World's Toughest Trivia Quiz On Microbiology!
How good are you when it comes to knowledge on microbiology? The quiz below is considered the toughest trivia and is designed to sieve out the best out of all the top students in the class. Do you think that you can take it up and see if you are among the top students in the class? Well, do give it a shot and see how good you will do.
- 1.
Which type of infection can be caused by septicemia?
- A.
Systemic infection
- B.
Focal infection
- C.
Local infection
- D.
Bacteremia
- E.
Septicemia
Correct Answer
A. Systemic infectionExplanation
Septicemia is a serious bloodstream infection that can spread throughout the body, leading to a systemic infection. It occurs when bacteria or other pathogens enter the bloodstream and multiply, causing symptoms such as fever, rapid breathing, and confusion. If left untreated, septicemia can lead to sepsis, a life-threatening condition. Therefore, the correct answer is systemic infection.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota
- A.
Are present for a relatively short time
- B.
Cause diseases
- C.
Are found in a certain location on the host
- D.
Are acquired by direct contact
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Are present for a relatively short timeExplanation
Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because they are present in the host for a relatively short time. Unlike normal microbiota, which establish a stable and long-term presence in the host, transient microbiota are temporary and typically do not colonize or persist in the host for an extended period. They may be acquired through direct contact or exposure to environmental sources, but they do not cause diseases or have a specific location on the host.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
- A.
Pandemic - a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
- B.
Endemic - a disease that is constantly present in a population
- C.
Epidemic - a fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time
- D.
Sporadic - a disease that affects a population occasionally
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Epidemic - a fraction of the population having a disease at a specified timeExplanation
The given answer is incorrect because it defines epidemic as "a fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time". However, an epidemic is actually a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in a population. It refers to the rapid spread of a disease to a large number of people within a short period of time.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following is a fomite?
- A.
Insects
- B.
Droplets from a sneeze
- C.
Water
- D.
A hypodermic needle
- E.
Pus
Correct Answer
D. A hypodermic needleExplanation
A fomite is an inanimate object that can carry and transmit infectious pathogens. In this case, a hypodermic needle is a fomite because it can potentially carry and transmit pathogens if it is contaminated with infectious material.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A commensal bacterium
- A.
Does not receive any benefit from its host
- B.
Is beneficial to its host
- C.
May be an opportunistic pathogen
- D.
Does not infect its host
- E.
B and d only
Correct Answer
C. May be an opportunistic pathogenExplanation
A commensal bacterium may be an opportunistic pathogen because even though it typically does not cause harm to its host, under certain conditions it can become pathogenic and cause infection or disease. This means that while it may not actively infect its host in its commensal state, it has the potential to do so if the opportunity arises.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A nosocomial infection is
- A.
Only a result of surgery
- B.
Acquired during the course of hospitalization
- C.
always present but inapparent at the time of hospitalization
- D.
Always caused by medical personnel
- E.
Always caused by pathogenic bacteria
Correct Answer
B. Acquired during the course of hospitalizationExplanation
A nosocomial infection is an infection that is acquired during the course of hospitalization. This means that the infection is not present prior to entering the hospital but is acquired during the stay. It does not necessarily have to be a result of surgery or caused by medical personnel. It can be caused by various factors, including pathogenic bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The major significance of Koch's work was that
- A.
Microorganisms are present in a diseased animal.
- B.
Diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another
- C.
Microorganisms can be cultured
- D.
Microorganisms are the result of disease.
- E.
Microorganisms cause disease.
Correct Answer
E. Microorganisms cause disease.Explanation
Koch's work was significant because it established the link between microorganisms and disease. He was able to prove that specific microorganisms were responsible for causing specific diseases, which revolutionized the understanding of infectious diseases. This discovery paved the way for the development of vaccines, antibiotics, and other treatments to combat microbial infections.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The science that deals with when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called
- A.
Ecology
- B.
Epidemiology
- C.
Communicable disease
- D.
Morbidity and mortality
- E.
