Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 2

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1. A traffic accident is classified as a major traffic accident anytime 

Explanation

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About This Quiz
Z3p051 Edit Code 5 Vol 2 - Quiz

Z3P051 EDIT CODE 5 VOL 2 focuses on the rules and ethical considerations in the use of force within the military and law enforcement contexts. It assesses understanding of engagement rules, force levels, and legal standards, crucial for personnel in defense and security roles.

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2. When dealing with controlled substances, how is wrongfulness defined? 

Explanation

Wrongfulness in the context of dealing with controlled substances is defined as performing an action without legal justification or authorization. This means that any action involving controlled substances that is not permitted by law or authorized by the appropriate authorities would be considered wrongful.

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3. It is important that you receive official certification of your qualifications and training standards when training on speed measuring devices so the evidence is admissible 

Explanation

Receiving official certification of qualifications and training standards for speed measuring devices ensures that the evidence obtained through the training is admissible in both civilian and military courts. This implies that the certification holds value and can be used as evidence in legal proceedings regardless of the court jurisdiction.

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4. In the case of a nuclear security system, three potential adversary groups of primary concern are criminals, protestors, and 

Explanation

In the case of a nuclear security system, the primary concern is to protect against potential adversaries who may pose a threat to the facility. While criminals, protestors, and trespassers could potentially cause disruption, terrorists pose the greatest risk due to their intent to cause widespread destruction and harm. Their motivations and capabilities make them the most dangerous group to guard against in a nuclear security system.

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5. What type of force is required at all installations supporting protection level (PL) 1, 2, or 3 resources? 

Explanation

At all installations supporting protection level (PL) 1, 2, or 3 resources, a security response team (SRT) is required. This team is responsible for quickly responding to any security threats or incidents that may occur. They are trained to handle various situations and ensure the safety and protection of the resources. Unlike security patrols, fire teams, or alarm fire teams, the security response team is specifically focused on responding to security-related issues.

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6. The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identify that an individual is authorized to 

Explanation

The letter "E" next to an unblocked number on a restricted area badge identifies that an individual is authorized to escort personnel into those restricted areas.

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7. When processing a crime scene, when would you normally cover the body of a deceased person? 

Explanation

After a crime scene has been fully processed for evidence, it is the appropriate time to cover the body of a deceased person. This ensures that all necessary evidence has been collected and documented before the body is covered. It is important to preserve the integrity of the crime scene and avoid contaminating or disturbing any potential evidence. Therefore, covering the body after it has been fully processed for evidence is the correct procedure.

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8. What type of assault is punishable in all states as a felony and is committed when a defendant tends to do more than merely frighten the victim? 

Explanation

Aggravated assault is the correct answer because it is a type of assault that is punishable as a felony in all states and involves the defendant intending to do more than merely frighten the victim. This means that the defendant's actions go beyond simple assault, which is a lesser offense. Battery, on the other hand, refers to the actual physical contact or harm caused to the victim, whereas assault is the threat or attempt to cause harm. Therefore, aggravated assault is the most appropriate choice for the given scenario.

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9.   What are the two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE)?

Explanation

The two distinct categories of rules of engagement (ROE) are self-defense and mission accomplishment. Self-defense refers to the rules that allow individuals or units to use force to protect themselves or their allies when they are under threat or attack. Mission accomplishment, on the other hand, refers to the rules that guide the use of force in order to achieve the objectives of a specific mission or operation. These two categories of ROE ensure that military personnel can defend themselves while also working towards the successful completion of their assigned tasks.

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10. When compared to deadly force, non-lethal force is subject to what type of standards?

Explanation

Non-lethal force is subject to the same standards of objective reasonableness and totality of circumstances as deadly force. This means that when determining whether the use of non-lethal force is justified, the same factors are considered, such as the threat level posed by the suspect, the immediacy of the threat, and the availability of other alternatives. The use of non-lethal force must still be reasonable and proportionate to the situation at hand, just like the use of deadly force.

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11. How many feet apart would you display restricted area signs along restricted area boundaries? 

Explanation

Restricted area signs should be displayed 100 feet apart along restricted area boundaries. This distance ensures that the signs are clearly visible and allow for adequate warning to individuals approaching the restricted area. Placing the signs closer together may cause confusion, while spacing them further apart may not provide sufficient notice of the restricted area. Therefore, 100 feet is the appropriate distance for displaying restricted area signs.

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12. Which nuclear weapons facility is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world? 

Explanation

The Kirtland Underground Munitions Maintenance Storage Complex (KUMMSC) in the USA is the largest storage facility for nuclear weapons in the world. This facility is located in New Mexico and is responsible for the storage and maintenance of a significant number of nuclear weapons.

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13. What type of search consists of a much more detailed search and may often require partial or total disassembly of the vehicle?

