come on rapidly, with severe but short lived effects, are _____ infections.

    • Acute

    • Chronic

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute
    Explanation
    Acute infections are characterized by a sudden onset and severe symptoms that may last for a short period of time. These infections typically develop rapidly and can cause intense illness or discomfort. In contrast, chronic infections are long-lasting and can persist for months or even years. Therefore, the correct answer is acute.

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  • 4. 

    Substances produced by bacteria that destroy red blood cells are:

    • Kinases

    • Siderophores

    • Hemolysins

    • Defensins

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemolysins
    Explanation
    Hemolysins are substances produced by bacteria that destroy red blood cells. They have the ability to cause the rupture or lysis of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin. This destruction of red blood cells can be harmful to the host organism and is often associated with certain bacterial infections. Hemolysins play a role in the pathogenicity of bacteria by aiding in the spread of infection and evasion of the host immune system.

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  • 5. 

    The enzyme _______ found in mucous and tears of the body destroys certain bacteria.

    • Interferon

    • Lysozyme

    • Antibody

    • Thymosin

    Correct Answer
    A. Lysozyme
    Explanation
    Lysozyme is an enzyme found in mucous and tears of the body that destroys certain bacteria. It works by breaking down the cell walls of bacteria, leading to their destruction. This enzyme is an important component of the body's innate immune system, providing a defense mechanism against bacterial infections.

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  • 6. 

    The development of ______ to antibiotics by bacteria is associated with the R plasmid.

    • Sensitivity

    • Resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Resistance
    Explanation
    The development of resistance to antibiotics by bacteria is associated with the R plasmid. This means that bacteria can acquire genetic material from the R plasmid, which allows them to become resistant to antibiotics. This resistance can occur through various mechanisms, such as the production of enzymes that inactivate antibiotics or the alteration of antibiotic targets. Therefore, the correct answer is resistance.

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  • 7. 

    The term _____ refers to a microorganism's potential to cause disease or infection.

    • Immunity

    • Antigenicity

    • Pathogenicity

    • Virulence

    Correct Answer
    A. Pathogenicity
    Explanation
    Pathogenicity refers to a microorganism's potential to cause disease or infection. It is a measure of how capable a microorganism is in causing harm to a host. This term encompasses the ability of the microorganism to invade the host, replicate within the host, and cause damage to the host's tissues. Pathogenicity can vary among different microorganisms, with some being highly pathogenic and others being less so.

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  • 8. 

    The lowest concentration of an antibiotic that prevents the growth of a microorganism is:

    • Chemotherapeutic index

    • Minimal inhibitory concentration

    • Phenol coefficient

    • Biology assay unit

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimal inhibitory concentration
    Explanation
    The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) refers to the lowest concentration of an antibiotic that is required to prevent the growth of a microorganism. This concentration is determined through laboratory testing and is an important measure of the effectiveness of an antibiotic against a specific microorganism. The MIC is used to guide the appropriate dosage of antibiotics for treating infections and to determine the susceptibility of microorganisms to different antibiotics.

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  • 9. 

    The number of chemotherapeutic agents available to treat viral infections are considerably ______ than those available for treating bacterial disease.

    • More numerous

    • Less numerous

    Correct Answer
    A. Less numerous
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "less numerous" because the statement is comparing the number of chemotherapeutic agents available for treating viral infections with those available for treating bacterial diseases. The word "less" indicates a smaller quantity or number, implying that there are fewer chemotherapeutic agents available for viral infections compared to bacterial diseases.

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  • 10. 

    Infectious diseases acquired as a result of a hospital stay are called _______ infections.

    • Epidemic

    • Zoonotic

    • Sporadic

    • Nosocomial

    Correct Answer
    A. Nosocomial
    Explanation
    Nosocomial infections are acquired as a result of a hospital stay. This term is used to describe infections that are contracted within a healthcare facility, such as hospitals or clinics. These infections are often caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi and can occur due to various factors including invasive procedures, weakened immune systems, and inadequate infection control measures. Nosocomial infections are a significant concern in healthcare settings as they can lead to increased morbidity, mortality, and healthcare costs.

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  • 11. 

    In a healthy individual, microorganisms are found in the _______ respiratory tract.

    • Upper

    • Lower

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper
    Explanation
    In a healthy individual, microorganisms are found in the upper respiratory tract. The upper respiratory tract includes the nose, nasal cavity, sinuses, and throat. These areas are exposed to the external environment and are therefore more likely to harbor microorganisms. The lower respiratory tract, which includes the trachea, bronchi, and lungs, is generally considered to be sterile in healthy individuals.

