1w051 A Set Volume 1 Edit Code 05

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1w051 A Set Volume 1 Edit Code 05 - Quiz


CDC 1W051A VOLUME 1:
General Meteorology and Surface Weather Observations

1W051A 01 1107, Edit Code 05
AFSC 1W051


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How many degrees centigrade does the temperature decrease per 1,000 meters of altitude in the troposphere?

    • A.

      3.5

    • B.

      4.5

    • C.

      5.5

    • D.

      6.5

    Correct Answer
    D. 6.5
    Explanation
    As altitude increases in the troposphere, the temperature decreases at a rate of 6.5 degrees centigrade per 1,000 meters. This is known as the lapse rate. The decrease in temperature with increasing altitude is due to the decrease in air pressure and the expansion of air molecules, which causes cooling. This lapse rate is an important factor in understanding weather patterns and atmospheric conditions in the troposphere.

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  • 2. 

    The stratosphere is characterized by

    • A.

      Noctilucent clouds, a “D” layer, and excellent flying conditions.

    • B.

      A constantly warming temperature, mother-of-pearl clouds, and generally poor flying weather.

    • C.

      A maximum temperature of 7°C, the strongest concentration of ozone, dense cirrus clouds, and occasionally poor flying conditions.

    • D.

      A temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions.

    Correct Answer
    D. A temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a temperature that remains isothermal to about 100,000 feet, the strongest concentration of ozone, and excellent flying conditions. This answer accurately describes the characteristics of the stratosphere. The stratosphere is known for having a temperature that remains relatively constant, or isothermal, up to a certain altitude. It also contains the highest concentration of ozone, which acts as a protective layer against harmful UV radiation. Additionally, the stratosphere is known for providing excellent flying conditions due to its stable atmosphere and lack of weather disturbances.

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  • 3. 

    Above 13 miles, the radiation from the sun breaks down the oxygen in the atmosphere into

    • A.

      Ozone gas.

    • B.

      Argon gas.

    • C.

      Carbon dioxide.

    • D.

      Gaseous nitrogen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ozone gas.
    Explanation
    When the radiation from the sun reaches above 13 miles in the atmosphere, it has enough energy to break down the oxygen molecules (O2) into individual oxygen atoms (O). These oxygen atoms then combine with other oxygen molecules to form ozone (O3) gas. Therefore, the correct answer is ozone gas.

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  • 4. 

    Which statement best describes water vapor in the atmosphere?

    • A.

      It absorbs ultraviolet radiation.

    • B.

      The most the air can hold is 6 percent.

    • C.

      The more water vapor, the lighter the air will be.

    • D.

      It keeps the earth from becoming too hot by absorbing solar radiation.

    Correct Answer
    C. The more water vapor, the lighter the air will be.
    Explanation
    Water vapor is lighter than dry air, so the more water vapor there is in the atmosphere, the lighter the air will be. This is because water molecules are lighter than nitrogen and oxygen molecules, which make up the majority of the atmosphere. As a result, the presence of water vapor can contribute to the buoyancy of the air.

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  • 5. 

    The two atmospheric gases most responsible for the absorption of incoming solar radiation are

    • A.

      Oxygen and ozone.

    • B.

      Ozone and water vapor.

    • C.

      Oxygen and water vapor.

    • D.

      Ozone and carbon dioxide.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen and ozone.
    Explanation
    Oxygen and ozone are the two atmospheric gases most responsible for the absorption of incoming solar radiation. Oxygen absorbs ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the upper atmosphere, preventing it from reaching the Earth's surface. Ozone, which is a form of oxygen molecule (O3), absorbs UV radiation in the stratosphere, forming a protective layer that shields the Earth's surface from harmful UV rays. This absorption process helps to regulate the amount of solar radiation that reaches the Earth, playing a crucial role in maintaining the planet's temperature and supporting life.

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  • 6. 

    The driving mechanism that is mainly responsible for the earth’s large-scale atmospheric circulations is the

    • A.

      Unequal heating of the earth.

    • B.

      Rotation of the earth.

    • C.

      Hadley cell.

    • D.

      Polar cell.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unequal heating of the earth.
    Explanation
    The driving mechanism for the Earth's large-scale atmospheric circulations is the unequal heating of the Earth. This is because different parts of the Earth receive different amounts of solar radiation, causing variations in temperature. As a result, warm air rises at the equator and cold air sinks at the poles, creating a pressure gradient that drives the movement of air. This movement, combined with the rotation of the Earth, leads to the formation of distinct circulation cells such as the Hadley cell and polar cell. However, it is the unequal heating of the Earth that ultimately sets this process in motion.

