Volume 3 CDC Unit Review Exercises (Ure)

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Volume 3 CDC Unit Review Exercises (Ure) - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Range cards are a record of

    • A.

      Range data

    • B.

      Firing data

    • C.

      Call signs

    • D.

      Training

    Correct Answer
    B. Firing data
    Explanation
    Range cards are a record of firing data. This means that they contain information about the firing of weapons, such as the distance, angle, and other relevant data needed to accurately aim and hit a target. Range cards are commonly used by military personnel to keep track of their firing data and ensure precision and effectiveness in their shooting. They are an essential tool for training and combat situations, allowing soldiers to refer to previous data and make necessary adjustments for improved accuracy.

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  • 2. 

    What does the acronym FPL stand for?

    • A.

      Final Protective Line

    • B.

      Fire Patrol Liaison

    • C.

      First Protective Line

    • D.

      Fire Proficiency Line

    Correct Answer
    A. Final Protective Line
    Explanation
    The acronym FPL stands for Final Protective Line. This term is commonly used in military and defense contexts to refer to a line of defense that is established as a last resort to protect a position from enemy attacks. The Final Protective Line is typically a predetermined point where heavy firepower is concentrated to repel any advancing enemy forces.

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  • 3. 

    Who assigns the final protective line (FPL) if the terrain supports grazing fire?

    • A.

      Your leader

    • B.

      Sector command post

    • C.

      Base Defense Operations Center

    • D.

      Person who prepares the range card

    Correct Answer
    A. Your leader
    Explanation
    In a situation where the terrain supports grazing fire, the responsibility of assigning the final protective line (FPL) falls on your leader. This is because the leader is in charge of making tactical decisions and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the unit. They have the knowledge and authority to assess the terrain, evaluate the grazing fire potential, and determine the appropriate placement of the FPL to provide maximum protection and firepower.

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  • 4. 

    What information should you include on the rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position?

    • A.

      Prominent natural and manmade features where there are likely targets

    • B.

      Prominent artificial terrain features that could be a likely target

    • C.

      Prominent manmade features that will be a definite target

    • D.

      Natural synthetic features only that could be a target

    Correct Answer
    A. Prominent natural and manmade features where there are likely targets
    Explanation
    When creating a rough sketch of the terrain in front of your firing position, it is important to include prominent natural and manmade features where there are likely targets. This information allows you to identify potential areas of interest or threats that may be present in the terrain. By including these features in your sketch, you can better assess the situation and make informed decisions regarding your firing position and potential targets.

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  • 5. 

    Targets in your primary area are labeled according to

    • A.

      Size

    • B.

      Threat

    • C.

      Location

    • D.

      Priority

    Correct Answer
    D. Priority
    Explanation
    Targets in your primary area are labeled according to their priority. This means that each target is assigned a level of importance or urgency based on certain criteria. By prioritizing targets, you can determine which ones require immediate attention or resources, and which ones can be addressed later. This allows for a more efficient allocation of resources and helps ensure that the most critical targets are addressed first.

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  • 6. 

    The main idea behind clearing fields of fire is to

    • A.

      Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon

    • B.

      Engage only those persons determined to be hostile

    • C.

      Engage predetermined targets in the area

    • D.

      Detect the enemy and notify the chief, security forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to observe and engage anyone within the field with your weapon. Clearing fields of fire involves ensuring that there are no obstructions or obstacles that could hinder the effective use of weapons. By observing and engaging anyone within the field, it ensures that potential threats are identified and neutralized, thus maintaining the safety and security of the area.

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  • 7. 

    WHEN CLEARING FIELDS OF FIRE, START AT YOUR POSITION AND WORK FORWARD AT LEAST HOW MANY METERS?

    • A.

      15

    • B.

      35

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    B. 35
    Explanation
    When clearing fields of fire, it is recommended to start at your position and work forward at least 35 meters. This distance ensures that any potential obstacles or threats within that range are identified and cleared, allowing for a safer and more effective firing position. Starting at a closer distance, such as 15 meters, may not provide enough clearance, while starting at a longer distance, such as 75 or 100 meters, may be unnecessary and time-consuming. Therefore, 35 meters is the optimal distance to begin clearing fields of fire.

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  • 8. 

    What do you do with the material you clear from your field of fire?

