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Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?"
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: "That will be £11:20"
ELSE
Say: "That will be £19:50"
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: "That will be £9:75"
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
A.
3
B.
4
C.
5
D.
6
Correct Answer
A. 3
Explanation The minimum number of tests needed is 3. This is because there are three questions that need to be asked: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?", "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?", and "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?". Each question has two possible answers, so the minimum number of tests needed to cover all combinations and replies is 3.
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2.
What is impact analysis?
Select one:
A.
The assessment of the impact of a change to the layers of development documentation,test documentation and components
B.
The process of assessing identified risks to estimate their impact and probability of occurrence.
C.
Testing the changes to an operational system or the impact of a changed environment to an operational system
D.
Testing of a previously tested program following modification.
Correct Answer
A. The assessment of the impact of a change to the layers of development documentation,test documentation and components
3.
You are working as a test manager. The project involves developing software for a customer
whihc is also the end-user. You are in charge of system test. One of the test suites your team
has run during system test is the acceptance test suite, which is based on the customer
requirements and contractually defined. The customer's most experienced users will run the
acceptance test suite on delivery. Final payment and acceptance of the software by the
customer is contingent on the successful completion of these tests. In a project meeting near
the end of the project, you report that 15 of the acceptance tests, about five percent of the
total number acceptance tests, failed. If you are asked in the meeting about why the team
should be concerned about th efailed tests, which of the following might be a reasonable reply?
Select one:
A.
"Oh, I'm sorry, I shouldn't have mentioned those tests and their status, as that's not appropriate test progress monitoring data."
B.
"All software should always be released completely defect-free, and this software does not meet that standard."
C.
"Depending on the customer's reaction to some of the bugs that affect those tests, we might have contractual problems with acceptance and final payment."
D.
"It doesn't matter, really, since the customer's will be satisfied as long 80% of the tests pass."
Correct Answer
C. "Depending on the customer's reaction to some of the bugs that affect those tests, we might have contractual problems with acceptance and final payment."
Explanation If the customer's most experienced users are running the acceptance test suite on delivery, and 15 of the acceptance tests have failed, there is a possibility that the customer may have a negative reaction to the bugs that affect those tests. This could lead to contractual problems with acceptance and final payment, as the successful completion of these tests is a condition for the customer's acceptance of the software and final payment. Therefore, it would be reasonable to be concerned about the failed tests and their potential impact on the project.
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4.
Consider the following factors:
I. Rolling out the tool incrementally
II. Adapating and improving processes to fit the tool
III.Providing training for new users
IV. Defining usage guidelines
V. Implementing to continuosulsy improve tool use
Which of the following statements is true ?
Select one:
A.
Factors I, III, IV, and V are important to successful deployment of a test tool, but II is not important
B.
Factors I, II, and III are important to successful deployment of a test tool, bu IV and V are not important.
C.
All these factors are important to successful deployment of a test tool
D.
Factor I is important to successful deployment of a test tool, but II, III, IV and V are not important
Correct Answer
C. All these factors are important to successful deployment of a test tool
Explanation The given answer states that all the factors mentioned (I, II, III, IV, and V) are important for the successful deployment of a test tool. This means that rolling out the tool incrementally, adapting and improving processes, providing training for new users, defining usage guidelines, and implementing continuous improvement are all crucial for the successful deployment of a test tool.
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5.
Consider the following excerpt from a defect report:
This is the third time this bug has come back.
Every time we hit this problem in test,it
costs us 3-5 person-hours of effort.Really,this is ridiculous.
You developers are Killing our productivity.
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
A.
This excerpt belongs in the incident description section of an IEEE 829 Incident Report.
B.
This excerpt belongs in an IEEE 829 test log,not an IEEE 829 incident report
C.
This excerpt does not conform to best practices in terms of tester/developer communications
D.
This excerpt belongs in the impact section of an IEEE 829 incident report
Correct Answer
C. This excerpt does not conform to best practices in terms of tester/developer communications
Explanation The excerpt does not conform to best practices in terms of tester/developer communications because it includes negative and unprofessional language towards the developers. It is important for testers and developers to maintain a respectful and collaborative communication to effectively address and resolve issues.