Explanation

A complete search refers to a thorough and detailed search that may involve partially or completely disassembling the vehicle. This type of search is necessary when a more comprehensive examination is required to uncover hidden or hard-to-reach areas of the vehicle. It allows for a more in-depth inspection and investigation, ensuring that all potential evidence or information is discovered.

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14. What type of mandatory training is needed if you are armed with an expandable baton?

Explanation

If someone is armed with an expandable baton, they would need both initial and annual refresher training. This means that they would need to receive training when they first start using the baton to ensure they know how to properly handle and use it. Additionally, they would need to receive annual refresher training to keep their skills and knowledge up to date. This is important to ensure that they are able to use the baton effectively and safely in their role.

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15. What combative technique is used to protect your head from strikes while in the ready stance?

Explanation

Comb blocks are a combative technique used to protect the head from strikes while in the ready stance. This technique involves using the arms and hands to block and deflect incoming strikes, creating a barrier between the attacker's strikes and the head. By using comb blocks, the person in the ready stance can effectively protect their head and minimize the impact of strikes. Shrimping, T-position, and standup to base are not combative techniques specifically used for protecting the head from strikes in the ready stance.

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16. Which Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) article covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance? 

Explanation

Article 112a of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) covers the wrongful use and possession of a controlled substance. This article specifically addresses the possession, distribution, and use of illegal drugs, as well as the abuse of prescription medications. It outlines the penalties and consequences for violating these provisions, including potential court-martial and disciplinary actions.

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17. What type of child abuse is exemplified by not providing nourishment, deprivation of necessities, and not providing appropriate shelter, or clothing? 

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Neglect. This is because neglect refers to the failure to provide basic necessities for a child's well-being, such as nourishment, shelter, and clothing. Sexual abuse, mental abuse, and physical abuse are different types of child abuse, but they do not specifically involve the lack of providing these basic necessities.

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18. What characteristics you can show at your initial contact with a sexual assault/rape victim can make a difference in the emotional state of the victim? 

Explanation

The characteristics of tact and poise can make a difference in the emotional state of a sexual assault/rape victim because they contribute to creating a safe and supportive environment. Tact allows for sensitive and respectful communication, ensuring that the victim feels heard and understood. Poise helps the responder to remain calm and composed, which can help the victim feel more at ease and less anxious. Both of these characteristics are crucial in establishing trust and building a rapport with the victim, which can ultimately aid in their emotional healing and recovery.

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19. When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand 

Explanation

When directing traffic on a very narrow or one-way street, it is best for you to stand off to the side of the road. This allows you to have a clear view of the traffic and be visible to drivers approaching from both directions. Standing next to your vehicle or in the center of the road can obstruct the view of drivers and increase the risk of accidents. Standing in the center of the intersection is also not recommended as it can confuse drivers and disrupt the flow of traffic. Therefore, standing off to the side of the road is the safest and most effective position for directing traffic on such streets.

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20.   In relations to mental preparedness to employ force, when personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or may have concerns about inflicting injury or death, this fear can cause

Explanation

When personnel fear becoming the victim of close-range aggression or have concerns about inflicting injury or death, it is likely that they will experience tentativeness and hesitation. This fear can cause them to second-guess their actions and be unsure about how to proceed, leading to a lack of confidence and a delay in taking necessary actions. This tentativeness and hesitation can hinder their ability to effectively employ force and respond to a potentially dangerous situation.

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21.   What level of force does the US Supreme Court hold as reasonable under the 4thAmendment as it pertains to law enforcement and security personnel in the context of making an arrest or other seizure of a person? Law enforcement and security personnel

Explanation

The correct answer is d. This means that law enforcement and security personnel are not required to use the least intrusive force alternative when making an arrest or other seizure of a person. Instead, they only need to use a reasonable amount of force to apprehend the subject. This allows for some flexibility in determining the appropriate level of force based on the specific circumstances of each situation.

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22.   Conscious verbal communication occurs when

Explanation

Verbal communication requires the conscious selection of words during a conversation. This means that the communicator is actively thinking about the words they use and choosing them carefully to convey their message effectively. This involves considering the context, the audience, and the desired outcome of the communication. It is not about words occurring naturally or being read from a form, nor is it about being in a hurry.

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23. Prior to applying handcuffs, you gain positive control of a subject by grasping the

Explanation

To gain positive control of a subject before applying handcuffs, it is recommended to grasp the ring or middle finger. This allows for a secure grip and better control over the subject's hand, making it easier to apply the handcuffs effectively. Grasping the back of the neck (option a) may be more appropriate for controlling the head or neck area, while grasping the wrist of the farthest hand (option b) or nearest hand (option d) may not provide as much control over the subject's movements.