Public health
Correct Answer
B. EpidemiologyExplanation
Epidemiology is the science that studies the occurrence, distribution, and transmission of diseases. It focuses on understanding the patterns and factors that contribute to the spread of diseases within populations. Epidemiologists investigate the causes and risk factors of diseases, as well as develop strategies for prevention and control. They analyze data, conduct studies, and use statistical methods to determine the patterns and trends of diseases. By studying epidemiology, scientists can gain insights into how diseases occur and are transmitted, which is crucial for effective public health interventions and disease control measures.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
- A.
Always occur as part of a syndrome
- B.
Are changes felt by the patient
- C.
Are changes observed by the physician
- D.
Are specific for a particular disease
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Are changes felt by the patientExplanation
Symptoms of a disease refer to the subjective experiences or changes felt by the patient themselves. These can include things like pain, fatigue, or nausea. On the other hand, signs of a disease are objective observations made by a physician during a physical examination or through diagnostic tests. Signs can include things like an abnormal heart rate, a rash, or an enlarged organ. Therefore, the correct answer is that symptoms are changes felt by the patient.Rate this question:
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- 10.
All of the following are communicable diseases except
- A.
Tyhphoid fever
- B.
Tuberculosis
- C.
Tetanus
- D.
Malaria
- E.
AIDS
Correct Answer
C. TetanusExplanation
Tetanus is not a communicable disease because it is not spread from person to person. It is caused by a bacterial infection that enters the body through a wound or cut. The bacteria produce toxins that affect the nervous system, causing muscle stiffness and spasms. Tetanus can be prevented through vaccination and proper wound care.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness?
- A.
Cell wall
- B.
Capsule
- C.
Toxins
- D.
Ligands
- E.
Hyaluronidase
Correct Answer
C. ToxinsExplanation
Toxins do not contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness. While cell wall, capsule, ligands, and hyaluronidase all play a role in allowing pathogens to invade host tissues and establish infection, toxins are typically produced by pathogens to cause damage to host cells or tissues, but they do not directly contribute to the pathogen's ability to invade.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A needlestick is an example of which portal of entry?
- A.
Skin
- B.
Paranaternal route
- C.
Mucous membranes
- D.
All of the above
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Paranaternal routeExplanation
A needlestick is not an example of the paratenal route. The paratenal route refers to the entry of pathogens through the placenta from mother to fetus. A needlestick, on the other hand, is a form of percutaneous exposure where a needle pierces the skin and allows pathogens to enter the body through the skin. Therefore, the correct answer is "skin".Rate this question:
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- 13.
All of the following are types of exotoxins EXCEPT
- A.
Lipid A
- B.
Membrane disrupting toxins
- C.
AB toxins
- D.
Superantigens
- E.
All of the above are types of exotoxins
Correct Answer
A. Lipid AExplanation
Lipid A is not a type of exotoxin. Exotoxins are proteins released by certain bacteria that can cause damage to host cells. Lipid A, on the other hand, is a component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria and is responsible for the toxic effects of endotoxins, not exotoxins. Therefore, Lipid A is not included in the types of exotoxins.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally NOT true?
- A.
They are composed of proteins
- B.
They are not required in high concentrations to be effective
- C.
They are not destroyed by heat
- D.
They have specific methods of action
- E.
They are more potent than endotoxins
Correct Answer
C. They are not destroyed by heatExplanation
Exotoxins are generally composed of proteins, have specific methods of action, and are more potent than endotoxins. However, they are not required in high concentrations to be effective, meaning even small amounts can cause significant damage. Additionally, unlike endotoxins, exotoxins are destroyed by heat.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to
- A.
Viral infections
- B.
Protozoan and helminthic infections
- C.
Bacterial infections
- D.
Fungal infections
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Viral infectionsExplanation
Cytopathic effects refer to the changes that occur in host cells as a result of viral infections. Viruses can cause various alterations in the cells they infect, such as cell death, cell fusion, formation of inclusion bodies, changes in cell shape, and alterations in cell metabolism. These effects can be observed under a microscope and are important in diagnosing viral infections.Rate this question:
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- 16.