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  • 12. 

    The antibiotic usually used to treat infections caused by gram positive cocci is:

    • Penicillin

    • Chloroquine

    • Ketoconazole

    • Amantadine

    Correct Answer
    A. Penicillin
    Explanation
    Penicillin is the correct answer because it is a widely used antibiotic that is effective against gram positive cocci bacteria. Gram positive cocci bacteria include species such as Staphylococcus and Streptococcus, which can cause various infections in humans. Penicillin works by interfering with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, leading to the destruction of the bacteria. It is considered one of the first-line treatments for gram positive cocci infections due to its effectiveness and relatively low toxicity. Chloroquine is primarily used to treat malaria, ketoconazole is an antifungal medication, and amantadine is used to treat viral infections such as influenza.

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  • 13. 

    The agar diffusion test used for antibiotic sensitivity testing is a ______ assay.

    • In vivo

    • In vitro

    Correct Answer
    A. In vitro
    Explanation
    The agar diffusion test is a laboratory technique used to determine the sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics. It involves placing antibiotic discs on an agar plate that has been inoculated with the bacteria. If the bacteria are sensitive to the antibiotic, a clear zone of inhibition will form around the disc. Since this test is performed in a controlled laboratory setting outside of a living organism, it is considered an in vitro assay.

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  • 14. 

    An elevation in body temperature can be the result of _____ by certain gram negative bacteria.

    • Exotoxins

    • Endotoxins

    Correct Answer
    A. Endotoxins
    Explanation
    Gram-negative bacteria are known to release endotoxins, which are toxins found in the outer membrane of the bacterial cell wall. These endotoxins can cause various effects in the body, including an elevation in body temperature. This is because endotoxins can stimulate the release of inflammatory mediators, such as cytokines, which can lead to fever. Exotoxins, on the other hand, are toxins that are released by both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria, but they do not directly cause an elevation in body temperature. Therefore, the correct answer is endotoxins.

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  • 15. 

    Microbes which contribute to the host by providing nutrition and protection against infection are known as ______ flora.

    • Infective

    • Transient

    • Normal

    • Opportunistic

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal
    Explanation
    Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally reside in or on the human body without causing harm. These microbes play a beneficial role by providing essential nutrients, aiding in digestion, and protecting against harmful pathogens. They help maintain a healthy balance in the body and contribute to overall well-being.

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  • 16. 

    The immunization of an individual with an antigen that causes the body to produce antibodies is ____________.

    • Passive

    • Active

    Correct Answer
    A. Active
    Explanation
    The immunization of an individual with an antigen that causes the body to produce antibodies is referred to as active immunization. This process involves introducing a weakened or inactive form of the antigen into the body, stimulating the immune system to produce specific antibodies against it. This type of immunization provides long-term protection, as the immune system "learns" to recognize and respond to the antigen if encountered again in the future.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following blood types lacks antigens?

    • A

    • B

    • O

    • A/B

    Correct Answer
    A. O
    Explanation
    Blood type O lacks antigens on the surface of red blood cells. This means that individuals with blood type O can donate blood to anyone, regardless of their blood type, making it known as the universal donor. However, they can only receive blood from other individuals with blood type O.

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  • 18. 

    An inanimate object that harbors and transmits pathogens is a _________.

    • In-law

    • Demon

    • Fomite

    • Arthropod

    Correct Answer
    A. Fomite
    Explanation
    A fomite is an inanimate object that can harbor and transmit pathogens. This includes objects like doorknobs, cell phones, or clothing, which can become contaminated with harmful microorganisms and then spread them to other individuals. Fomites play a significant role in the transmission of infectious diseases, especially in crowded or shared spaces. They highlight the importance of proper hygiene practices and regular cleaning to prevent the spread of pathogens.

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  • 19. 

    The binding of an antibody to an antigen takes place on the _____ region of the molecule.

    • Constant

    • Variable

    Correct Answer
    A. Variable
    Explanation
    When an antibody binds to an antigen, this interaction occurs on the variable region of the antibody molecule. The variable region is the part of the antibody that is responsible for recognizing and binding to specific antigens. It contains specific amino acid sequences that form the antigen-binding site, allowing the antibody to bind to its target with high specificity. In contrast, the constant region of the antibody is responsible for other functions such as activating immune responses or determining the class of the antibody.

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  • 20. 