    • A.

      Bury it

    • B.

      Camouflage your position

    • C.

      Use it as mulch in muddy areas

    • D.

      Take it to the drop off point behind your lines

    Correct Answer
    B. Camouflage your position
    Explanation
    When clearing material from your field of fire, the correct answer is to camouflage your position. This means that you should hide or disguise your location to make it more difficult for the enemy to detect or target you. By camouflaging your position, you are increasing your chances of remaining hidden and protected during combat operations.

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  • 9. 

    What is the maximum range of the M4 Carbine for a point target?

    • A.

      900 meters

    • B.

      600 meters

    • C.

      500 meters

    • D.

      250 meters

    Correct Answer
    C. 500 meters
    Explanation
    The maximum range of the M4 Carbine for a point target is 500 meters. This means that the M4 Carbine is designed to effectively engage and hit a specific target at a distance of up to 500 meters. Beyond this range, the accuracy and effectiveness of the weapon may decrease significantly.

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  • 10. 

    What is the maximum range of the M4 Carbine for an area target?

    • A.

      900 meters

    • B.

      600 meters

    • C.

      500 meters

    • D.

      250 meters

    Correct Answer
    B. 600 meters
    Explanation
    The maximum range of the M4 Carbine for an area target is 600 meters. This means that the rifle is capable of effectively engaging and hitting targets within a range of up to 600 meters. This range allows for accurate and precise shooting at medium distances, making the M4 Carbine a versatile weapon for various combat scenarios.

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  • 11. 

    What is the function of the forward assist?

    • A.

      Unlock the bolt

    • B.

      Lock the bolt forward

    • C.

      Lock the bolt and secure the charging handle

    • D.

      Unlock bolt during remedial action procedures

    Correct Answer
    B. Lock the bolt forward
    Explanation
    The forward assist is a feature on firearms, typically found on rifles, that allows the user to manually push the bolt forward and ensure that it is fully locked into battery. This can be useful in situations where the bolt does not fully close due to dirt, debris, or other malfunctions. By engaging the forward assist, the user can ensure that the bolt is securely locked forward, allowing for proper functioning of the firearm.

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  • 12. 

    When should you conduct a function check of your weapon?

    • A.

      Every six months

    • B.

      Just prior to firing

    • C.

      Whenever you reassemble it

    • D.

      Only armory personnel perform function checks

    Correct Answer
    C. Whenever you reassemble it
    Explanation
    Whenever you reassemble your weapon, you should conduct a function check. This is important because when you disassemble and reassemble your weapon, there is a possibility that something may have been done incorrectly or not put back together properly. Conducting a function check ensures that all components are functioning correctly and that the weapon is safe to use. It is a crucial step in ensuring the reliability and effectiveness of the weapon.

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  • 13. 

    While performing preventative maintenance checks and services, which rail adapter assembly (RAS) can the user remove?

    • A.

      Right

    • B.

      Left

    • C.

      Lower

    • D.

      Upper

    Correct Answer
    C. Lower
    Explanation
    The user can remove the lower rail adapter assembly (RAS) while performing preventative maintenance checks and services.

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  • 14. 

    What accessories can be mounted on the bottom rail of the M4 Rail Adapter System?

    • A.

      Rear sight post

    • B.

      Front sight post

    • C.

      All accessories can be mounted on the bottom rail

    • D.

      Only accessories that do not require zero retention

    Correct Answer
    D. Only accessories that do not require zero retention
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Only accessories that do not require zero retention." This means that only accessories that do not need to be adjusted or zeroed in can be mounted on the bottom rail of the M4 Rail Adapter System. Accessories that require zero retention would need to be mounted on a different rail or attachment point.

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  • 15. 

    What rail must be removed first before installing the pistol grip?

    • A.

      Pistol grip lock

    • B.

      Top rail assembly

    • C.

      Left rail/slide assembly

    • D.

      Rail cover/heat shield

    Correct Answer
    D. Rail cover/heat shield
    Explanation
    The rail cover/heat shield must be removed first before installing the pistol grip. This is because the pistol grip is typically attached to the lower rail of the firearm, and the rail cover/heat shield is located above it. Removing the rail cover/heat shield allows for access to the lower rail and enables the installation of the pistol grip.