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24. Prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, you must advise the suspects 

Explanation

Before using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment, it is important to inform the suspects about the implied consent policy. This policy states that by operating a vehicle, individuals are deemed to have given their consent to chemical tests to determine their blood alcohol concentration. This means that if a suspect refuses to take a breath test, they may face legal consequences such as license suspension or other penalties. Informing the suspects about the implied consent policy is essential to ensure their understanding of the legal implications of refusing a breath test.

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25. What type of search is primarily used on suspects who do not appear dangerous, violent, or so drunk they cannot stand under their own power?

Explanation

When suspects do not appear dangerous, violent, or heavily intoxicated, law enforcement officers typically conduct a standing search. This type of search allows the officers to maintain control over the situation while minimizing physical contact with the suspect. It also ensures that the suspect is able to stand on their own power, indicating that they are not severely impaired. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Standing.

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26. Which control authority is exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders? 

Explanation

Operational Control (OPCON) is the correct answer because it is the control authority exercised through the subordinate joint force commanders or functional component commanders. OPCON gives commanders the authority to plan, direct, and control military operations. It allows them to organize and employ commands and forces as they see fit to accomplish their assigned missions. MILCON refers to the control of military construction projects, TACON refers to the control of tactical operations, and ADCON refers to the control of administrative matters.

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27. Vegetation in clear zones will not exceed how many inches in height inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities? 

Explanation

Inside restricted areas containing nuclear weapons storage facilities, the vegetation in clear zones will not exceed 8 inches in height. This limitation is likely in place to ensure that the vegetation does not obstruct visibility or interfere with the security and maintenance of the facilities. By keeping the vegetation at a maximum height of 8 inches, it allows for easier monitoring and access to the area.

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28. What must be established at each incident site?

Explanation

At each incident site, it is necessary to establish a cordon and entry control point (ECP). This is important for maintaining security and controlling access to the site. The cordon ensures that unauthorized personnel are kept out of the area, while the ECP allows authorized personnel to enter and exit the site while being screened and monitored. By establishing a cordon and ECP, the incident site can be properly secured and managed, ensuring the safety of both responders and the public.

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29. What must the SF on-scene commander (OSC) evaluate before making the decision on how to search an area?

Explanation

The SF on-scene commander (OSC) must evaluate the situation, terrain, weather, light, and number of searchers available before making the decision on how to search an area. These factors are important in determining the most effective and efficient way to conduct the search, ensuring that resources are allocated appropriately and that the search is conducted safely and successfully. The items to be searched, local law enforcement availability, and the number of patrols available may also be considerations, but they are not as comprehensive as the factors listed in option c.

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30. Which of the following is not a reason to make an entry without search authority? 

Explanation

Making an entry without search authority is not done to secure an unlocked door. It is done for reasons such as preventing injury to persons, rendering aid to someone in danger, or preventing serious damage to property. However, securing an unlocked door can be done without the need for making an entry without search authority.

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31. How many barbed projectiles (probes) does the electronic control device (ECD) neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI) system use when fired?

Explanation

The electronic control device (ECD) neuro-muscular incapacitation (NMI) system uses two barbed projectiles (probes) when fired.

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32. How do you attain weapons retention during a rear mount?

Explanation

During a rear mount, attaining weapons retention is achieved by rolling onto your Weapons Side (WS) and keeping the holstered weapon pinned against the ground. This position helps to secure the weapon and prevent it from being accessed by the suspect. Rolling onto the support side (SS) or grabbing the weapon with the SS hand would not provide the same level of retention and could potentially allow the suspect to gain control of the weapon.

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33. To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions , what should you do before placing suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting?

Explanation

Before placing a suspect in a Security Forces (SF) vehicle for transporting, it is important to search or frisk the suspect for weapons and contraband. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the patrol officer and to prevent any potential harm or danger during transportation. It is a standard procedure to conduct a search or frisk to ensure that the suspect does not have any weapons or illegal items that could pose a threat.

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34. What are the minimum requirements any time you are transporting a member of the opposite sex?

Explanation

When transporting a member of the opposite sex, the minimum requirement is to have an additional patrol officer as a passenger. This is to ensure the safety and professionalism of the situation, as having another officer present can help prevent any potential misunderstandings or allegations. It also provides a witness in case any issues arise during the transport. This requirement helps maintain a professional and respectful environment for all parties involved.

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35. What form will be completed in all instances where an apprehension is made? 

Explanation

The correct answer is AF Form 3545. This form is used to document all instances where an apprehension is made. It is a standardized form used by the Air Force to record information about the apprehension, including the details of the individual being apprehended, the reasons for the apprehension, and any other relevant information. This form ensures that there is a consistent and comprehensive record of all apprehensions made within the Air Force.

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36. Child pornography and child prostitution are examples of what type of child abuse? 

Explanation

Child pornography and child prostitution involve the sexual exploitation of children, making them examples of sexual abuse. This type of abuse involves the use of children for sexual purposes, which can cause severe physical and psychological harm to the child victims. It is important to recognize and address this form of abuse to protect children and ensure their safety and well-being.