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6.
You are working as the manager of an independent test team.
At a project meeting, you are explaining the results of your testing so far.
You show the team that, while testing is proceeding productively,
it is taking a while to get some critical bugs and test failures resolved.
Another manager comments that he is concerned that the test team is
delaying the release of the software.
Which of the following is a drawback of independent testing illustrated by this manager's comment ?
Select one:
A.
The test team is isolated from the rest of the project team.
B.
Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased
C.
Independent testers can verify assumptions that other people made
D.
The test team is seen as responsible for the delays.
Correct Answer
D. The test team is seen as responsible for the delays.
Explanation The drawback of independent testing illustrated by this manager's comment is that the test team is seen as responsible for the delays. This implies that the manager perceives the independent test team as the cause of the delay in releasing the software. This suggests that there may be a lack of understanding or communication between the independent test team and the rest of the project team, leading to a perception of isolation and potential finger-pointing. It highlights the need for better collaboration and alignment between the test team and the rest of the project team to avoid such misconceptions.
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7.
Consider the following test levels discussed in the ISTQB Foundation syllabus 2005.
I.Component test
II.Integration test
III.System test
IV.Acceptance test
Which of these levels are explicitly discussed in the syllabus as benifiting from test design based on use case?
Select one:
A.
III only
B.
All four levels
C.
I,II and III Only
D.
II,III and IV Only
Correct Answer
D. II,III and IV Only
Explanation The correct answer is II, III and IV Only. The syllabus explicitly mentions that test design based on use cases can be beneficial for Integration test, System test, and Acceptance test. Component test is not mentioned as benefiting from use case-based test design.
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8.
What is data -driven automated test scripting?
Select one:
A.
A scripting technique that stores test input and expected results in a table or spreadsheet,so that a single control script can execute all of the tests in the table
B.
Data that exists(for example, in the database)before a test is executed and that affects or is affected by the component or system under test
C.
A statement of test objectives, and possibly test ideas on how to test
D.
A scripting technique that uses data files to contain not only test data and expected results,but also keywords related to the application being tested.
Correct Answer
A. A scripting technique that stores test input and expected results in a table or spreadsheet,so that a single control script can execute all of the tests in the table
Explanation Data-driven automated test scripting is a technique where test input and expected results are stored in a table or spreadsheet. This allows a single control script to execute all of the tests in the table, making the testing process more efficient and automated. By organizing the test data and expected results in a structured format, it becomes easier to manage and execute multiple tests with minimal effort.
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9.
Which of the following roles is not a role played in a typical formal review ?
Select one:
A.
Reviewer
B.
Author
C.
Business analyst
D.
Moderator
Correct Answer
C. Business analyst
Explanation In a typical formal review, the roles of Reviewer, Author, and Moderator are commonly played. The Reviewer is responsible for evaluating and providing feedback on the work, while the Author is the creator of the work being reviewed. The Moderator facilitates the review process and ensures that it is conducted effectively. However, the role of a Business Analyst is not typically involved in a formal review. Business Analysts are usually involved in analyzing and improving business processes, requirements gathering, and solution design, rather than reviewing specific work.
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10.
You are working on an e-commerce project. During the analysis portion of the test process, you
become conerned about possible slow response to customer requests when the system is under
ordinary load. Which of the following statements best describes the situation ?
Select one:
A.
You have identified a product risk that should be considered for testing.
B.
You have identified a project risk which is unlikely to affect testing.
C.
The application's performance will fail to meet requirements during testing
D.
Response time is not a quality attribute for e-commerce applications
Correct Answer
A. You have identified a product risk that should be considered for testing.
Explanation The given answer suggests that during the analysis portion of the test process, the concern about possible slow response to customer requests indicates a product risk that should be considered for testing. This means that there is a potential issue with the product's performance under ordinary load, which needs to be evaluated and addressed during the testing phase to ensure that it meets the required performance standards.
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11.
You are currently engaged in working as a test manager on a large project.
You anticipate a large number of defects in the system.What kind of tool support might be helpful to you a as a manger?
