Z3D153 - 2016 Edit Code 3, Volume 1 Part 4
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RF Transmissions Journeyman CDCs. Split up 20 questions at a time.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?
- A.
Multimode graded-index fiber.
- B.
Multimode step index fiber.
- C.
Unshielded twisted pair.
- D.
Single mode fiber.
Correct Answer
D. Single mode fiber.Explanation
Single mode fiber is the hardest to splice because it has a smaller core diameter compared to multimode fibers. This smaller core size makes it more difficult to align the fibers properly during the splicing process. Additionally, single mode fibers have a higher bandwidth and are designed for long-distance communication, which requires more precise and accurate splicing techniques.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a
- A.
Pigtail.
- B.
Jumper.
- C.
Patch cord.
- D.
Breakout cables.
Correct Answer
C. Patch cord.Explanation
A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a patch cord. A patch cord is used to connect devices or components in a network or telecommunications system. It is typically used to connect equipment such as computers, switches, routers, or servers to a patch panel or another networking device. The connectors at each end of the patch cord allow for easy and quick connection and disconnection of devices, making it a convenient solution for temporary or permanent connections.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?
- A.
Trunks.
- B.
Frames.
- C.
Links.
- D.
Ports.
Correct Answer
A. Trunks.Explanation
Trunks allow transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link. A trunk is a point-to-point link that carries multiple VLANs, allowing for efficient use of network resources. By tagging frames with VLAN information, switches can differentiate and forward traffic for different VLANs over the trunk. This enables the transmission of VLAN traffic between switches without the need for separate physical links for each VLAN.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
- A.
Bridge.
- B.
Router.
- C.
Gateway.
- D.
Repeater.
Correct Answer
B. Router.Explanation
A router is a device that has multiport connectivity and is responsible for directing data between nodes on a network. It is designed to analyze the destination address of incoming data packets and determine the best path for them to reach their intended destination. Routers are commonly used in home and office networks to connect multiple devices and enable communication between them. Unlike bridges, gateways, and repeaters, routers have the ability to make intelligent routing decisions based on network protocols and can connect networks with different protocols.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which routing protocol do Internet backbones use?
- A.
Open shortest path first (OSPF).
- B.
Border gateway protocol (BGP).
- C.
Routing information protocol (RIP).
- D.
Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP).
Correct Answer
B. Border gateway protocol (BGP).Explanation
Internet backbones use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as their routing protocol. BGP is designed to exchange routing and reachability information among autonomous systems (AS) on the Internet. It allows routers in different ASs to exchange information about the best paths for routing traffic between them. BGP is crucial for maintaining the stability and scalability of the Internet backbone, as it enables efficient and reliable routing across multiple networks. OSPF, RIP, and EIGRP are also routing protocols, but they are typically used within individual networks or autonomous systems, rather than at the backbone level.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
- A.
Department of Defense network.
- B.
Air Force network.
- C.
Local area network.
- D.
Public network.
Correct Answer
D. Public network.Explanation
VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. A virtual private network creates a secure and encrypted connection over a public network, such as the internet. This enables the AF to securely access and utilize network resources from remote locations, while maintaining the privacy and confidentiality of the data being transmitted. By using a VPN, the AF can securely connect to resources on a public network as if they were directly connected to a private network.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
- A.
Manages data transfer across the tunnel.
- B.
Encrypts and decrypts data.
- C.
Establishes tunnels.
- D.
Encapsulates data.
Correct Answer
D. Encapsulates data.Explanation
A virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs several functions to ensure secure and efficient communication. It manages data transfer across the tunnel, encrypts and decrypts data to protect it from unauthorized access, and establishes tunnels to create a secure connection between the user and the network. However, encapsulating data is not a function of a VPN concentrator. Encapsulation refers to the process of adding headers and trailers to data packets to ensure proper routing and delivery, which is typically performed by network devices such as routers or switches.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames?
- A.
Pixel.
- B.
Buffer.
- C.
Keyframe.
- D.
Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm.
Correct Answer
D. Compression and decompression (codec) algorithm.Explanation
Video compression circuits use compression and decompression (codec) algorithms to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames. These algorithms analyze the video data and apply various techniques to reduce the file size while maintaining acceptable video quality. By examining the differences between frames, the codec algorithm can identify areas of high and low change, allowing for efficient compression and decompression of the video data.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for
- A.
Future growth.
- B.
Network security.
- C.
Remote monitoring.
- D.
Network contingencies.
Correct Answer
A. Future growth.Explanation
SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. It allows administrators to monitor and gather data about network devices, such as routers and switches, and provides valuable information for capacity planning and resource allocation. By understanding the current network performance and usage, administrators can make informed decisions about future network expansion and upgrades to accommodate the growing needs of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command?