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37.   In which situation would you not be authorized to use deadly force?

Explanation

Using deadly force is not authorized to prevent someone from breaking into a government vehicle. Deadly force can be used to protect oneself or others from imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm, protect inherently dangerous property, and protect assets vital to national security. However, in this situation, the act of breaking into a government vehicle does not pose an immediate threat of death or serious bodily harm, therefore deadly force would not be authorized.

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38. What must you do if during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search? 

Explanation

If during a search, the individual withdraws a previous consent to search, the correct course of action is to terminate the search immediately. This is because once consent is withdrawn, law enforcement no longer has the legal authority to continue the search without obtaining a warrant or establishing another legal justification.

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39. What is the primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified? 

Explanation

The primary method for identifying observations and potential lessons identified is through an after action report. This report is typically conducted after an event or activity and provides a detailed analysis of what occurred, including successes, failures, and areas for improvement. It helps to identify lessons learned and provides recommendations for future actions.

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40. What type of sentries controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is carrying specific protection level (PL)1 assets? 

Explanation

Close-in-sentry (CIS) controls the entry into aircraft when the aircraft is carrying specific protection level (PL)1 assets.

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41. At what level does the nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission? 

Explanation

The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily on the stewardship of the nuclear mission at the operational level. This means that it focuses on the day-to-day activities and management of the nuclear mission, including ensuring the safety, security, and effectiveness of nuclear operations. The operational level is where the practical implementation of policies and procedures takes place, making it crucial for maintaining the integrity and success of the nuclear mission.

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42. How do you read a grid map in order to find a grid coordinate?

Explanation

To read a grid map and find a grid coordinate, you start from the left side and move towards the right, and then move from the bottom upwards. This means that you first locate the column on the left side of the grid, and then move up to find the row at the bottom. This method ensures that you read the grid map in a systematic and organized manner, allowing you to accurately determine the grid coordinate.

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43. How should you mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas?

Explanation

Elevated markers should be used to mark the boundary of mass parking and temporary restricted areas. This is because elevated markers are easily visible and can be seen from a distance, ensuring that drivers are aware of the boundaries and do not enter these areas. Flat markers may not be as visible, while lights and cones may not be as effective in clearly defining the boundaries. Posted SF personnel may not always be available or visible, making elevated markers the most suitable option for marking the boundaries.

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44. Where on DD Form 1920, Alcohol Incident Report, would you annotate the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test? 

Explanation

In Section III, Standardization Field Sobriety Testing, you would annotate the results of a suspect's blood alcohol chemical test. This section is specifically designated for recording the results of the sobriety tests conducted on the suspect, including any chemical tests such as a blood alcohol test.

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45. What document establishes the rules of evidence for the military? 

Explanation

The Manual for Courts Martial establishes the rules of evidence for the military. This document provides guidance and regulations on how evidence should be presented and considered in military courts. It outlines the procedures and standards that must be followed during the trial process, ensuring fairness and consistency in the military justice system. The Federal Rules of Evidence and Federal Statutes of Evidence are not specific to the military, while the Uniform Code of Military Justice primarily focuses on defining criminal offenses and procedures for the military.

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46. Which of the following is not one of the three types of child abuse? 

Explanation

The three types of child abuse are neglect, sexual abuse, and physical abuse. Mental abuse is not included in the list of three types of child abuse.

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47. Which riot control formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups? 

Explanation

The wedge formation is used as an offensive formation to penetrate and split crowds into smaller groups. This formation involves a group of riot control personnel forming a triangular shape, with the point of the triangle leading the way. The narrow point of the wedge allows the formation to cut through the crowd, creating a divide and making it easier for the personnel to control and disperse the crowd. This formation is effective in breaking up large groups and preventing them from regrouping.

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48.   What are the standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces?

Explanation

The standing rules of engagement (ROE) for US forces permit defenders to fire weapons in self-defense, nation defense, or unit defense. This means that US forces are authorized to use their weapons to protect themselves, their nation, or their unit if they are under threat or attack. This allows them to take necessary action to defend themselves and fulfill their mission objectives.

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49. Security Forces personnel use the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) approved by the 

Explanation

The correct answer is d. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA). Security Forces personnel use the Standard Field Sobriety Tests (SFST) approved by the NHTSA. This agency is responsible for setting the standards and guidelines for traffic safety in the United States, including the procedures for testing drivers suspected of driving under the influence. The NHTSA has developed the SFST as a standardized method for evaluating a driver's impairment due to alcohol or drugs. By using these approved tests, Security Forces personnel can ensure that they are following the recognized standards and procedures for determining a driver's sobriety.