All of the following are methods of penetrating and/or avoiding the host EXCEPT
- A.
Antigenic changes
- B.
Membrane-disrupting toxins
- C.
Hyaluronidase
- D.
IgA proteases
- E.
Invasins
Correct Answer
B. Membrane-disrupting toxinsExplanation
Membrane-disrupting toxins are a method of penetrating and/or avoiding the host. They work by damaging the host cell membrane, allowing the pathogen to enter or exit the cell. Therefore, membrane-disrupting toxins cannot be considered as an exception to the methods of penetrating and/or avoiding the host.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal
- A.
White blood cells
- B.
Transferrins
- C.
Antibodies
- D.
Red blood cells
- E.
Ferrodoxins
Correct Answer
B. TransferrinsExplanation
Transferrins are proteins found in animals that bind to iron and transport it throughout the body. Siderophores, on the other hand, are bacterial proteins that also bind to iron but with the purpose of acquiring it for bacterial growth and survival. Therefore, the correct answer suggests that siderophores compete with transferrins for iron.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Endotoxins are
- A.
Required only in minute amounts
- B.
Excreted from the cell
- C.
Associated with Gram-positive bacteria
- D.
Specific in their mode of action
- E.
Part of the Gram-negative cell wall
Correct Answer
E. Part of the Gram-negative cell wallExplanation
Endotoxins are part of the Gram-negative cell wall. Gram-negative bacteria have a unique structure in their cell wall called lipopolysaccharide (LPS), which is also known as endotoxin. Endotoxins are released when the bacteria are destroyed or undergo cell division. They can cause a strong immune response in the host, leading to symptoms such as fever, inflammation, and shock. Gram-positive bacteria, on the other hand, do not have LPS or endotoxins in their cell wall.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
- A.
Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
- B.
Mucous membranes of the genitourinary tract.
- C.
Skin
- D.
Parenteral route
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Mucous membranes of the respiratory tractExplanation
The respiratory tract is the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens because it is constantly exposed to the external environment through breathing. Pathogens can enter the body through inhalation of contaminated air, allowing them to directly access the mucous membranes of the respiratory tract. This makes it easier for pathogens to establish an infection in the respiratory system and potentially spread to other parts of the body.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Botulism is caused by an exotoxin, therefore it could be easily prevented by
- A.
Administering antibiotics to patients.
- B.
Boiling food prior to consumption
- C.
Including antibiotics in the canning process
- D.
Preventing fecal contamination of food
- E.
Just not eating canned food
Correct Answer
B. Boiling food prior to consumptionExplanation
Botulism is caused by an exotoxin produced by the bacteria Clostridium botulinum. Boiling food prior to consumption is an effective preventive measure because it helps to destroy the bacteria and the toxin. Boiling food at high temperatures kills the bacteria and denatures the toxin, making the food safe to eat. This is an important step in preventing the growth and spread of Clostridium botulinum and reducing the risk of botulism. The other options, such as administering antibiotics to patients or including antibiotics in the canning process, may not be effective in preventing botulism as it is primarily caused by the toxin rather than the bacteria itself. Preventing fecal contamination of food is also important, but boiling food is a more direct and effective measure in preventing botulism.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is involved in specific resistance (immunity)?
- A.
Monocyte
- B.
Basophil
- C.
Neutrophil
- D.
Lymphocyte
- E.
Eosinophil
Correct Answer
D. LympHocyteExplanation
Lymphocytes are involved in specific resistance or immunity. They are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the body's immune response. Lymphocytes are responsible for recognizing and attacking specific pathogens or foreign substances in the body. They can produce antibodies to neutralize harmful substances or directly destroy infected cells. This specific immune response allows the body to target and eliminate specific threats, providing long-term protection against future infections.Rate this question:
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- 22.
All of the following are associated with complement fixation EXCEPT
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Cell lysis
- C.