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  • 16. 

    What is the standard round for the M4 series weapon?

    • A.

      M855 Ball

    • B.

      M862 SRTA

    • C.

      M199 Dummy

    • D.

      M200 Ball

    Correct Answer
    A. M855 Ball
    Explanation
    The standard round for the M4 series weapon is the M855 Ball.

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  • 17. 

    The Air Force's primary use for the 5.56mm frangible cartridge is training

    • A.

      In frigid conditions

    • B.

      In ranges with sandy surfaces

    • C.

      For its accuracy, precision, and capability

    • D.

      On ranges with strict surface danger zone restrictions

    Correct Answer
    D. On ranges with strict surface danger zone restrictions
    Explanation
    The Air Force uses the 5.56mm frangible cartridge primarily on ranges with strict surface danger zone restrictions. This suggests that the cartridge is specifically designed to minimize the risk of ricochets or fragments causing damage or injury outside of the designated range area. Using this cartridge allows the Air Force to conduct training exercises safely and effectively within the confines of these restricted ranges.

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  • 18. 

    What is the maximum range for the M9 Pistol?

    • A.

      600 meters

    • B.

      800 meters

    • C.

      1100 meters

    • D.

      1800 meters

    Correct Answer
    D. 1800 meters
    Explanation
    The M9 Pistol has a maximum range of 1800 meters. This means that the pistol can accurately hit a target up to 1800 meters away. The range of a firearm is determined by factors such as the bullet's velocity, trajectory, and the accuracy of the shooter. The M9 Pistol is known for its effective range and accuracy, making it a reliable weapon for engagements at longer distances.

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  • 19. 

    The front sight of the M9 Pistol is

    • A.

      Adjustable

    • B.

      Elevated

    • C.

      Fixed

    • D.

      Open

    Correct Answer
    C. Fixed
    Explanation
    The front sight of the M9 Pistol is fixed, meaning it is permanently attached and cannot be adjusted or moved. This type of sight is common in firearms and provides a consistent point of reference for aiming. Unlike adjustable sights, fixed sights do not require any changes or fine-tuning, making them simple and reliable for users.

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  • 20. 

    When the slide is fully forward, what is the first step in the immediate actions procedures for the M9 Pistol?

    • A.

      Remove magazine and retract the slide

    • B.

      Clear/unload the pistol and turn it in for repair

    • C.

      Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the fire(up) position

    • D.

      Pull the slide to the rear, release the slide, and attempt the reload

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure the decocking/safety lever is in the fire(up) position
    Explanation
    The first step in the immediate actions procedures for the M9 Pistol when the slide is fully forward is to ensure that the decocking/safety lever is in the fire (up) position. This is important because it ensures that the pistol is ready to be fired and that the safety is disengaged. This step should be taken before attempting any other actions such as removing the magazine or retracting the slide.

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  • 21. 

    Cleaner, lubricant, preservative (CLP) or lubricating oil, semi-fluid (LSA) are used on what part(s) of the M( Pistol to prevent rusting?

    • A.

      Aluminum

    • B.

      Rubber

    • C.

      Plastic

    • D.

      Steel

    Correct Answer
    D. Steel
    Explanation
    CLP or LSA is used on the steel parts of the M( Pistol to prevent rusting. This is because steel is prone to rust and corrosion when exposed to moisture or humidity. By applying a cleaner, lubricant, preservative or lubricating oil on the steel parts, it forms a protective barrier that prevents moisture from reaching the surface and causing rust. This helps to maintain the integrity and functionality of the steel components of the pistol.

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  • 22. 

    What is the standard cartridge used with the M9 Pistol?

    • A.

      M855

    • B.

      M856

    • C.

      M882

    • D.

      M917

    Correct Answer
    C. M882
    Explanation
    The standard cartridge used with the M9 Pistol is the M882.

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  • 23. 

    Which M9 Pistol ammunition round is restricted to law enforcement use?

    • A.

      MK243 MOD 0

    • B.

      M917 dummy round

    • C.

      M882 ball, with cannelure

    • D.

      M882 ball, without cannelure

    Correct Answer
    A. MK243 MOD 0
    Explanation
    The MK243 MOD 0 ammunition round is restricted to law enforcement use.

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  • 24. 