Select one:
A.
Test execution
B.
Static analysis
C.
Test comparator
D.
Incident management
Correct Answer
D. Incident management
Explanation As a test manager on a large project, anticipating a large number of defects in the system, incident management tool support would be helpful. Incident management tools assist in effectively capturing, tracking, and resolving defects or issues that arise during testing. These tools provide a centralized platform for managing and prioritizing incidents, assigning them to the appropriate team members, and tracking their progress until resolution. By using an incident management tool, the test manager can ensure that all defects are properly documented, addressed in a timely manner, and have clear visibility throughout the testing process.
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12.
Consider the following work products, test types, and test levels:
I System architecture design document
II. Use case document
III.Functional testing
IV. Structural testing
V. Integration testing
VI. Acceptance testing
Which of the following statements are true ?
Select one:
A.
I is not useful for IV during V; but II is useful for III during VI.
B.
II is useful for IV during V; I is useful for III during VI.
C.
I is useful for IV during V; II is useful for III during VI.
D.
II is useful for IV during V; but I is not useful for III during VI.
Correct Answer
B. II is useful for IV during V; I is useful for III during VI.
Explanation The statement "II is useful for IV during V; I is useful for III during VI" is true. This means that the Use case document (II) is helpful for conducting Structural testing (IV) during Integration testing (V). Additionally, the System architecture design document (I) is useful for conducting Functional testing (III) during Acceptance testing (VI).
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13.
What is error guessing ?
Select one:
A.
The process of intentionally adding known defects to those already in the component or system for the purpose of monitoring the rate of detection and removal, and estimating the number of remaining defects.
B.
The ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs.
C.
A test design technique where the experience of the tester is used to anticipate what defects might be present in the component or system under test as a result of errors made, and to design tests specifically to expose them.
D.
An informal test design technique where the tester actively controls the design of the tests as those tests are performed and uses information gained while testing to design new and better tests.
Correct Answer
C. A test design technique where the experience of the tester is used to anticipate what defects might be present in the component or system under test as a result of errors made, and to design tests specifically to expose them.
Explanation Error guessing is a test design technique that relies on the tester's experience to anticipate potential defects in the system or component under test. The tester uses their knowledge of common errors and mistakes made during development to design tests that specifically target and expose these defects. This technique is based on the assumption that experienced testers can accurately predict where errors are likely to occur and can design effective tests to uncover them. By intentionally trying to guess and expose potential defects, error guessing helps in identifying and addressing vulnerabilities in the system or component.
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14.
Consider the following:
I. Prevent defects
II. Remove defects
III.Gain confidence in the system
IV. Provide information
V. Find defects
Which of the following statements is true ?
Select one:
A.
I, II, III, and V are common test objective
B.
I, III, IV and V are common test objectives
C.
II and V are common test objectives
D.
All are common test objectives.
Correct Answer
B. I, III, IV and V are common test objectives
Explanation The correct answer is I, III, IV and V are common test objectives. This is because the objectives of testing include preventing defects, gaining confidence in the system, providing information, and finding defects. Removing defects is not necessarily a common test objective as it may not always be possible to remove all defects.
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15.
You are working on testing an e-learning application. A business analyst gives you a document
that describes the most common user scenarios. You would use this document to create what
kind of tests ?
Select one:
A.
Structure-based test
B.
Experience-based test
C.
Specification-based tests
D.
Component tests
Correct Answer
C. Specification-based tests
Explanation The document provided by the business analyst describes the most common user scenarios. This suggests that the document contains specific requirements and specifications for the e-learning application. Therefore, you would use this document to create specification-based tests, which are designed to verify that the application meets the specified requirements and performs as expected in various scenarios.
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16.
A tester is performing a test.She notices an unusual amount of network access during a period
when she knows the application should not be accessing the network.Even though the test does
not specify comparing actual network access to an expect result,She decides to investigate.This
is an example of what?
Select one:
A.
A tester's curious mindset.
B.
A tester performing exhaustive testing.
C.
A tester's effective communication with development.
D.
A tester performing maintenance testing.