Membrane attack complex
- D.
Increased phagocytic activity
- E.
Fever
Correct Answer
E. FeverExplanation
Complement fixation is a process in which the complement system, a part of the immune system, is activated to fight against pathogens. It involves a series of reactions that result in inflammation, cell lysis, and the formation of the membrane attack complex, which can destroy the pathogens. However, complement fixation does not directly cause fever. Fever is typically a response to infection or inflammation and is mediated by other mechanisms in the body. Therefore, fever is not associated with complement fixation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is involved in fighting parasitic infections?
- A.
Eosinophil
- B.
Basophil
- C.
Lymphocyte
- D.
Neutrophil
- E.
Monocyte
Correct Answer
A. EosinopHilExplanation
Eosinophils are involved in fighting parasitic infections. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are responsible for combating parasitic infections in the body. They release toxic substances that can kill parasites and help to regulate the immune response against these infections. Eosinophils are particularly effective against helminth parasites, such as worms, and are often found in higher numbers during parasitic infections.Rate this question:
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- 24.
All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?
- A.
Vasodilation
- B.
Diapedesis
- C.
Repair
- D.
Phagocyte migration
- E.
Margination
Correct Answer
A. VasodilationExplanation
During inflammation, the first step is vasodilation. This process involves the widening of blood vessels, allowing an increased flow of blood to the affected area. Vasodilation helps to deliver more oxygen, nutrients, and immune cells to the site of inflammation, promoting healing and the removal of harmful substances.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of inflammation?
- A.
Fever
- B.
Local heat
- C.
Pain
- D.
Swelling
- E.
Redness
Correct Answer
A. FeverExplanation
Fever is not a characteristic of inflammation. Inflammation is a localized response to tissue injury or infection, characterized by redness, swelling, pain, and local heat. Fever, on the other hand, is a systemic response in which the body's temperature is elevated in response to an infection or illness. While fever can sometimes occur alongside inflammation, it is not a direct characteristic of inflammation itself.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
- A.
Erythrocytes
- B.
Eosinophils
- C.
Lymphocytes
- D.
Neutrophils
- E.
Basophils
Correct Answer
D. NeutropHilsExplanation
Neutrophils exhibit the highest phagocytic activity. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and digest foreign particles or pathogens. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that are highly specialized in phagocytosis. They have numerous receptors on their surface that allow them to recognize and bind to foreign particles. Neutrophils also produce a variety of enzymes and antimicrobial substances that help in the destruction of engulfed particles. This high phagocytic activity makes neutrophils an important component of the immune response against infections.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following is NOT a chemical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?
- A.
Gastric juices
- B.
Ciliary escalator
- C.
Lysozyme
- D.
Mucus
- E.
Sebum
Correct Answer
B. Ciliary escalatorExplanation
The ciliary escalator is not a chemical factor to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection. It is a physical defense mechanism that helps to remove foreign particles and pathogens from the respiratory tract. It consists of tiny hair-like structures called cilia that line the respiratory tract and move in coordinated waves to sweep mucus and trapped particles out of the lungs. Chemical factors such as gastric juices, lysozyme, mucus, and sebum all play a role in protecting the skin and mucous membranes from infection by either killing or inhibiting the growth of pathogens.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Macrophages arise from which of the following?
- A.
Neutrophil
- B.
Lymphocyte
- C.
Monocyte
- D.
Eosinophil
- E.
Basophil
Correct Answer
C. MonocyteExplanation
Macrophages arise from monocytes. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that circulate in the bloodstream. When there is an infection or inflammation in the body, monocytes migrate to the affected area and differentiate into macrophages. Macrophages play a crucial role in the immune response by engulfing and digesting foreign particles, dead cells, and debris. They also release signaling molecules to recruit other immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Nonspecific resistance is
- A.
The body's ability to ward off diseases.
- B.
The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen
- C.
The body's defenses against a specific pathogen
- D.