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  • 7. 

    Which force is described as any center-seeking force?

    • A.

      Inertia.

    • B.

      Coriolis.

    • C.

      Centrifugal.

    • D.

      Centripetal.

    Correct Answer
    D. Centripetal.
    Explanation
    Centripetal force is described as any center-seeking force. This force acts towards the center of rotation and keeps an object moving in a circular path. Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion. Coriolis force is an apparent force that acts on moving objects in a rotating system. Centrifugal force is a perceived force that appears to push objects away from the center of rotation. Therefore, the correct answer is centripetal force, as it is the force that acts towards the center.

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  • 8. 

    Which force is the “equal and opposite reaction” to the center-seeking force?

    • A.

      Inertia.

    • B.

      Coriolis.

    • C.

      Centrifugal.

    • D.

      Centripetal.

    Correct Answer
    C. Centrifugal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Centrifugal. In physics, the "equal and opposite reaction" to the center-seeking force, also known as the centripetal force, is the centrifugal force. When an object moves in a circular path, the centripetal force acts towards the center of the circle, while the centrifugal force acts outward, away from the center. These two forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, allowing the object to maintain its circular motion. Inertia, Coriolis, and Centripetal forces are not the equal and opposite reaction to the center-seeking force.

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  • 9. 

    Centrifugal force (CeF) will increase when there is a decrease in

    • A.

      Mass.

    • B.

      Centripetal force.

    • C.

      The speed of rotation.

    • D.

      The radius of rotation.

    Correct Answer
    D. The radius of rotation.
    Explanation
    Centrifugal force is the outward force experienced by an object moving in a circular path. It is directly proportional to the mass of the object, the speed of rotation, and the radius of rotation. Therefore, when there is a decrease in the radius of rotation, the centrifugal force will increase. This is because a smaller radius means that the object is moving in a tighter circle, resulting in a greater force pushing it away from the center.

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  • 10. 

    Coriolis force (CoF) is created by

    • A.

      The cyclonic rotation of the earth.

    • B.

      The anticyclonic rotation of the earth.

    • C.

      An opposing force to pressure gradient.

    • D.

      An apparent force, and therefore, it does not exist.

    Correct Answer
    A. The cyclonic rotation of the earth.
    Explanation
    The Coriolis force (CoF) is created by the cyclonic rotation of the earth. This force is a result of the earth's rotation and causes moving objects, such as air or water, to be deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. It is an important factor in the formation of weather patterns and ocean currents.

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  • 11. 

    If you throw a ball towards a stationary target from the window of a speeding vehicle, coriolis force (CoF) will cause the ball to miss the target

    • A.

      To the right.

    • B.

      To the left.

    • C.

      Downward.

    • D.

      Upward.

    Correct Answer
    A. To the right.
    Explanation
    The Coriolis force is a result of the rotation of the Earth and causes moving objects to be deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. In this scenario, as the ball is thrown from a speeding vehicle, it has both the forward velocity of the vehicle and the rotational velocity of the Earth. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the direction of motion, causing the ball to deviate to the right of its intended target. Therefore, the ball will miss the target to the right.

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  • 12. 

    The force that is responsible for starting the horizontal movement of air over earth’s surface is

    • A.

      Gravity.

    • B.

      Coriolis.

    • C.

      Centrifugal.

    • D.

      Pressure gradient.

    Correct Answer
    D. Pressure gradient.
    Explanation
    The force that is responsible for starting the horizontal movement of air over Earth's surface is the pressure gradient. Pressure gradient refers to the change in atmospheric pressure over a given distance. Air moves from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure, creating wind and initiating horizontal air movement. Gravity, Coriolis, and centrifugal forces play important roles in the overall circulation of the atmosphere, but they are not specifically responsible for starting the horizontal movement of air.

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  • 13. 

    The balance of forces needed for gradient cyclonic circulation is pressure gradient

    • A.

      Balanced against friction and coriolis forces (CoF).

    • B.

      And friction balanced against centrifugal force (CeF).

    • C.

      Balanced against coriolis and centrifugal forces.

    • D.

      And centrifugal balanced against CoF.

    Correct Answer
    C. Balanced against coriolis and centrifugal forces.
    Explanation
    The balance of forces needed for gradient cyclonic circulation involves the coriolis force and the centrifugal force. The coriolis force is responsible for the deflection of moving objects on the rotating Earth, while the centrifugal force is the outward force experienced by objects in a rotating frame of reference. These two forces need to be balanced in order to maintain the cyclonic circulation. The pressure gradient force and friction are not directly involved in this balance.

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  • 14. 