- A.
Write.
- B.
Read.
- C.
Trap.
- D.
Get.
Correct Answer
D. Get.Explanation
The SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to manage and monitor network devices. The basic SNMP commands include Write, Read, and Trap. "Get" is also a basic SNMP command, used to retrieve specific information from a network device. Therefore, the correct answer is "Get" as it is a basic SNMP command.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?
- A.
Token.
- B.
Biometrics.
- C.
Multifactor.
- D.
Knowledge-based.
Correct Answer
B. Biometrics.Explanation
Biometrics is the correct answer because it is the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics refers to the use of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or voice recognition, to verify and authenticate an individual's identity. By scanning and matching an individual's fingerprint, biometric systems can provide a high level of security and accuracy in user authentication.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?
- A.
Virus.
- B.
Spam.
- C.
Spyware.
- D.
Phishing.
Correct Answer
B. Spam.Explanation
Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and irrelevant messages. While it can be disruptive and time-consuming, spam typically does not directly harm or compromise the security of a system or user's personal information. On the other hand, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are specifically designed to infiltrate systems, steal data, or cause damage. Therefore, spam is generally seen as a nuisance rather than a direct threat to security.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?
- A.
Patches.
- B.
Antivirus.
- C.
Software removal.
- D.
Vulnerability scanner.
Correct Answer
A. Patches.Explanation
A patch is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. It is designed to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security of the software. Patches are regularly released by software developers to address any bugs or security issues that may have been discovered since the release of the original software. They are an important preventive measure in ensuring the integrity and security of a program.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?
- A.
Data encryption.
- B.
Virtual private network.
- C.
Uninterruptible power supply.
- D.
Network management system.
Correct Answer
C. Uninterruptible power supply.Explanation
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a physical security implementation that ensures continuous operation of critical network equipment. It provides a backup power source in the event of a power outage or fluctuation, preventing any disruption in the operation of the equipment. This ensures that the network remains functional and accessible even during power failures, protecting against potential data loss or downtime.Rate this question:
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- 15.
In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling the
- A.
Console port.
- B.
Auxiliary port.
- C.
Interface ports.
- D.
Virtual terminal ports.
Correct Answer
B. Auxiliary port.Explanation
Denying direct dial-in access to a network device is a security measure to prevent unauthorized access. The console port is typically used for local management and configuration of the device, so disabling it would hinder legitimate administrative tasks. Interface ports are essential for network connectivity, so disabling them would disrupt normal operations. Virtual terminal ports are used for remote management, so disabling them would prevent remote access. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for denying direct dial-in access is to disable the auxiliary port, which is commonly used for remote dial-in access.Rate this question:
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- 16.
When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?
- A.
Range.
- B.
Frequency.
- C.
Display hold.
- D.
Minimum/maximum.
Correct Answer
C. Display hold.Explanation
When using a multimeter, the display hold option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations. This feature allows the multimeter to freeze the reading on the display, allowing the user to easily read and record the measurement without being affected by any fluctuations that may be occurring. By selecting the display hold option, the user can ensure accurate readings even in unstable conditions.Rate this question:
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- 17.
When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
- A.
Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.
- B.
Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
- C.
Place the meter in the frequency mode.
- D.
Set the range for maximum reading.
Correct Answer
B. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.Explanation
When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person conducting the test and to prevent any potential damage to the circuit or the ohmmeter itself. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electric shock or short-circuiting is minimized, allowing for accurate and safe resistance measurements to be taken.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not?
- A.
Auto.
- B.
Norm.
- C.
Source.
- D.
External.
Correct Answer
A. Auto.Explanation
Auto triggering mode in an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, regardless of whether there is an input signal or not. This mode automatically adjusts the trigger level and time base to ensure that the waveform is always visible on the screen. It is useful when there is no stable or continuous input signal, as it allows for easy observation of noise or intermittent signals.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire?
- A.
Current.
- B.
Passive 1:1.
- C.
Passive divider, 1:10.
- D.
Active field effect transistor.
Correct Answer
B. Passive 1:1.Explanation
The correct answer is Passive 1:1. A passive 1:1 oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire. It does not have any active components or amplification circuitry. It is used to directly measure the voltage signal without any attenuation or amplification.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations?
- A.
Microprocessors.
- B.
Acquisition.
- C.
Memory.
- D.
Input.
Correct Answer
A. Microprocessors.Explanation
In a digital storage oscilloscope, the microprocessors are responsible for taking digitized samples from the input signal and performing various manipulations on the data. This includes measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations. The microprocessors play a crucial role in processing and analyzing the acquired data, allowing for accurate measurements and calculations.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Aug 08, 2024Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Nov 30, 2017Quiz Created by
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