The lack of resistance
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. The body's defenses against any kind of pathogenExplanation
Nonspecific resistance refers to the body's defenses against any kind of pathogen, regardless of its specific nature. This includes physical barriers such as the skin and mucous membranes, as well as immune responses such as inflammation and the release of antimicrobial substances. These defenses are not specific to a particular pathogen and are the body's first line of defense against infection.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Bacteria have siderophores to capture iron; humans counter this by
- A.
Producing iron
- B.
Producing sulfur dioxide
- C.
Transferrins
- D.
Iron-degrading enzymes
- E.
Toxin production
Correct Answer
C. TransferrinsExplanation
Bacteria have siderophores to capture iron, which is essential for their survival and growth. Transferrins are proteins produced by humans as a defense mechanism against bacterial iron acquisition. Transferrins bind to iron and prevent bacteria from using it, thus limiting their ability to thrive. This is a way for humans to counteract the bacterial strategy of capturing iron using siderophores.Rate this question:
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- 31.
In which organism were phagocytes first reported?
- A.
Bacteria
- B.
Amoeba
- C.
Red blood cells
- D.
Starfish larvae
Correct Answer
D. Starfish larvaeExplanation
Phagocytes were first reported in starfish larvae. Phagocytes are a type of immune cell that can engulf and destroy foreign particles, such as bacteria and dead cells. The discovery of phagocytes in starfish larvae suggests that these organisms have a primitive immune system capable of defending against pathogens. This finding has important implications for understanding the evolution of immune systems in different organisms.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which is not a component of innate immunity?
- A.
Skin
- B.
Inflammation
- C.
Fever
- D.
Antibody
Correct Answer
D. AntibodyExplanation
Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense against pathogens and does not involve the production of antibodies. Antibodies are part of the adaptive immune response, which is the second line of defense and is specific to particular pathogens. Skin, inflammation, and fever are all components of the innate immune response.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?
- A.
Erythrocyte
- B.
Neutrophil
- C.
B cell
- D.
T cell
Correct Answer
B. NeutropHilExplanation
A neutrophil is a type of white blood cell that is capable of phagocytosis, which is the process of engulfing and destroying foreign particles or pathogens. Neutrophils are an important part of the immune system and are found in the human body. They play a crucial role in fighting off infections and are one of the first responders to sites of inflammation or infection.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The leukocyte described as having a small amount of cytpolasm surrounding a round nucleus is the
- A.
Lymphocyte
- B.
Monocyte
- C.
Basophil
- D.
Neutrophil
Correct Answer
A. LympHocyteExplanation
A lymphocyte is a type of leukocyte (white blood cell) that is characterized by having a small amount of cytoplasm surrounding a round nucleus. Lymphocytes play a key role in the immune system and are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances in the body. They are involved in both the innate and adaptive immune responses and are essential for maintaining overall immune function.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Skin and mucous membranes
- A.
Are the first line of innate immunity
- B.
Are the first line of adaptive immunity
- C.
Act as physical barriers to infection
- D.
Contain antimicrobial secretions
- E.
A, c and d
Correct Answer
E. A, c and dExplanation
The skin and mucous membranes act as physical barriers to infection by preventing pathogens from entering the body. They also contain antimicrobial secretions that help to kill or inhibit the growth of pathogens. Therefore, options a, c, and d are all correct explanations for the given answer.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is
- A.
Complement
- B.
Interferon
- C.
Glycoprotein
- D.
Lysozome
Correct Answer
A. ComplementExplanation
Complement is a group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism. When activated, complement proteins can enhance the immune response by promoting inflammation, attracting immune cells to the site of infection, and directly killing pathogens. Complement also plays a role in the clearance of immune complexes and the regulation of the immune response. Therefore, complement is the correct answer as it fits the description of a group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is described as
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Reaction
- C.
Antibodies
- D.