    The M203 is classified as what type of weapon?

    • A.

      Anti-aircraft

    • B.

      Anti-armor

    • C.

      Crew served

    • D.

      Anti-personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Anti-personnel
    Explanation
    The M203 is classified as an anti-personnel weapon. This type of weapon is designed to target and engage enemy personnel, rather than aircraft, armor, or requiring multiple crew members to operate. The M203 is a single-shot, breech-loaded, pump-action grenade launcher that can be attached to a variety of rifles. It is primarily used to launch explosive grenades at enemy personnel, making it an effective anti-personnel weapon.

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  • 25. 

    In meters, what is the maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging a fire-team sized area target?

    • A.

      400

    • B.

      350

    • C.

      250

    • D.

      150

    Correct Answer
    A. 400
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the M203 when engaging a fire-team sized area target is 400 meters. This means that the M203 can accurately engage and hit targets within a radius of 400 meters, making it an effective weapon for engaging a group of enemy combatants.

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  • 26. 

    WHEN THE M203 FAILS TO FIRE DURING TRAINING, HOW MANY SECONDS SHOULD YOU WAIT BEFORE OPENING THE BARREL ASSEMBLY?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      20

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      40

    Correct Answer
    C. 30
    Explanation
    When the M203 fails to fire during training, it is important to wait for 30 seconds before opening the barrel assembly. This waiting period allows for the possibility of a delayed ignition or a hang fire, which means that the round may still fire after a short delay. Opening the barrel assembly too soon could result in a dangerous situation if the round detonates unexpectedly. Therefore, it is crucial to exercise caution and wait for the appropriate amount of time before taking any further action.

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  • 27. 

    What is the kill radius for an M406, high-explosive round?

    • A.

      5 meters

    • B.

      10 meters

    • C.

      15 meters

    • D.

      20 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 meters
    Explanation
    The kill radius for an M406 high-explosive round is 5 meters. This means that within a 5-meter radius of the explosion, the blast and fragmentation from the round are likely to cause lethal injuries to personnel or damage to structures. It is important to maintain a safe distance from the detonation to avoid being within this kill radius.

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  • 28. 

    Which M203 round is used to mark the location of personnel for others to see from the ground or the air?

    • A.

      White star cluster

    • B.

      Ground marker

    • C.

      Star parachute

    • D.

      High explosive

    Correct Answer
    B. Ground marker
    Explanation
    A ground marker is used to mark the location of personnel for others to see from the ground or the air. This is a specific type of M203 round that is designed to provide a visible signal to indicate the presence of personnel. It is commonly used in military operations or search and rescue missions to aid in locating individuals in need of assistance or to indicate safe zones. The ground marker round is not intended to cause harm or destruction, but rather to provide a clear visual indicator of a specific location.

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  • 29. 

    What is the danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203?

    • A.

      40 meters

    • B.

      30 meters

    • C.

      20 meters

    • D.

      10 meters

    Correct Answer
    C. 20 meters
    Explanation
    The danger radius for the M781 practice round used in the M203 is 20 meters. This means that within a 20-meter radius of the round's impact, there is a potential danger to personnel and equipment. It is important to maintain a safe distance from the impact area to prevent any harm or damage.

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  • 30. 

    What is the M249 AR maximum effective range for a point target using the bipod?

    • A.

      800 meters

    • B.

      600 meters

    • C.

      400 meters

    • D.

      200 meters

    Correct Answer
    B. 600 meters
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range for a point target using the bipod on the M249 AR is 600 meters. This means that the weapon is capable of effectively engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 600 meters when using the bipod for stability. The bipod provides additional support and helps to improve accuracy, allowing the shooter to engage targets at a greater distance compared to shooting without the bipod.

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  • 31. 

    When firing the M249 AR at a rapid rate of fire, how often must you change the barrel?

    • A.

      Every 2 minutes

    • B.

      Every 8 minutes

    • C.

      After 250 rounds

    • D.

      After 450 rounds

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 2 minutes
    Explanation
    When firing the M249 AR at a rapid rate of fire, the barrel heats up quickly, which can lead to reduced accuracy and potential damage to the weapon. Changing the barrel every 2 minutes helps to prevent overheating and maintain optimal performance.

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  • 32. 

