1.
What causes toxic shock syndrome?
Correct Answer
E. A and C
Explanation
Toxic shock syndrome is caused by the bacteria Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus) and the production of the toxin tsst-1. S. aureus is a common bacteria found on the skin and in the nose, but in some cases, it can enter the bloodstream and release toxins that cause toxic shock syndrome. The tsst-1 toxin specifically plays a role in triggering the immune response that leads to the symptoms of toxic shock syndrome. Therefore, both S. aureus and tsst-1 toxin (option A and C) are responsible for causing toxic shock syndrome.
2.
Which of the is an exfoliative toxin?
Correct Answer
B. SSS-T
Explanation
SSS-T is an exfoliative toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus. It causes a condition known as staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS), which is characterized by widespread peeling of the skin. This toxin specifically targets desmoglein 1, a protein that helps to hold skin cells together. When SSS-T binds to desmoglein 1, it causes the skin cells to separate, resulting in the characteristic skin peeling seen in SSSS. Therefore, SSS-T is the correct answer as it is the exfoliative toxin produced by S. aureus.
3.
Which of the following is penicillin resistant?
Correct Answer
C. S. aureus
Explanation
S. aureus is the correct answer because it is known to be resistant to penicillin. Penicillin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial infections, but over time, some bacteria have developed resistance to its effects. S. aureus is one such bacterium that has developed resistance to penicillin, making it difficult to treat infections caused by this organism with penicillin alone.
4.
A postivie coagulase test indicates the presences of what?
Correct Answer
D. StapHylococcus
Explanation
A positive coagulase test indicates the presence of Staphylococcus. Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus bacteria that causes the clotting of plasma. This test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus, which is coagulase-positive, from other species of Staphylococcus that are coagulase-negative. Therefore, a positive coagulase test is a specific indicator of the presence of Staphylococcus bacteria.
5.
Optochin tests are used to identify strains of what?
Correct Answer
C. Streptococcus
Explanation
Optochin tests are used to identify strains of Streptococcus. This test helps to differentiate between different species of Streptococcus bacteria, specifically Streptococcus pneumoniae. The test involves applying an optochin disc to a culture of bacteria and observing the zone of inhibition. If the bacteria are susceptible to optochin, a clear zone will form around the disc, indicating the presence of Streptococcus pneumoniae. This test is important in clinical settings to identify the causative agent of infections and guide appropriate treatment.
6.
What has the symptom of strawberry tongue?
Correct Answer
C. Scarlet fever
Explanation
Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection that primarily affects children and causes a distinctive rash and a red, swollen tongue, often referred to as "strawberry tongue." This symptom is a characteristic feature of scarlet fever, distinguishing it from other conditions listed. Postpartum fever refers to an elevated body temperature after childbirth, rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease affecting the heart and joints, streptococcal toxic syndrome is a severe infection caused by certain strains of streptococcus bacteria, and necrotizing fasciitis is a rare but serious bacterial infection that destroys skin and underlying tissues.
7.
What is an infection caused by a deadly strain of group a Streptococcus that attacks the deep layers of tissues?
Correct Answer
E. Necrotizing fasciitis
Explanation
Necrotizing fasciitis is an infection caused by a deadly strain of group A Streptococcus that attacks the deep layers of tissues. This condition is characterized by rapid destruction of skin, muscle, and underlying tissue, leading to tissue death. It is a severe and life-threatening infection that requires immediate medical attention and surgical intervention. Symptoms include severe pain, swelling, redness, and the presence of blisters or skin discoloration. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further tissue damage and potential complications.
8.
What is the most common type of anthrax?
Correct Answer
A. Cutaneous infection
Explanation
Cutaneous infection is the most common type of anthrax. This type of anthrax occurs when the bacteria enters the body through a cut or abrasion on the skin. It causes a localized infection and is typically less severe than other forms of anthrax. GI tract anthrax refers to the infection that occurs when anthrax spores are ingested, while inhalation anthrax occurs when spores are inhaled. The answer "none of the above" is incorrect because cutaneous infection is indeed the most common type of anthrax.
9.
What causes rice eating related food poisoning?
Correct Answer
D. B. cereus
Explanation
B. cereus is the correct answer because it is a bacterium that is commonly found in rice and can cause food poisoning when rice is improperly stored or cooked. B. cereus produces toxins that can survive cooking and cause illness when ingested. These toxins can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which are characteristic of rice eating related food poisoning. Therefore, B. cereus is the likely cause of this type of food poisoning.
10.
What is the exotoxin that causes certain nervous system irregularities by means of retrograde transmission through neurons to the brain?
Correct Answer
B. Tetanospasmin
Explanation
Tetanospasmin is the correct answer because it is an exotoxin produced by the bacteria Clostridium tetani. This toxin causes certain nervous system irregularities, specifically muscle stiffness and spasms, by retrograde transmission through neurons to the brain. It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, leading to the uncontrolled muscle contractions characteristic of tetanus.