Correct Answer
A. A tester's curious mindset.
Explanation The tester's decision to investigate the unusual network access, even though it was not specified in the test, demonstrates their curious mindset. They are curious about why the application is accessing the network when it shouldn't be and want to investigate further to understand the cause behind it. This shows their proactive approach to testing and their desire to uncover potential issues or anomalies that may impact the application's performance or functionality.
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17.
Consider the following excerpt from a bug report:
To recreate the failure, we used test fileTS0ITCO72.dat,
Which is available in the shared test directory.
Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?
Select one:
A.
Provides test leaders with information to report test progress
B.
Provides idea for test process improvement
C.
Provides developers with the information to isolate the failure
D.
Does not belong in an incident report
Correct Answer
C. Provides developers with the information to isolate the failure
Explanation The excerpt from the bug report provides developers with the information to isolate the failure by specifying the test file (TS0ITCO72.dat) that was used to recreate the failure. This information helps the developers to identify and understand the specific conditions or inputs that caused the failure, allowing them to focus their efforts on debugging and fixing the issue.
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18.
You are brought in as the sole tester at the end of a project.
You were selected because of your understanding of the system and
its intended behavior. Users, customers, and other project
stakeholders consider the software low-risk. You are given one week
to execute tests to see if any show-stopping defects are present.
Which of the following is likely to be your main test design technique ?
Select one:
A.
Static testing
B.
Structure-based
C.
Experience-based
D.
Specification-based
Correct Answer
C. Experience-based
Explanation Given that the software is considered low-risk and the tester has a good understanding of the system and its intended behavior, it is likely that the main test design technique would be experience-based. This means that the tester will rely on their own knowledge, expertise, and past experiences to identify potential issues and prioritize their testing efforts. This approach is suitable when there is limited time and resources available for testing and when the tester has a good understanding of the system.
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19.
You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies such as spices, flour, and
other items in bulk. The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other
expensive items) or kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the
smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest
valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g., 25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units filed is
0.1 units. Which of the following is a set of input values that over the equivalence partitions for
this field ?
Select one:
A.
10.0, 28.0
B.
0.2, 0.9, 29.5
C.
12.3
D.
0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1
Correct Answer
B. 0.2, 0.9, 29.5
Explanation The given set of input values (0.2, 0.9, 29.5) covers the equivalence partitions for the units field in the e-commerce system. The smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units, so the input value of 0.2 falls within this range. The precision of the units field is 0.1 units, so the input value of 0.9 is within the allowed precision. The largest valid order amount is 25.0 units, so the input value of 29.5 exceeds this limit. Therefore, the set of input values (0.2, 0.9, 29.5) covers the different equivalence partitions for the units field.
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20.
What is a stub ?
Select one:
A.
A test environment needed to conduct a tester
B.
The effect on the component or system when it is being measured
C.
A software component or test tool that replaces a component that takes care of the control and/or the calling of a component or system.
D.
A skeletal or special-purpose implementation of a software component, used to develop or test a component that calls or is otherwise dependent on it.
Correct Answer
D. A skeletal or special-purpose implementation of a software component, used to develop or test a component that calls or is otherwise dependent on it.
Explanation A stub is a skeletal or special-purpose implementation of a software component that is used to develop or test a component that calls or is dependent on it. It acts as a placeholder for the actual component and allows for testing and development to proceed without the need for the complete and fully functional component. Stubs are used to simulate the behavior of the actual component and can be used to test different scenarios and interactions.
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21.
You are running a written test which other testers have run previously. In addition, this test has found bugs previously, and those bugs have been confirmed to be fixed. The test manager has encouraged you to vary the specific way in which you run the test, such as the order of certain actions, the use of mouse versus hot-keys, and the particular inpur values, based on the way users will use the system. Which of the following is a testing principle that could explain the test manager's directive ?
Select one:
A.
Random testing
B.
Early testing
C.
Absence-of-error fallacy
D.