Trauma
Correct Answer
A. InflammationExplanation
The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is inflammation. When tissue is injured, the body's immune system responds by releasing chemicals that cause blood vessels to widen and become more permeable. This allows immune cells and fluid to enter the injured tissue, leading to redness, swelling, heat, and pain. Inflammation helps to remove damaged cells and debris, and promotes healing by bringing in nutrients and oxygen to the injured area.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Following digestion of a microorganism by phagocytes, the debris is excreted by
- A.
Ingestion
- B.
Exocytosis
- C.
Extrusion
- D.
Budding
Correct Answer
B. ExocytosisExplanation
After phagocytes digest a microorganism, they eliminate the resulting debris through exocytosis. Exocytosis is a process in which the phagocyte releases waste materials by fusing a vesicle containing the debris with the cell membrane, thus expelling the contents outside the cell. This allows for the removal of the digested microorganism's remnants from the phagocyte's cytoplasm, maintaining cellular cleanliness and preventing the accumulation of waste.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following cytokines is most antiviral in its action?
- A.
Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
- B.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
- C.
Interferon
- D.
Lysozyme
Correct Answer
C. InterferonExplanation
Interferon is the most antiviral cytokine because it plays a crucial role in the body's immune response against viral infections. It helps to inhibit viral replication, activate immune cells, and enhance the body's defense mechanisms. Interleukin-1 and interleukin-2 are involved in inflammation and immune regulation, but they do not have direct antiviral effects. Lysozyme is an enzyme that has antimicrobial properties, but it is not specific to viruses and does not have a significant antiviral role.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Pyrogens are
- A.
Fever-inducing substances
- B.
Fever-inhibiting substances
- C.
Phagocytosis-enhancing substances
- D.
Complement activators
Correct Answer
A. Fever-inducing substancesExplanation
Pyrogens are substances that can induce fever. When pyrogens enter the body, they stimulate the release of certain chemicals called cytokines, which in turn signal the hypothalamus in the brain to raise the body's temperature. This increase in body temperature is part of the body's immune response to fight off infections or other illnesses. Pyrogens can be endogenous (produced by the body itself) or exogenous (coming from external sources such as bacteria or viruses). Overall, pyrogens play a crucial role in the body's defense mechanism against infections.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The hypersensitivity treatment that stimulates an increase of IgG and T suppressor cells, and a decrease in IgE is known as
- A.
Desensitization
- B.
Immunity
- C.
Sensitization
- D.
Exposure
- E.
Anaphylaxis
Correct Answer
A. DesensitizationExplanation
Desensitization is a hypersensitivity treatment that involves exposing the individual to small, gradually increasing doses of the allergen to stimulate an increase in IgG and T suppressor cells, which help to suppress the allergic response. This treatment also leads to a decrease in IgE, which is responsible for triggering allergic reactions. Therefore, desensitization is the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A transfusion reaction primarily involves
- A.
Leukocytes
- B.
Phagocytes
- C.
Platelets
- D.
Erythrocytes
Correct Answer
D. ErythrocytesExplanation
A transfusion reaction primarily involves erythrocytes, which are red blood cells. These reactions occur when there is an immune response to the transfused blood, leading to the destruction of the donor's red blood cells by the recipient's immune system. This can result in symptoms such as fever, chills, shortness of breath, and in severe cases, organ damage or even death. It is important to match blood types and perform compatibility testing to minimize the risk of transfusion reactions.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen both
- A.
Result in destruction of red blood cells
- B.
Utilize complement to destroy red blood cells
- C.
Utilize antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity to destroy the red blood cells
- D.
Result in destruction of only leukocytes
Correct Answer
A. Result in destruction of red blood cellsExplanation
A mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen can result in destruction of red blood cells. This is because when there is a mismatch between the antigens on the surface of the red blood cells and the antibodies in the recipient's bloodstream, the antibodies bind to the antigens and trigger an immune response. This immune response leads to the destruction of the red blood cells, causing hemolysis.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called
- A.
Natural
- B.
Acquired
- C.
Injurious
- D.