    What assembly is the support for all major component on the M249 AR?

    • A.

      Slide

    • B.

      Receiver

    • C.

      Trigger mechanism

    • D.

      Return rod and transfer

    Correct Answer
    B. Receiver
    Explanation
    The receiver is the correct answer because it is the main body of the firearm that houses and supports all the major components of the M249 AR, including the slide, trigger mechanism, return rod, and transfer. It is responsible for providing stability and structural integrity to the weapon, allowing it to function properly.

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  • 33. 

    WHAT ARE THE M249 AR ELEVATION KNOB DRUM RANGE SETTINGS?

    • A.

      0-300 meters

    • B.

      100-500 meters

    • C.

      300-1000 meters

    • D.

      500-1500 meters

    Correct Answer
    C. 300-1000 meters
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 300-1000 meters. This range setting refers to the elevation knob drum settings for the M249 AR (Automatic Rifle). It means that the weapon is calibrated to accurately engage targets at distances ranging from 300 to 1000 meters.

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  • 34. 

    WHAT TYPE OF M249 AR AMMUNITION IS USED DURING MECHANICAL TRAINING, DRY-FIRE EXERCISES, AND FUNCTION CHECKS?

    • A.

      M199 Dummy

    • B.

      M200 Blank

    • C.

      M856 Tracer

    • D.

      M855 Ball

    Correct Answer
    A. M199 Dummy
    Explanation
    During mechanical training, dry-fire exercises, and function checks, M199 Dummy ammunition is used. This type of ammunition is specifically designed for these training purposes as it does not contain any live rounds or explosive components. It allows soldiers to practice and perform various drills without the risk of firing live ammunition.

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  • 35. 

    Which round is used during training to simulate live fire?

    • A.

      M193

    • B.

      M199

    • C.

      M200

    • D.

      M995

    Correct Answer
    C. M200
    Explanation
    The M200 round is used during training to simulate live fire.

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  • 36. 

    Which round has a gilding, metal-jacketed, lead alloy core bullet with a steel penetrator?

    • A.

      M855

    • B.

      M856

    • C.

      M995

    • D.

      M996

    Correct Answer
    A. M855
    Explanation
    The M855 round is the correct answer because it is the only option that matches the description of having a gilding, metal-jacketed, lead alloy core bullet with a steel penetrator. The other options do not have the same combination of materials and features.

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  • 37. 

    Ammunition is fed into the M240B from a

    • A.

      5-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic split link belt

    • B.

      100-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic split link belt

    • C.

      200-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic solid link belt

    • D.

      250-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic solid split link belt

    Correct Answer
    B. 100-round bandoleer, disintegrating metallic split link belt
    Explanation
    The M240B machine gun is fed ammunition from a 100-round bandoleer, which is a type of ammunition belt. The belt is made up of disintegrating metallic split link, meaning that the links of the belt separate and break apart as the ammunition is fed into the gun. This allows for smooth and continuous feeding of ammunition into the weapon. The 100-round bandoleer provides a sufficient amount of ammunition for sustained fire without being too heavy or cumbersome for the operator.

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  • 38. 

    What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target with tripod?

    • A.

      200 meters

    • B.

      400 meters

    • C.

      600 meters

    • D.

      800 meters

    Correct Answer
    D. 800 meters
    Explanation
    The M240B has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for a point target with tripod. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting a specific target at a distance of up to 800 meters when mounted on a tripod. It is important to note that the effective range may vary depending on factors such as weather conditions, target size, and shooter proficiency.

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  • 39. 

    When firing the M240B at a sustained rate of fire, you must change the barrel every

    • A.

      2 minutes

    • B.

      5 minutes

    • C.

      10 minutes

    • D.

      15 minutes

    Correct Answer
    C. 10 minutes
    Explanation
    When firing the M240B at a sustained rate of fire, the barrel heats up rapidly, leading to potential malfunctions and reduced accuracy. Changing the barrel every 10 minutes helps to prevent overheating and maintain the weapon's performance. This ensures that the barrel remains cool enough to continue firing effectively and reduces the risk of barrel damage or failure.

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  • 40. 

    When firing the M240B at a rapid rate of fire, you must change the barrel every

    • A.

      2 minutes

    • B.