Pesticide paradox
Correct Answer
D. Pesticide paradox
Explanation The test manager's directive to vary the specific way in which the test is run aligns with the testing principle of the pesticide paradox. The pesticide paradox states that if the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the tests become ineffective at finding new bugs. By varying the way the test is run, such as the order of actions, input values, and interaction methods, the test manager aims to overcome the pesticide paradox and increase the chances of finding new bugs that may have been missed in previous runs of the test.
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22.
You are working on a project on which any slippage in the test execution completion date would result in financial penalities for your employer.Achieving the planned delivery date is seen as the highest single priority.Which benefit of static techniques is likely to convince management to use them?
Select one:
A.
Reduced testing cost and time
B.
Productivity Improvements
C.
Improved communication within the team
D.
Reduced post-release support costs.
Correct Answer
A. Reduced testing cost and time
Explanation The benefit of static techniques that is likely to convince management to use them is reduced testing cost and time. By using static techniques such as reviews and inspections, potential defects and issues can be identified and resolved early in the development process. This helps in reducing the amount of time and effort required for testing, as well as the associated costs. By catching and fixing defects early, the project is more likely to stay on schedule and meet the planned delivery date, thus avoiding any financial penalties for the employer.
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23.
What is regression testing ?
Select one:
A.
A synonym for confirmation testing
B.
Testing of a previously tested program following modification
C.
Testing that runs test cases that failed the last time they were run
D.
Testing to determine the reliability of a software product
Correct Answer
B. Testing of a previously tested program following modification
Explanation Regression testing is the process of testing a previously tested program after it has been modified. This is done to ensure that the modifications or changes made to the program have not introduced any new defects or errors and that the program still functions correctly. It involves re-running the test cases that were previously executed to verify that the program still behaves as expected. By conducting regression testing, developers can identify and fix any issues that may have been introduced during the modification process, ensuring the overall quality and reliability of the software product.
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24.
Consider the following pieces of information:
I.Inputs provided
II.Actual results observed
III.Expected results under these conditions
IV.Environment used
V.Reproducibility of behaviour
Which of the following statements is the most accurate
if we are talking about an incident report that complies
with the IEEE 829 standard?
Select one:
A.
None of this information belongs in an incident report.
B.
All of this information belongs in an incident report.
C.
Items I,II,IV, and V belong in an incident report.
D.
Items I,II and III belong in an incident report.
Correct Answer
B. All of this information belongs in an incident report.
Explanation The correct answer is that all of this information belongs in an incident report. According to the IEEE 829 standard, an incident report should include inputs provided, actual results observed, expected results under these conditions, environment used, and the reproducibility of behavior. Therefore, all the given pieces of information are relevant and should be included in the incident report.
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25.
Consider the following list of typical test strategies:
I. Analytical
II. Model-based
III.Methodical
IV. Standard-compliant
V. Heuristic
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
A.
Only V is inherently reactive
B.
All five test strategies, I, II, III, IV and V are inherently preventive strategies
C.
All file strategies, I, II, III, IV and V are inherently reactive strategies
D.
III, IV and V are inherently reactive
Correct Answer
A. Only V is inherently reactive
Explanation Heuristic test strategy is the only one that is inherently reactive. The other test strategies mentioned (analytical, model-based, methodical, and standard-compliant) are not inherently reactive.
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26.
Which of the following is a way in which configuration management supports testing ?
Select one:
A.
Ensures that code has been unit tested
B.
Uniquely identifies the tested item.
C.
No benefits; configuration management is outside the scope of testing
D.
Automatically determines the location of any defects found.
Correct Answer
B. Uniquely identifies the tested item.
Explanation Configuration management supports testing by uniquely identifying the tested item. This means that configuration management keeps track of the specific version or configuration of the software or system that is being tested. By identifying the tested item, configuration management allows testers to accurately reproduce and analyze the results of the testing process. This is important for debugging, troubleshooting, and ensuring that any defects or issues found during testing can be properly addressed and resolved.
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27.
A test manager presents atest status summary report to the project team.Based on this report,the project team decices to extend the test execution period by three weeks to allow additional bugs to be found and fixed.What does the situation illustrate?
Select one:
A.
The fundamental testing process
B.
The contrasting mindset of developers and testers
C.