    The presence of microorganisms in the blood stream that cause infections is called:

    • Septicemia

    • Pyemia

    • Toxemia

    • Viremia

    Correct Answer
    A. Septicemia
    Explanation
    Septicemia refers to the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream that cause infections. This condition occurs when bacteria or other pathogens enter the bloodstream and spread throughout the body, leading to a systemic infection. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, chills, rapid breathing, and low blood pressure. Prompt medical intervention is necessary to treat septicemia, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated. Pyemia, toxemia, and viremia are not specifically related to the presence of microorganisms in the bloodstream causing infections.

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  • 21. 

    The accelerated and more intense response of antibodies to an antigen is due to the:

    • Primary response

    • Secondary response

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary response
    Explanation
    The accelerated and more intense response of antibodies to an antigen is due to the secondary response. During the primary response, the immune system is exposed to an antigen for the first time, leading to the production of specific antibodies. However, during the secondary response, if the same antigen is encountered again, memory B cells are activated, resulting in a faster and stronger immune response. This is because memory B cells have already been sensitized to the antigen and can quickly produce a larger quantity of specific antibodies.

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  • 22. 

    Cockroaches transmit infectious agents as _______ vectors.

    • Biological

    • Mechanical

    Correct Answer
    A. Mechanical
    Explanation
    Cockroaches transmit infectious agents as mechanical vectors. This means that they do not play a direct role in the life cycle of the infectious agent, but rather carry it on their bodies or in their digestive system. They can contaminate food and surfaces by transferring the infectious agents through their physical contact. Unlike biological vectors, which are involved in the replication or development of the infectious agent, cockroaches simply serve as passive carriers.

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  • 23. 

    All of the following are components of non-specific defenses except:

    • Intact skin

    • Mucous membrane

    • Digestive juices

    • Antibody production

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibody production
    Explanation
    Non-specific defenses refer to the body's general immune responses that are not specific to a particular pathogen. Intact skin acts as a physical barrier preventing entry of pathogens, mucous membranes trap and expel pathogens, and digestive juices in the stomach can kill certain pathogens. Antibody production, on the other hand, is a specific defense mechanism involving the production of antibodies by the immune system in response to a particular pathogen. Therefore, antibody production is not considered a component of non-specific defenses.

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  • 24. 

    The lymphoid cells responsible for cellular immunity are:

    • Macrophages

    • B cells

    • T cells

    • Microphages

    Correct Answer
    A. T cells
    Explanation
    T cells are lymphoid cells that are responsible for cellular immunity. They play a crucial role in recognizing and destroying infected cells, as well as coordinating the immune response. T cells are able to recognize specific antigens presented by infected cells or antigen-presenting cells, which triggers their activation and subsequent immune response. This cellular immunity is important for defending against intracellular pathogens, such as viruses, and for the elimination of cancerous cells. Therefore, T cells are the correct answer for the lymphoid cells responsible for cellular immunity.

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  • 25. 

    The correct sequence for inflammation is:

    • Warmth --> redness --> swelling --> loss of function --> pain

    • Swelling --> redness --> warmth --> pain --> loss of function

    • Redness --> warmth --> swelling --> pain --> loss of function

    • Loss of function --> warmth --> pain --> swelling

    Correct Answer
    A. Redness --> warmth --> swelling --> pain --> loss of function
    Explanation
    The correct sequence for inflammation is redness, warmth, swelling, pain, and loss of function. This sequence is commonly observed in inflammatory reactions. Redness occurs due to increased blood flow to the affected area, which leads to warmth. Swelling is caused by the accumulation of fluid and immune cells in the tissue. Pain is a result of the release of inflammatory mediators and stimulation of nerve endings. Finally, loss of function may occur as a protective mechanism to prevent further damage to the affected area.

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  • 26. 

    The cell which gives rise to macrophages is the __________.

    • Neutrophil

    • Monocyte

    • Basophil

    • Lymphocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Monocyte
    Explanation
    A monocyte is a type of white blood cell that is produced in the bone marrow and gives rise to macrophages. Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in engulfing and destroying pathogens, dead cells, and other debris in the body. Monocytes circulate in the bloodstream and can migrate to tissues where they differentiate into macrophages. Therefore, the correct answer is monocyte.

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  • 27. 

    The first class of antibody produced in response to an antigen is the ________.