      5 minutes

    • C.

      10 minutes

    • D.

      15 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 minutes
    Explanation
    When firing the M240B at a rapid rate of fire, the barrel becomes extremely hot due to the continuous firing. Changing the barrel every 2 minutes helps to prevent overheating and maintain the weapon's effectiveness. This frequent barrel change ensures that the weapon remains operational and avoids any potential malfunctions or damage caused by excessive heat buildup.

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  • 41. 

    How many ways can the M240B be loaded?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    The M240B can be loaded in two ways.

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  • 42. 

    How many steps does the M240B have in a cycle of operations?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    C. 8
    Explanation
    The M240B has 8 steps in a cycle of operations.

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  • 43. 

    What type of ammunition is used for observation of fire, incendiary effects, signaling, and training?

    • A.

      M82

    • B.

      M80

    • C.

      M62

    • D.

      M61

    Correct Answer
    C. M62
    Explanation
    The M62 ammunition is used for observation of fire, incendiary effects, signaling, and training.

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  • 44. 

    What type of ammunition is used against light materials and personnel and for range training?

    • A.

      M62

    • B.

      M80

    • C.

      M973

    • D.

      M993

    Correct Answer
    B. M80
    Explanation
    M80 is the correct answer because it is a type of ammunition that is commonly used against light materials and personnel, as well as for range training. It is a 7.62x51mm NATO round that is primarily used in rifles and machine guns. The M80 round is known for its versatility and effectiveness in engaging targets at medium ranges. It is designed to provide a balance between stopping power and controllability, making it suitable for engaging both light materials and personnel. Additionally, it is commonly used for range training purposes due to its availability and affordability.

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  • 45. 

    Which weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing?

    • A.

      M240B

    • B.

      M249

    • C.

      M780

    • D.

      MK19

    Correct Answer
    D. MK19
    Explanation
    The MK19 weapon features a barrel that does not overheat, even after prolonged firing.

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  • 46. 

    WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM EFFECTIVE RANGE OF THE MK19 FOR AN AREA TARGET?

    • A.

      1000 meters

    • B.

      1500 meters

    • C.

      1912 meters

    • D.

      2212 meters

    Correct Answer
    D. 2212 meters
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the MK19 for an area target is 2212 meters. This means that the weapon can accurately engage and hit targets within this distance.

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  • 47. 

    WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM EFFECTIVE RANGE OF THE MK19 FOR A POINT TARGET?

    • A.

      1000 meters

    • B.

      1500 meters

    • C.

      1312 meters

    • D.

      2212 meters

    Correct Answer
    B. 1500 meters
    Explanation
    The maximum effective range of the MK19 for a point target is 1500 meters. This means that the weapon can accurately engage and hit a specific target at a distance of up to 1500 meters. The MK19 is a 40mm automatic grenade launcher commonly used by the military for providing fire support and suppressing enemy positions. Its range allows for effective engagement of targets at medium to long distances, making it a valuable asset in combat situations.

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  • 48. 

    Which tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19?

    • A.

      M1 tripod

    • B.

      M2 tripod

    • C.

      M3 tripod

    • D.

      M4 tripod

    Correct Answer
    C. M3 tripod
    Explanation
    The M3 tripod is the most often used gun mount for the MK19.

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  • 49. 

    Which ammunition is an inert training practice round with a propellant charge?

    • A.

      MK385A1

    • B.

      MK281

    • C.

      M918

    • D.

      M922

    Correct Answer
    A. MK385A1
    Explanation
    The MK385A1 is an inert training practice round with a propellant charge. This means that it is a type of ammunition that is used for training purposes and contains a propellant charge, which is the material that produces the force to propel the round. It is important to use inert training practice rounds during training to simulate real-life scenarios without the risk of causing harm or damage.

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  • 50. 

    What is the direct fire support maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun?

    • A.

      1830 meters

    • B.

      2240 meters

    • C.

      2550 meters

    • D.

      2760 meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 1830 meters
    Explanation
    The direct fire support maximum effective range of the M2, .50 caliber machine gun is 1830 meters. This means that the gun is most effective when used to engage targets within this range. It is important for operators to be aware of this range in order to effectively employ the weapon and engage targets at the appropriate distance.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 17, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Stephanie Ryan
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