The Contribution of testing to higher quality
D.
The absence-of-errors fallacy
Correct Answer
C. The Contribution of testing to higher quality
Explanation The situation illustrates the contribution of testing to higher quality. By extending the test execution period, the project team acknowledges the importance of testing in finding and fixing bugs. This decision shows that the team recognizes that thorough testing can lead to a higher quality product by identifying and resolving issues before they impact the end-users.
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28.
You are testing a credit-card only,unattended gasoline pump. Once the credit card is validated,the customer has selected the desired grade,and the pump is ready to pump,the customer may cancel the transaction and owe nothing;however ,once the pumping starts,gasoline will be sold in hundredths(0.01)of a gallon.The pump continues to pump gasoline untill the user stops or a maximum of 50.00gallons has been dispensed.
Which of the following is a minimum set of gasoline purchase transactions (in gallons of gasoline dispensed)that covers the boundary values for this variable?
Select one:
A.
0.00,0.01,50.00,50.01
B.
0.00,20.00
C.
0.00,0.01,50.00,70.00
D.
-0.01,0.00,25.00,49.99,50.00,50.01,75.00
Correct Answer
A. 0.00,0.01,50.00,50.01
Explanation The correct answer is 0.00,0.01,50.00,50.01. This set of gasoline purchase transactions covers the boundary values for the variable because it includes the minimum and maximum values for the gallons of gasoline dispensed (0.00 and 50.00) as well as values just below and above those boundaries (0.01 and 50.01). This ensures that all possible scenarios are covered, including the cancellation of the transaction before any gasoline is dispensed and the maximum amount of gasoline being dispensed.
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29.
You are testing a banking subsystem that provides overdraft protection for cutomers who have this feature for their checking accounts.
Overdraft protection allows the customer to temporariliy overdraw their account balance,with some predefined credit limit,withouthaving checks returned unpaid.
A portion of the decision table describing that feature is shown below.
Caution:
Balance exceeded No yes yes
Credit limit okay - yes no
Action:
Honor check yes yes no
Return check no no yes
Send notice no yes yes
How many test would you design to cover the decision table?
Select one:
A.
15
B.
3
C.
5
D.
2
Correct Answer
B. 3
Explanation The decision table has three conditions: "Balance exceeded," "Credit limit okay," and "Caution." Each condition has two possible values: "yes" or "no." The action column has three possible actions: "Honor check," "Return check," and "Send notice." To cover all the combinations of conditions and actions, we need to design tests for each possible combination. There are three conditions, each with two possible values, resulting in 2^3 = 8 possible combinations. However, one of the combinations ("yes, yes, yes") is not included in the decision table, so we only need to design tests for the remaining 7 combinations. Therefore, the correct answer is 3.
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30.
Consider the following function :
double interest(double avg_balance, double annual_rate)
/* Calculate the monthly intereset for an
** interest-bearing checking account, basing
** the interest on the monthly average balance.
** if the avg_balance is less than zero, negative
** interest is calculated, but other modules
** handle overdraft charges.
** Annual rate is expressed as a percentage. */
{
double calc_int= 0.0;
if(avg_balance > 0.0) {
double monthly_rate = annual_rate/12.0;
calc_int = avg_balance * (monthly_rate/100.0);
}
return(calc_int);
}
Assume that you have a test harness that will allow you to submit test values
to the interest function (the inputs) and to check the values it returns(the
outputs),rounded to the nearest cent. Which of the following test cases achieves
100% decision coverage with the minimum number of tests? Assume the inputs are
the first two numbers in each triple, and the output the third.
Select one:
Correct Answer
C. 100.0, 5.0, 0.42; -50.0, 1.25, 0.0
Explanation The test case 100.0, 5.0, 0.42 covers the positive branch of the if statement in the interest function, where avg_balance is greater than 0.0. This ensures that the calculation of monthly interest is performed.
The test case -50.0, 1.25, 0.0 covers the negative branch of the if statement, where avg_balance is less than or equal to 0.0. This ensures that the calculation of monthly interest is not performed and the function returns 0.0 as expected.