    • IgG

    • IgM

    • IgA

    • IgE

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    IgM is the first class of antibody produced in response to an antigen. It is the largest antibody and is primarily found in the bloodstream. IgM is produced by B cells and is responsible for the early stages of the immune response. It helps to neutralize pathogens and activate other components of the immune system. IgM antibodies are also involved in the agglutination (clumping) of antigens, making it easier for other immune cells to recognize and eliminate them.

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  • 28. 

    Under normal, healthy conditions microbes are _____ in fluids within organs and tissues.

    • Present

    • Absent

    Correct Answer
    A. Absent
    Explanation
    Under normal, healthy conditions, microbes are typically absent in fluids within organs and tissues. This is because the body's immune system works to prevent the entry and growth of harmful microorganisms in these areas. The presence of microbes in these fluids can indicate an infection or disease, which is not considered normal or healthy.

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  • 29. 

    Immunoglobin A (IgA) antibodies:

    • Provide protection on mucosal surfaces

    • Enhance phagocytosis and neutralize toxins

    • Agglutinate and lyse microbes

    • Cause allergies

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide protection on mucosal surfaces
    Explanation
    IgA antibodies provide protection on mucosal surfaces. Mucosal surfaces, such as those in the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts, are the primary entry points for many pathogens. IgA antibodies are found in high concentrations in these areas and play a crucial role in preventing the attachment and invasion of pathogens. They can neutralize toxins, enhance phagocytosis, and prevent the colonization of microbes on mucosal surfaces, thus providing a first line of defense against infections.

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  • 30. 

    The body's ability to resist infections by viruses is due to the secretion of ____ by many different cells.

    • Interleukin I

    • Macrophage activation factor

    • Blastogenic factor

    • Interferon

    Correct Answer
    A. Interferon
    Explanation
    Interferon is a protein that is secreted by various cells in the body and plays a crucial role in the body's defense against viral infections. It is a part of the immune response and helps to inhibit the replication of viruses, thus preventing their spread. Interferon also stimulates the immune system to enhance its ability to fight off infections. Therefore, the secretion of interferon by different cells in the body is responsible for the body's ability to resist infections caused by viruses.

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  • 31. 

    All of the following enzymes contribute to the penetration and spread of microorganisms except:

    • Hyaluronidase

    • Mucinase

    • Coagulase

    • Lysosome

    Correct Answer
    A. Lysosome
    Explanation
    Lysosome is not an enzyme that contributes to the penetration and spread of microorganisms. Lysosomes are organelles found in cells that contain enzymes responsible for breaking down waste materials and foreign substances. They play a role in the immune response by engulfing and digesting invading microorganisms, rather than aiding in their penetration or spread. In contrast, hyaluronidase, mucinase, and coagulase are enzymes produced by microorganisms that help them penetrate and spread in host tissues.

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  • 32. 

    The greatest concentration of antibodies found in serum is:

    • IgG

    • IgM

    • IgE

    • IgA

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    IgG is the correct answer because it is the most abundant antibody found in the bloodstream and is responsible for providing long-term immunity against pathogens. It can cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to the fetus, and plays a crucial role in fighting bacterial and viral infections. IgM is the first antibody produced during an immune response, IgE is associated with allergic reactions, and IgA is found in mucosal areas of the body. However, none of these antibodies have the same concentration in serum as IgG.

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  • 33. 

    Antigens that stimulate the immune response are usually _________ molecules.

    • Large

    • Small

    Correct Answer
    A. Large
    Explanation
    Antigens that stimulate the immune response are usually large molecules. This is because larger molecules have more complex structures and are more likely to be recognized by the immune system as foreign. The immune system is designed to detect and respond to potential threats, and larger molecules provide more surface area for the immune system to interact with. Additionally, large molecules are often more likely to contain multiple epitopes, which are specific regions that can trigger an immune response. Therefore, large antigens are more effective at stimulating the immune response compared to smaller molecules.

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  • 34. 

    The chemical agent that inhibits DNA gyrase is:

    • Erythromycin

    • Quinolone

    • Penicillin

    • Chloramphenicol

    Correct Answer
    A. Quinolone
    Explanation
    Quinolone is the correct answer because it is a class of antibiotics that specifically target and inhibit DNA gyrase, which is an enzyme involved in the replication and repair of DNA. By inhibiting DNA gyrase, quinolones prevent the proper functioning of bacterial DNA, leading to the inhibition of bacterial growth and the eventual death of the bacteria. Erythromycin, penicillin, and chloramphenicol are antibiotics that work through different mechanisms and do not directly target DNA gyrase.

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  • 35. 