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50. On the reverse side of the AF Form 1176, Authority to Search and Seize, or bond sheet of paper, you must write or type a 

Explanation

On the reverse side of the AF Form 1176 or bond sheet of paper, it is necessary to write or type a probable cause statement. This statement is crucial as it provides a legal basis for the search and seizure. It explains the reasons and evidence that support the belief that a crime has been committed or that there is a likelihood of finding evidence related to a crime. This statement is important in ensuring that the search and seizure is conducted within the boundaries of the law and protects the rights of individuals.

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51. What copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is given to the violator or affixed to the violator's vehicle if the vehicle is unattended? 

Explanation

The copy of the DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, that is given to the violator or affixed to the violator's vehicle if the vehicle is unattended is pink.

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52. How should you position your vehicle at the scene of an accident? 

Explanation

You should position your vehicle at the scene of an accident to protect the scene and injured persons while not creating a traffic hazard. This means finding a safe location that does not obstruct traffic flow but provides a barrier between the accident scene and passing vehicles. The primary focus should be on ensuring the safety and well-being of those involved in the accident, while also minimizing the risk of further accidents or injuries.

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53. How long should a direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area last?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. 1 second. The duration of a direct pepper spray burst at the subject's facial area should last for only 1 second. This is because pepper spray is a highly potent and effective self-defense weapon, and a short burst of 1 second is usually enough to incapacitate an attacker and allow the victim to escape from the dangerous situation. A longer duration may cause unnecessary harm or potential legal consequences.

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54. What shape is the radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR concentrated into? 

Explanation

Radio wave energy transmitted by police traffic RADAR is concentrated into a cone shape. This is because RADAR systems emit radio waves in a specific direction, creating a cone-shaped beam. The cone shape allows the RADAR to cover a larger area and detect objects within that area. The radio waves spread out as they travel, forming a cone-shaped pattern of energy concentration.

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55. To whom do you release civilians who commit a minor offense in areas with concurrent jurisdiction?

Explanation

In areas with concurrent jurisdiction, civilians who commit a minor offense are released to a military sponsor. This means that the military takes responsibility for the individual and oversees their release. The military sponsor may provide guidance, support, or supervision to ensure that the civilian complies with any necessary legal processes or requirements. This arrangement allows for a coordinated approach between the military and local law enforcement in handling minor offenses committed by civilians in areas with concurrent jurisdiction.

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56. DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to someone who 

Explanation

The correct answer is d. commits a moving or non-moving traffic offense. This is because DD Form 1408, Armed Forces Traffic Ticket, is issued to individuals who have committed a traffic offense, regardless of whether it is a moving or non-moving violation. It is not specific to accidents or whether the individual is a military member or non-military member.

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57. Within how many days from the event it refers will an After Action Report be submitted? 

Explanation

An After Action Report will be submitted within 30 days from the event it refers to.

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58. What are the two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene? 

Explanation

The two types of sketches normally made of the crime scene are rough and finished. A rough sketch is typically drawn at the scene and provides a basic representation of the layout and important details. It is often hand-drawn and not to scale. A finished sketch, on the other hand, is a more detailed and precise representation of the crime scene. It is usually created later using computer software or other professional tools and is to scale.

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59. What is conducted during a domestic dispute/violence call to assess the immediate danger to family members and need for medical assistance or protective custody? 

Explanation

During a domestic dispute/violence call, an interview is conducted to assess the immediate danger to family members and determine the need for medical assistance or protective custody. This involves gathering information from the involved parties and witnesses to understand the situation, identify any injuries or threats, and evaluate the level of danger present. The interview helps law enforcement officers make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and well-being of the individuals involved.

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60. What type of nuclear inspection assesses a unit's ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment in compliance with applicable directives? 

Explanation

A Nuclear surety inspection (NSI) assesses a unit's ability to accomplish its assigned nuclear weapons mission and produce reliable nuclear weapons in a safe and secure environment in compliance with applicable directives. This type of inspection ensures that all necessary precautions and procedures are being followed to maintain the safety and security of nuclear weapons. It evaluates the unit's adherence to regulations, protocols, and guidelines related to nuclear weapons handling, storage, transportation, and maintenance. NSIs play a crucial role in maintaining the overall effectiveness and credibility of a nation's nuclear weapons program.

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61. Which crime prevention program allows some people to report their observations to police only when they know they can remain anonymous? 

Explanation

Operation crime stop is a crime prevention program that allows individuals to report their observations to the police while remaining anonymous. This program encourages people to provide information about criminal activities without fear of retaliation or exposure. By ensuring anonymity, Operation crime stop aims to increase the likelihood of individuals coming forward with valuable information, ultimately aiding in the prevention and detection of crimes.

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62. What does "Code Three" indicate when Security Forces personnel are making an emergency response? 