By including both positive and negative test cases, we cover all possible branches of the if statement in the interest function, achieving 100% decision coverage.
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31.
You are testing an automobile with a software-controlled on/off switch for the motor.
The motor has two states, not running and running. There are two events that can occur,an on signal and an off signal. If the motor is not running, pressing the on/off switch sends
the software an on signal that tells the software to try (for up to five seconds) to start the motor. If the motor fails to start, the on/off switch can be pressed again to retry the operation
as many times as the driver would like. In other words, there are two conditions, succeed and fail, that influence the resulting state of the motor and the action taken but he software based
on the on signal. If the motor is running, the on/off swithc tells the software to stop the motor immediately if it would be safe to do so. If the motor cannot be safely stopped, the software
will give the driver a verbal warning: "Motor cannot be safely stopped." In other workds, there are two conditions, safe and unsafe, that influence the resulting state of the motor and the
action taken by the software based on the off signal. Assume you want to describe this behavior in a state transition table to design a set of tets for both valid and invalid situations.
Assume each row in the table give the initial state, the event/condition combination, the resulting state, and the action taken. How many rows will this table have ?
Select one:
A.
2
B.
4
C.
6
D.
8
Correct Answer
D. 8
Explanation The state transition table will have 8 rows because there are two initial states (not running and running) and two events/conditions (on signal and off signal) for each state. Therefore, 2 x 2 = 4 rows for the initial states and events/conditions. Additionally, there are two resulting states (succeed and fail for the on signal, safe and unsafe for the off signal), resulting in a total of 4 x 2 = 8 rows in the table.
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32.
Which of the following is a difference between the contents of a test case specification and a test procedure specification ?
Select one:
A.
The test procedure specification is used only for automated test execution.
B.
The test procedure specification specifies the sequence of action for the exection of a test.
C.
The two terms are synonyms and have exactly the same contents
D.
The test case specification specifies the sequence of action for the execution of a test.
Correct Answer
D. The test case specification specifies the sequence of action for the execution of a test.
Explanation The test case specification and the test procedure specification have different contents. The test case specification specifies the sequence of actions for the execution of a test, while the test procedure specification is used only for automated test execution. Therefore, the correct answer is that the test case specification specifies the sequence of actions for the execution of a test.
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33.
What is Iterative lifecycle model?
Select one:
A.
A development life cycle where a project has multiple test levels,Which are referred to as iterations
B.
A development life cycle where code is written by two programmers sitting at a single computer.
C.
A development life cycle where a project is outsourced to a number of development teams.
D.
A development life cycle where a project is broken into a number of iterations
Correct Answer
D. A development life cycle where a project is broken into a number of iterations
Explanation The iterative lifecycle model is a development life cycle where a project is divided into multiple iterations. Each iteration involves the completion of a set of tasks, such as requirements gathering, design, coding, testing, and deployment. The iterative model allows for incremental development, where each iteration builds upon the previous one, allowing for feedback and adjustments to be made throughout the development process. This approach is beneficial when requirements are not fully understood at the beginning or when there is a need for frequent changes and improvements.
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34.
Which of the following statements is an example of testing Contributing to higher quality?
Select one:
A.
A test leader writes a test summary report
B.
A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort
C.
A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release.
D.
A tester installs a test item in the test environment
Correct Answer
C. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release.
Explanation This statement is an example of testing contributing to higher quality because it shows that the tester has identified a bug during the testing process. By finding and reporting the bug, it can be resolved before the release, ensuring that the final product is of higher quality and free from known issues. This demonstrates the importance of testing in identifying and fixing problems, ultimately leading to a higher quality product.
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35.
Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
A.
Regression testing can be used in any level of testing, but must be done after white-box testing has been finished.
B.
Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test.
C.
Regression testing is an alternative term for re-testing.
D.
Regression testing is a technique for system testing and acceptance testing only.
Correct Answer
B. Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test.
Explanation Regression testing is a type of testing that is performed to ensure that changes or modifications made to a system do not have any unintended side effects on the existing functionality of the system. It is not limited to any specific level of testing and can be used at any stage of the testing process. White-box testing is not a prerequisite for regression testing, as it focuses on internal code structure and logic, whereas regression testing focuses on the overall system functionality. Therefore, the statement "Regression testing is intended to find side-effects after changes have been applied to the system under test" is the correct answer.