    The extracellular enzyme _____ produced by certain bacteria is toxic to white blood cells.

    • Hemolysin

    • Collagenase

    • Lecithinase

    • Leucocidin

    Correct Answer
    A. Leucocidin
    Explanation
    Leucocidin is an extracellular enzyme produced by certain bacteria that is toxic to white blood cells. It is capable of destroying white blood cells, which are an essential part of the body's immune system. This enzyme helps the bacteria evade the immune response and establish an infection.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following granulocytes is involved in inflammation?

    • Monocytes

    • Eosinophils

    • Neutrophils

    • Basophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Neutrophils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are involved in inflammation. When there is an infection or injury, neutrophils are the first immune cells to arrive at the site of inflammation. They release chemicals that attract other immune cells to the area and help to destroy pathogens. Neutrophils also release enzymes that break down damaged tissue and help to remove debris from the site of inflammation. Overall, neutrophils play a crucial role in the inflammatory response by initiating the immune defense and promoting tissue repair.

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  • 37. 

    The formation of toxoids is a property of:

    • Endotoxins

    • Exotoxins

    • Lymphokines

    • Interleukins

    Correct Answer
    A. Exotoxins
    Explanation
    Exotoxins are secreted by certain bacteria and have the ability to cause damage to host cells. One of the properties of exotoxins is the ability to be converted into toxoids. Toxoids are inactivated or attenuated forms of exotoxins that can still stimulate the production of antibodies, but do not cause disease. This property is important in the development of vaccines, as toxoids can be used to elicit an immune response without the risk of causing illness. Therefore, the formation of toxoids is a specific property of exotoxins.

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  • 38. 

    All of the following are bacterial structures which enable them to attach to the surface of a host except:

    • Capsules

    • Fimbriae

    • Spikes

    • Inclusions

    Correct Answer
    A. Inclusions
    Explanation
    Bacterial inclusions are not structures that enable bacteria to attach to the surface of a host. Inclusions are actually storage compartments within bacterial cells where they store various substances such as nutrients, waste products, or energy reserves. They are not involved in the attachment or adhesion to host surfaces. On the other hand, capsules, fimbriae, and spikes are all bacterial structures that can help bacteria adhere to surfaces. Capsules are outer layers of polysaccharides that provide protection and aid in attachment. Fimbriae are short, hair-like structures that help bacteria stick to surfaces. Spikes are specialized appendages that can aid in attachment or transfer genetic material.

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  • 39. 

    You visit your friend who is recuperating from the flu.  Three days later you come down with the flu.  Your friend is a ________ carrier.

    • Incubatory

    • Demon

    • Convalescent

    • Arthropod

    Correct Answer
    A. Convalescent
    Explanation
    The term "convalescent" refers to someone who is recovering from an illness or injury. In this scenario, your friend has already had the flu and is in the process of recuperating. Three days later, you come down with the flu, suggesting that your friend may have been a carrier of the virus during your visit. Therefore, the correct answer is "convalescent."

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  • 40. 

    The antibiotic used to treat infections caused by Mycoplasmas, Spirochetes and Chalamydias is:

    • Penicillin

    • Bacitracin

    • Tetracycline

    • Cefoperazone

    Correct Answer
    A. Tetracycline
    Explanation
    Tetracycline is the correct answer because it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is effective against a variety of bacteria, including Mycoplasmas, Spirochetes, and Chlamydias. These bacteria are known to cause various infections, and tetracycline is commonly used to treat them. Penicillin is not effective against these types of bacteria, while bacitracin and cefoperazone have more limited spectrums of activity and may not be as effective in treating infections caused by Mycoplasmas, Spirochetes, and Chlamydias.

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  • 41. 

    Drugs that inhibit the synthesis of folic acid molecules are characteristic of ______ chemotherapeutic agents.

    • Cyclic decapeptides

    • Beta-lactams

    • Macrolides

    • Sulfonamides

    Correct Answer
    A. Sulfonamides
    Explanation
    Sulfonamides are a class of chemotherapeutic agents that inhibit the synthesis of folic acid molecules. Folic acid is essential for the synthesis of DNA and RNA, and by inhibiting its synthesis, sulfonamides can effectively inhibit the growth and replication of bacteria. This makes sulfonamides useful in the treatment of bacterial infections. Cyclic decapeptides, beta-lactams, and macrolides are not specifically known for inhibiting folic acid synthesis, so they are not characteristic of this type of chemotherapeutic agent.

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  • 42. 