Explanation

When Security Forces personnel are making an emergency response, "Code Three" indicates the use of emergency lights and siren. This means that they are signaling to other drivers and pedestrians that they are responding to an emergency situation and need to have the right of way. The emergency lights and siren are used to alert others and ensure a safe and quick response. No emergency lights (option a) would mean that the response is not urgent, while the use of emergency lights only (option b) or the use of emergency lights, siren, and public address system (option d) would not accurately reflect the specific indication of "Code Three."

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63. How do you place a suspect on foot into the final challenge position?

Explanation

This answer is the correct one because it provides clear and specific commands for the suspect to follow in order to place them in the final challenge position. By raising their hands above their head, spreading their fingers, spreading their feet, and pointing their toes outward, the suspect is effectively immobilized and in a position that allows for easy monitoring and control. This command ensures the safety of law enforcement personnel and allows for further direction to be given by BDOC (Base Defense Operations Center) for the disposition of the individual.

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64. When conducting a search of an individual, for quickness, your search should be

Explanation

When conducting a search of an individual, it is important to be systematic and thorough. Being systematic means following a structured and organized approach to ensure that no information is missed or overlooked. Being thorough means conducting a comprehensive search, considering all relevant sources and gathering as much information as possible. This combination of being systematic and thorough helps to ensure that the search is efficient and effective, allowing for a comprehensive understanding of the individual being searched.

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65. The use of the riot baton is based on whose appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option? 

Explanation

The use of the riot baton is based on the commander's appraisal of the situation and his or her choice of force option. The commander is responsible for assessing the overall situation and determining the appropriate level of force to be used. They have the authority to make decisions regarding the use of riot batons and other force options based on their evaluation of the circumstances.

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66. Only personnel certified through what program or the host-nation equivalent at a Weapons Storage and Security System (WS3) installations can be permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas or can perform escort duties within exclusion areas? 

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program (PRP). This program certifies personnel who can be trusted and relied upon to handle nuclear weapons safely and securely. Only those certified through the PRP or the host-nation equivalent are allowed unescorted entry into exclusion areas or can perform escort duties within exclusion areas. The PRP ensures that individuals with access to nuclear weapons are reliable, trustworthy, and have undergone thorough background checks and ongoing evaluations to maintain their certification.

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67. Speed measuring devices are used to control speed, increase compliance with traffic laws, and 

Explanation

Speed measuring devices are used to control speed and increase compliance with traffic laws by conducting speed studies. These studies help gather data on vehicle speeds in specific areas, which can then be used to assess the effectiveness of current speed limits and determine if any adjustments need to be made. This information is valuable for traffic planning and enforcement purposes, but it does not involve issuing citations or training new Security Forces members. Additionally, complying with the installation commander's orders is a separate matter that may not necessarily be related to speed studies.

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68. What happens to the original copy of AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, once you have completed it? 

Explanation

Once the AF Form 75, Visitor/Vehicle Pass, has been completed, it is given to the individual.

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69. You use the DD Form 2708, Receipt for Pre-Trial/Post-Trial Prisoner or Detained Person, when 

Explanation

The DD Form 2708, Receipt for Pre-Trial/Post-Trial Prisoner or Detained Person, is used when Security Forces personnel are releasing an individual who has been detained or apprehended. This form is used to document the release of the individual and to ensure that there is a record of their custody and release. It is specifically designed for use by Security Forces personnel, indicating that they are the correct party to use this form when releasing a detained or apprehended individual.

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70. From whom must you obtain approval before disposing of crime scene evidence? 

Explanation

Before disposing of crime scene evidence, approval must be obtained from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). The SJA is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance to the military command, including matters related to criminal investigations and evidence handling. They ensure that proper legal procedures are followed and that the disposal of evidence is done in compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

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71. What agency has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm? 

Explanation

The Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) has primary jurisdiction for serious child abuse or neglect involving infliction of serious bodily harm. AFOSI is responsible for conducting criminal investigations and providing specialized investigative services in support of the Air Force and the Department of Defense. They have the expertise and resources to handle cases involving serious bodily harm to children and are trained to handle such sensitive situations. The other options, such as the Family Advocacy Officer (FAO), the Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI), and the Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC), may have roles in addressing child abuse or neglect, but they do not have primary jurisdiction for cases involving serious bodily harm.

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72. What is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another, whether successful or not, provided the target is aware of the danger? 

Explanation

Assault is defined as a threat or attempt to strike another person, whether successful or not, as long as the target is aware of the danger. It does not require physical contact or harm to occur, only the intention and awareness of the threat. Aggravated Assault involves more serious or dangerous circumstances, while Simple Assault refers to less severe forms of physical harm. Battery, on the other hand, involves the actual physical contact or harm inflicted upon another person. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is c. Assault.

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73. What type of crowd is identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together? 

Explanation

Casual crowds are identified as individuals or small groups with nothing in common to bind them together. They come together by chance and do not have a specific purpose or goal. Unlike other types of crowds, such as agitated or mob-like crowds, casual crowds do not exhibit any strong emotions or collective behavior. They are simply a gathering of people who happen to be in the same place at the same time, without any significant connection or shared interest.