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36.
Test script A depends on test script B and test script C blocks the execution of the test script A. what is the flow of correct execution ?
Select one:
A.
B and C then A
B.
A and B then C
C.
A and B and C
D.
B or C then A
Correct Answer
A. B and C then A
Explanation Test script A depends on test script B, which means that test script A cannot be executed until test script B has been successfully executed. Additionally, test script C blocks the execution of test script A, indicating that test script A cannot be executed until test script C is no longer blocking it. Therefore, the correct flow of execution would be to first execute test script B, followed by test script C, and finally test script A.
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37.
Which of the following is a better incident report?
Select one:
A.
Until release V5.22 the displayed value was always correct. Since release V5.23 it is always wrong (see incident report 958). And it is getting worse and worse. This time the displayed value is half of the correct one. The value I want to see is “100.74” (see requirements document)
B.
The displayed result in the “cost” field is wrong.It displays “50,37” instead of “100.74” (requirements document, V2.5, chapter 5.1) Note that it was already wrong in release V5.23, although there it was worse (see incident report 958).
C.
How is that possible that you display “50,37”? If you had a look at the requirements document, V2.5, chapter 5.1, you could see that you should display “100.74”. By the way, it was already wrong in release V5.23, (see incident report 958).
D.
The displayed result is “50,37” But the expected result, according to the requirements document. V2.5, chapter 5.1, should be “100.74” in other words twice the displayed value. The displayed value is wrong for the last few releases but not in the same way as it is now
Correct Answer
D. The displayed result is “50,37” But the expected result, according to the requirements document. V2.5, chapter 5.1, should be “100.74” in other words twice the displayed value. The displayed value is wrong for the last few releases but not in the same way as it is now
Explanation This answer is the best incident report because it clearly states the discrepancy between the displayed result and the expected result according to the requirements document. It also mentions the specific section of the requirements document (V2.5, chapter 5.1) that outlines the expected result. Additionally, it acknowledges that the displayed value has been incorrect in previous releases but not in the same manner as it is currently.
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38.
Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a. Unit tests
ii. System Requirements b. Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c. System tests
iv. Business requirements d. Integration tests
Select one:
A.
I-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
B.
i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
C.
i-d , ii-b , iii-a , iv-c
D.
I-d , ii-c , iii-a , iv-b
Correct Answer
D. I-d , ii-c , iii-a , iv-b
Explanation The correct answer is i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b. In the software development life cycle, the high-level design stage corresponds to integration tests, as it involves testing the integration of different components or modules. The system requirements stage corresponds to system tests, as it involves testing the entire system as a whole. The low-level design stage corresponds to unit tests, as it involves testing individual units or components. The business requirements stage corresponds to acceptance tests, as it involves testing whether the system meets the business requirements.
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39.
Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
Select one:
A.
Iv, ii is correct
B.
Iii,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
C.
i,ii,iii,iv is correct
D.
I,ii,iii and iv are incorrect
Correct Answer
C. i,ii,iii,iv is correct
Explanation The correct answer is i, ii, iii, and iv are correct. Static analysis tools are able to detect a variety of defects in code, including variables that are never used, security vulnerabilities, programming standard violations, and uncalled functions and procedures. Therefore, all of the options provided are correct.
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40.
A tool that supports Analyzing and removing the cause of failure is called ?
Select one:
A.
A test management tool
B.
A debugging tool
C.
A dynamic analysis tool
D.
A test execution tool
E.
A configuration management tool
Correct Answer
B. A debugging tool
Explanation A debugging tool is a software tool that helps in analyzing and removing the cause of failure in a program or system. It allows developers to identify and fix bugs or errors in the code by providing features like breakpoints, step-by-step execution, and variable inspection. Debugging tools are commonly used during the development and testing phase to ensure the reliability and functionality of the software. They are specifically designed to assist in the troubleshooting process and help in identifying and resolving issues that may lead to failures.
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