    _________ are produced by cytotoxic T cells.

    • Perforins

    • Fever

    • Inflammation

    • Complement

    Correct Answer
    A. Perforins
    Explanation
    Perforins are proteins that are produced by cytotoxic T cells. These proteins play a crucial role in the immune response by forming pores in the cell membrane of target cells, leading to their destruction. Perforins allow cytotoxic T cells to directly kill infected or abnormal cells, such as cancer cells, by inducing cell death. Therefore, perforins are an important weapon in the immune system's arsenal against pathogens and abnormal cells.

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  • 43. 

    The production of circulating antibodies to protect the body is called:

    • Phagocytosis

    • Cellular (T cell) immunity

    • Humoral (B cell) immunity

    • Natural immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Humoral (B cell) immunity
    Explanation
    Humoral (B cell) immunity refers to the production of circulating antibodies in the body. Antibodies are proteins produced by B cells in response to the presence of antigens (foreign substances) in the body. These antibodies help to neutralize or eliminate the antigens, providing protection against infections and diseases. This type of immune response is called humoral immunity because it involves the body's humors or fluids, such as blood and lymph, which carry the antibodies to different parts of the body to fight off infections.

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  • 44. 

    Acyclovir can be used to treat ______ infections.

    • Bacterial

    • Fungal

    • Protozoan

    • Viral

    Correct Answer
    A. Viral
    Explanation
    Acyclovir is an antiviral medication commonly used to treat viral infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the virus, specifically herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Acyclovir is not effective against bacterial, fungal, or protozoan infections, as it specifically targets viral replication mechanisms. Therefore, the correct answer is viral.

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  • 45. 

    All of the following antibiotics are produced by Streptomyces sps except?

    • Ketoconazole

    • Chloramphenicol

    • Erythromycin

    • Tetracycline

    Correct Answer
    A. Ketoconazole
    Explanation
    Ketoconazole is not produced by Streptomyces sps. Streptomyces sps are known for their ability to produce a wide range of antibiotics, including chloramphenicol, erythromycin, and tetracycline. However, ketoconazole is not one of the antibiotics produced by this group of bacteria.

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  • 46. 

    Substances that increase the susceptibility of microbes to destruction by phagocytes are:

    • Complement

    • Antigens

    • Albumins

    • Toxins

    Correct Answer
    A. Complement
    Explanation
    Complement is a group of proteins that play a crucial role in the immune system. They enhance the ability of phagocytes, such as neutrophils and macrophages, to destroy microbes. Complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of microbes, marking them for phagocytosis. They can also enhance the opsonization process, where antibodies bind to the microbes and facilitate their recognition and ingestion by phagocytes. Therefore, complement increases the susceptibility of microbes to destruction by phagocytes, making it the correct answer.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following antibiotics is active against fungi?

    • Tetracycline

    • Chloramphenicol

    • Kanamycin

    • Amphotericin B

    Correct Answer
    A. Amphotericin B
    Explanation
    Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used to treat various fungal infections. It works by binding to the cell membrane of the fungi, causing leakage of cellular contents and ultimately leading to the death of the fungus. Tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and kanamycin are antibiotics that are primarily effective against bacteria, not fungi. Therefore, amphotericin B is the only antibiotic in the given options that is active against fungi.

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  • 48. 

    The enzyme produced by certain pathogenic staphylococci that disolves fibrin blood clots and helps invade tissues is:

    • Coagulese

    • Streptokinase

    • Staphylokinase

    • Peptokinase

    Correct Answer
    A. Staphylokinase
    Explanation
    Staphylokinase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme produced by certain pathogenic staphylococci that is responsible for dissolving fibrin blood clots and aiding in the invasion of tissues. This enzyme enables the bacteria to spread and cause further damage by breaking down the fibrin meshwork that forms during clotting. Streptokinase is also an enzyme that dissolves blood clots, but it is produced by streptococci, not staphylococci. Coagulase and peptokinase are not enzymes involved in clot dissolution.

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  • 49. 

    The synthetic agent most commonly used for prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis is:

    • Penicillin

    • Rifampin

    • Isoniazid

    • Cephalosporin

    Correct Answer
    A. Isoniazid
    Explanation
    Isoniazid is the correct answer because it is the synthetic agent most commonly used for both prophylaxis and treatment of tuberculosis. Penicillin is not effective against tuberculosis, rifampin is used more for treatment rather than prophylaxis, and cephalosporin is not commonly used for tuberculosis.

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  • May 11, 2010
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