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74. What security team is routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team, provides security for a penetrated launch facility (LF), and establishes site security? 

Explanation

The Security Escort Team (SET) is the correct answer because they are responsible for providing security for a penetrated launch facility (LF) and establishing site security. They are routinely dispatched with a missile maintenance team to ensure the safety and protection of the facility. The other options, Alert Fire Team (AFT), Mobile Fire Team (MFT), and Camper Alert Team (CAT), do not specifically mention these responsibilities and are therefore not the correct answer.

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75. Who can make a judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties? 

Explanation

The certifying official is responsible for making a judgment on the reliability of each individual identified for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) duties. This individual has the authority to assess the trustworthiness and dependability of personnel and determine if they meet the necessary requirements to perform PRP duties. The certifying official is typically a higher-ranking officer or official who has the knowledge and expertise to make informed decisions regarding personnel reliability.

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76. Which type of lighting is a low illumination light used in nuclear restricted areas? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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77. How do you accomplish a double abreast position during a high-risk traffic stop? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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78. Which agency assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories?

Explanation

The Department of Justice (DOJ) assumes lead responsibilities for terrorist and high-risk incidents within US territories. The DOJ is responsible for enforcing federal laws and prosecuting those who violate them. They have various agencies under their jurisdiction, such as the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which specializes in counterterrorism efforts. The DOJ's role in handling terrorist and high-risk incidents is crucial in maintaining national security and protecting the American people.

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79. Who uses section VII, administrative disposition, of AF Form 3545, Incident Report? 

Explanation

Section VII, administrative disposition, of AF Form 3545, Incident Report is used by the Security Forces Reports & Analyses. This section of the form is specifically designed for the Security Forces to document their analysis and recommendations regarding the incident in question. It helps them to evaluate the incident, identify any potential security issues, and propose appropriate administrative actions to be taken. The Security Forces Reports & Analyses department plays a crucial role in reviewing and assessing incident reports, ensuring the necessary actions are taken to maintain the security and safety of the organization.

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80. What is the level of force necessary to compel a subject's compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death?

Explanation

The level of force necessary to compel a subject's compliance and is neither likely nor intended to cause death is referred to as intermediate use of force. This level of force is typically used when a subject is resistant but not posing an immediate threat to the safety of others or themselves. It is a step above minimum use of force but falls short of maximum use of force, which could potentially cause serious harm or death. Transitional use of force is not a term commonly used in this context.

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81. Which Force Protection (FP) measure is taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations? 

Explanation

The force protection measure taken to render a threat or hazard incapable of interfering with AF operations is to negate it. This means taking actions to neutralize or eliminate the threat or hazard, making it ineffective and unable to cause any harm or disruption to the operations. This could involve implementing security measures, deploying countermeasures, or taking proactive steps to prevent the threat from materializing.

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82. What type of electronic sensor must consist of an approved balanced magnetic switch or other type of sensor capable of detecting intrusions at the opening? 

Explanation

An electronic sensor that consists of a balanced magnetic switch or another type of sensor capable of detecting intrusions at the opening is known as point detection. Point detection sensors are designed to detect the presence or absence of an object at a specific point or location. They are commonly used in security systems to detect unauthorized entry or intrusion at a specific opening such as a door or window.

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83.   What should not be confused with rules of engagement (ROE) during peacetime operations within a US territory?

Explanation

During peacetime operations within a US territory, the rules for use of force should not be confused with the rules of engagement (ROE). The rules of engagement outline the circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, while the rules for use of force provide specific guidelines and procedures for how that force should be used. While closely related, these two concepts are distinct and should not be mistaken for one another.

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84. Once completed, who is given the second copy of the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag? 

Explanation

The second copy of the AF Form 52, Evidence Tag, is given to the person relinquishing possession of the property. This is because they are responsible for providing accurate information about the property being collected or obtained. The second copy serves as a record for them to keep for their own reference or for any future inquiries or investigations regarding the property. The other options, such as the person who obtained or collected the property, the property custodian, or the chief investigator, may have their own copies or records of the evidence, but the second copy of the AF Form 52 specifically goes to the person relinquishing possession.

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85. In how many copies is the AF Form 1109, Visitor Registration Log, prepared? 

Explanation

The AF Form 1109, Visitor Registration Log, is prepared in one copy. This means that only one copy of the form is filled out and kept for record-keeping purposes. There is no need for multiple copies of the form to be prepared.

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86. How often must the approving authority review all permanent security deviations? 

Explanation

The approving authority must review all permanent security deviations every year. This ensures that any changes or updates to security measures can be implemented in a timely manner. Reviewing deviations annually allows for regular assessment of the effectiveness of the security protocols and helps to maintain a high level of security within the organization.