11.
What bacteria has spores that can be airborne and find their into foods in cans or jars?
Correct Answer
B. Clostridium
Explanation
Clostridium is the correct answer because it is a type of bacteria that can produce spores that are capable of becoming airborne. These spores can then contaminate foods that are stored in cans or jars. Bacillus and Listeria are also types of bacteria that can produce spores, but they may not necessarily be airborne or contaminate canned or jarred foods. Micrococcus is not known to produce spores and is therefore not the correct answer.
12.
What causes clostridial myonecrosis that destroys muscular tissues?
Correct Answer
D. C. perfringens
Explanation
Clostridial myonecrosis, also known as gas gangrene, is caused by the bacterium Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium produces toxins that destroy muscular tissues by disrupting the blood supply and causing tissue death. It is commonly found in soil, dust, and the gastrointestinal tracts of animals and humans. Infection occurs when the bacteria enter deep tissue wounds or puncture wounds, where they multiply and release toxins. Prompt treatment with antibiotics and surgical debridement is necessary to prevent further tissue damage and potential complications.
13.
What type of organism that grows on and derives nourishment from dead or decaying organic matter?
Correct Answer
D. SapropHyte
Explanation
A saprophyte is an organism that grows on and derives nourishment from dead or decaying organic matter. It plays a crucial role in the decomposition process by breaking down organic material and recycling nutrients back into the ecosystem. Unlike facultative anaerobes, strict aerobes, and opportunistic pathogens, which have different modes of obtaining energy and nutrients, a saprophyte specifically thrives on dead or decaying organic matter. Therefore, the correct answer is saprophyte.
14.
Which of the following oxidizes carbohydrates to CO2 and water?
Correct Answer
A. M. luteus
Explanation
M. luteus is the correct answer because it is known to oxidize carbohydrates to CO2 and water. This bacterium has the ability to break down carbohydrates through the process of oxidation, resulting in the production of carbon dioxide and water as byproducts.
15.
Which of the following is an alpha-haemolytic bacteria?
Correct Answer
C. S. pneumoniae
Explanation
S. pneumoniae is an alpha-haemolytic bacteria because it produces a partial or incomplete lysis of red blood cells, resulting in a greenish discoloration around the colonies on a blood agar plate. The other options listed are not alpha-haemolytic bacteria. S. aureus and S. pyogenes are beta-haemolytic bacteria, which cause complete lysis of red blood cells. S. dysenteriae is a gamma-haemolytic bacteria, which does not cause any lysis of red blood cells. S. epidermis is a coagulase-negative staphylococcus and does not exhibit any haemolysis.
16.
What is useful in antibiotic production?
Correct Answer
E. B. polymyxa
Explanation
B. polymyxa is useful in antibiotic production because it is a bacterium that produces a substance called polymyxin, which is an antibiotic. Polymyxin is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including Gram-negative bacteria, and is commonly used in the treatment of infections caused by these bacteria. Therefore, B. polymyxa is a valuable resource in the production of antibiotics.
17.
Which of the following is located in the GI tract of children and can cause watery diarrhea?
Correct Answer
D. C. difficile
Explanation
C. difficile is located in the GI tract of children and can cause watery diarrhea. This bacterium is known to produce toxins that can damage the lining of the intestines, leading to inflammation and diarrhea. It is commonly found in hospitals and healthcare settings, where it can spread easily among children. C. difficile infections are often associated with antibiotic use, as antibiotics can disrupt the natural balance of bacteria in the gut and allow C. difficile to overgrow.
18.
Which of the following is associated with acne vulgaris?
Correct Answer
E. All of the above
Explanation
All of the options listed are associated with acne vulgaris. P. granulosum is a layer of the epidermis that plays a role in the formation of acne lesions. P. acnes is a type of bacteria that is commonly found on the skin and is involved in the development of acne. S. epidermis is another type of bacteria that can contribute to acne. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all of these factors are associated with acne vulgaris.
19.
What are pregnant women more likely to have than other healthy adults?
Correct Answer
C. Listeriosis
Explanation
Pregnant women are more likely to have listeriosis than other healthy adults. Listeriosis is a serious infection caused by the bacterium Listeria monocytogenes. Pregnant women are at higher risk because their immune systems are weakened during pregnancy, making them more susceptible to infections. Listeriosis can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby, including miscarriage, stillbirth, premature birth, and serious illness or death of the newborn. Therefore, pregnant women need to take extra precautions to avoid consuming foods that may be contaminated with Listeria.
20.
What can ferment glucose into lactose?
Correct Answer
B. Lactobacillus
Explanation
Lactobacillus is the correct answer because it is a type of bacteria that is known for its ability to ferment glucose into lactose. This process is commonly used in the production of dairy products such as yogurt and cheese. Bacillus and Micrococcus are not known for their ability to ferment glucose into lactose, so they are not the correct answers. Therefore, the correct answer is Lactobacillus.