Active
Correct Answer
A. NaturalExplanation
Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are referred to as natural antibodies. These antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to normal exposure to antigens, such as bacteria or viruses, without the need for vaccination or deliberate immunization. Natural antibodies play a role in the innate immune response and provide immediate protection against pathogens. They are different from acquired antibodies, which are produced in response to specific antigens after vaccination or infection. Injurious and active do not accurately describe antibodies that arise without any obvious or deliberate stimulus.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The cell type responsible for Type II hypersensitivity is the
- A.
Mast cell
- B.
B cell
- C.
Macrophage
- D.
Platelet
- E.
Neutrophils
Correct Answer
B. B cellExplanation
B cells are responsible for Type II hypersensitivity reactions. These reactions occur when antibodies produced by B cells bind to antigens on the surface of cells or tissues, leading to destruction of those cells through various mechanisms such as complement activation or antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity. Mast cells, macrophages, platelets, and neutrophils are involved in other types of immune responses but not specifically in Type II hypersensitivity.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves
- A.
Erythrocytes
- B.
B cells
- C.
T cells
- D.
Mast cells
Correct Answer
C. T cellsExplanation
Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves T cells. T cells are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune response. In delayed type hypersensitivity, T cells recognize and respond to specific antigens, leading to an inflammatory reaction that occurs several hours or days after exposure to the antigen. This type of hypersensitivity is characterized by the recruitment of other immune cells, such as macrophages, which further contribute to the immune response.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Type IV hypersensitivity reactions typically peak within
- A.
Minutes
- B.
Hours
- C.
12 hours
- D.
2-3 days
Correct Answer
D. 2-3 daysExplanation
Type IV hypersensitivity reactions typically peak within 2-3 days. This type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the activation of T cells and the release of inflammatory cytokines. It is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when sensitized T cells encounter an antigen, leading to an immune response. The peak of the reaction occurs a few days after exposure to the antigen, hence the timeframe of 2-3 days. This is in contrast to immediate hypersensitivity reactions (Type I), which occur within minutes, and Type II and Type III reactions, which occur within hours.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following is associated with contact dermatitis?
- A.
Poison ivy
- B.
Latex
- C.
Tuberculin skin test
- D.
Hay fever
- E.
A, b and c
Correct Answer
E. A, b and cExplanation
Contact dermatitis is a type of skin inflammation that occurs when the skin comes into contact with certain substances. Poison ivy, latex, and the tuberculin skin test are all associated with contact dermatitis. Poison ivy contains a substance called urushiol that can cause an allergic reaction in some people, leading to contact dermatitis. Latex is a common allergen that can cause contact dermatitis in individuals who are sensitive to it. The tuberculin skin test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin into the skin, which can cause a localized allergic reaction and result in contact dermatitis. Therefore, options a, b, and c are all associated with contact dermatitis.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Allografts
- A.
Are normally rejected within hours
- B.
Are normally rejected within 10-14 days
- C.
Are grafts between non-identical members of the same species
- D.
Would include the fetus
- E.
B, c and d
Correct Answer
E. B, c and dExplanation
Allografts are grafts between non-identical members of the same species. They can include grafts between different individuals within the same species, such as organ transplants between two humans. Additionally, allografts can also include grafts between a mother and her fetus. These types of grafts are typically rejected by the recipient's immune system within 10-14 days, as they are recognized as foreign and attacked by the immune system. Therefore, the correct answer is b, c and d.Rate this question:
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- 50.
If the thymus fails to develop,
- A.
Functional T cells are absent
- B.
Functional B cells are absent
- C.
Di George's syndrome exists
- D.
Complement deficiencies exist
- E.
A and c
Correct Answer
E. A and cExplanation
If the thymus fails to develop, functional T cells are absent. This is because the thymus is responsible for the maturation of T cells, and without a properly developed thymus, T cells cannot mature and become functional. Additionally, if the thymus fails to develop, Di George's syndrome exists. Di George's syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by the underdevelopment or absence of the thymus, leading to immune system abnormalities. Therefore, both options a and c are correct.Rate this question:
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May 07, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jul 20, 2011Quiz Created by
Stephens
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