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87. What form is used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels? 

Explanation

AF Form 116 is the correct answer because it is the form used to document security deviation and is submitted through command channels. The other options, AF Form 1315, DD Form 1805, and DD Form 2708, are not specifically used for documenting security deviation or submitted through command channels.

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88. What concept was designed to prevent a lone individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function? 

Explanation

Split knowledge is a concept designed to prevent a lone individual from having complete knowledge of the entire nuclear weapons launch function. This means that different individuals are given different pieces of information and no single person has all the necessary knowledge to launch the weapons independently. This system is implemented to ensure accountability and prevent unauthorized or accidental use of nuclear weapons.

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89. What community policing philosophy helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood? 

Explanation

Greater community voice in setting police priorities helps improve the overall quality of life in a neighborhood by fostering a sense of ownership and collaboration between the community and the police. When the community has a say in determining the priorities of law enforcement, it ensures that the police focus on addressing the specific needs and concerns of the community. This approach promotes trust, transparency, and accountability, leading to more effective and targeted policing strategies that can effectively address crime and improve the overall safety and well-being of the neighborhood.

Submit
90. How long must you observe a person before collecting a breath specimen? 

Explanation

It is necessary to observe a person for at least 20 minutes before collecting a breath specimen. This is because during this time, the person should not have eaten, smoked, or consumed any substances that could affect the accuracy of the breath test. Additionally, observing the person for 20 minutes ensures that they have not regurgitated or vomited, which could also impact the reliability of the breath test results.

Submit
91. Who is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice? 

Explanation

The Defense Force Commander is the only person authorized to void the DD Form 1805, United States District Court Violation Notice. This implies that the Defense Force Commander holds the highest level of authority and responsibility in this matter.

Submit
92. What are the two types of removal within the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP)? 

Explanation

The two types of removal within the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) are suspension and decertification. Suspension refers to the temporary removal of an individual from PRP duties, while decertification is the permanent removal of an individual from PRP.

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93. Which term defines a designated area immediately surrounding one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems? 

Explanation

An exclusion area is a designated area immediately surrounding one or more nuclear weapons and/or systems where access is restricted or prohibited. This term is used to ensure the safety and security of the nuclear weapons and to prevent unauthorized access or potential accidents.

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94. What type of search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle?

Explanation

A simple search consists of searching all areas of a vehicle without disassembling any part of the vehicle. This means that the search is conducted by visually inspecting the vehicle and its compartments, without the need to take anything apart or dismantle any components. It is a straightforward and non-invasive method of searching a vehicle.

Submit
95. The AF Form 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data is used to record 

Explanation

The AF Form 3907, Security Forces Field Interview Data is used to record routine contact between Security Force members and members of the public. This suggests that the form is not specifically designed for interviews with suspects or complainants, or for emergency contacts. Instead, it is intended for documenting interactions that occur during regular, non-emergency encounters between Security Force members and the public.

Submit
96. What are the four phases of the judicial process in which you must brief all victims and witnesses on in the victim/witness assistance program? 

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Response, investigation, prosecution, and confinement. In the victim/witness assistance program, it is important to brief all victims and witnesses on these four phases of the judicial process. The response phase involves immediate actions taken by law enforcement and first responders. The investigation phase involves gathering evidence and conducting interviews. The prosecution phase involves presenting the case in court. The confinement phase involves the incarceration or supervision of the offender.

Submit
97. Who ensures that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft? 

Explanation

Couriers ensure that the host installation meets Two-Person Concept (TPC) requirements and no-lone zones are delineated around nuclear logistics aircraft. They are responsible for transporting sensitive materials and ensuring that proper security measures are in place. Couriers play a crucial role in maintaining the safety and security of nuclear logistics operations by ensuring that the TPC is followed and no-lone zones are established to prevent unauthorized access to the aircraft.

Submit
98. When you write a well-written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, this report fulfills the characteristic of being 

Explanation

When you write a well-written incident report that answers the six basic questions of who, what, when, where, why, and how, this report fulfills the characteristic of being complete. By addressing all the essential aspects of the incident, including the individuals involved, the details of the event, the timing, the location, the reasons behind it, and the manner in which it occurred, the report provides a comprehensive and thorough account of the incident. This ensures that all relevant information is included, leaving no gaps or missing pieces in the report.

Submit
99. Up to how many persons can be escorted inside an exclusion area per escort official? 

Explanation

An exclusion area is a restricted zone that requires an escort official to accompany individuals inside. The question asks how many persons can be escorted by one official. The correct answer is b. 6. This means that each escort official is responsible for escorting up to 6 persons inside the exclusion area.

Submit
100. How many sections does the AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant, have? 

Explanation

The AF Form 1168, Statement of Suspect/Witness/Complainant, has 6 sections.

Submit
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