    The areas of low pressure that correspond to the belt of low pressure at 60°N created by the 3-cell circulation are the

    • A.

      Icelandic and Asiatic lows.

    • B.

      Icelandic and Aleutian lows.

    • C.

      Aleutian and Asiatic lows.

    • D.

      The Aleutian lows.

    Correct Answer
    B. Icelandic and Aleutian lows.
    Explanation
    The 3-cell circulation model explains the general atmospheric circulation patterns on Earth. At around 60°N, there is a belt of low pressure caused by the convergence of air masses from the Ferrel and Polar cells. This belt is associated with two major low-pressure systems: the Icelandic low, located near Iceland, and the Aleutian low, located near the Aleutian Islands in Alaska. These low-pressure systems are characterized by stormy weather and play a significant role in shaping the weather patterns in their respective regions. Therefore, the correct answer is Icelandic and Aleutian lows.

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  • 15. 

    In relation to the jet core, the greatest vertical wind shear is usually located

    • A.

      Above the strongest horizontal shear.

    • B.

      Below the strongest horizontal shear.

    • C.

      Above the jet core.

    • D.

      Below the jet core.

    Correct Answer
    C. Above the jet core.
    Explanation
    The greatest vertical wind shear is usually located above the jet core. This means that as you move higher in the atmosphere, the difference in wind speed and direction becomes greater. The jet core is where the strongest horizontal shear occurs, but the vertical wind shear is even stronger above it. This is important because vertical wind shear can affect the stability and development of weather systems, such as thunderstorms and tropical cyclones.

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  • 16. 

    In relation to the jet core, the greatest horizontal wind shear is usually located

    • A.

      Above the jet core.

    • B.

      North of the jet core.

    • C.

      South of the jet core.

    • D.

      At the jet core’s narrowest horizontal point.

    Correct Answer
    B. North of the jet core.
    Explanation
    The greatest horizontal wind shear is usually located north of the jet core. This is because the jet core is a region of strong winds in the upper atmosphere, and the wind speed typically decreases as you move away from the core. As a result, the greatest change in wind speed, or wind shear, occurs in the region immediately north of the jet core.

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  • 17. 

    The simplest method for locating the 500 millibar frontal zone is to

    • A.

      Locate the 500 millibar maximum wind band.

    • B.

      Locate the position of the –11° Centigrade isotherm.

    • C.

      Locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm.

    • D.

      Find where the thermal concentration is more than 5° Centigrade in 200 miles.

    Correct Answer
    C. Locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to locate the position of the –17° Centigrade isotherm. The 500 millibar frontal zone is typically associated with the –17° Centigrade isotherm, as this temperature gradient often indicates the presence of a weather front. By locating the position of this isotherm, meteorologists can identify the frontal zone and analyze the associated weather patterns.

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  • 18. 

    The width of the jet stream core is approximately equal to the

    • A.

      Width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon.

    • B.

      Width of the 500 millibar maximum wind band.

    • C.

      Distance between the –17° Centigrade and the –20° Centigrade isotherms at 500 millibar.

    • D.

      Distance between the –20° Centigrade and the –26° Centigrade isotherms at 500 millibar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon.
    Explanation
    The width of the jet stream core is approximately equal to the width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon. This means that the jet stream core, which is a narrow band of high-speed winds in the upper atmosphere, is typically found within the same width as the region where the temperature is the same at the 500 millibar pressure level. This is because the jet stream is closely associated with the temperature gradient and atmospheric pressure patterns. Therefore, the width of the 500 millibar isotherm ribbon provides a good estimate of the width of the jet stream core.

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  • 19. 

    Where are the greatest velocities located in relation to the subtropical jet (SJT)?

    • A.

      In the region of difluence of the STJ and polar front jet (PFJ).

    • B.

      In the region of confluence of the STJ and PFJ.

    • C.

      The STJ’s eastern most extension.

    • D.

      The STJ’S western most extension.

    Correct Answer
    B. In the region of confluence of the STJ and PFJ.
    Explanation
    The greatest velocities are located in the region of confluence of the subtropical jet (STJ) and polar front jet (PFJ). This means that the highest speeds are found where the STJ and PFJ merge together. The confluence of these two jets leads to a strengthening of the winds and an increase in velocity. Therefore, the region of confluence is where the greatest velocities are found in relation to the STJ.

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  • 20. 

    “Jet fingers”

    • A.

      Often develop more than 400 miles apart.

    • B.

      Suggest that the jet stream is beginning to dissipate.

    • C.

      Are somewhat rare and usually occur either singly or in pairs.

    • D.

      Are formed during periods when the jet stream is well organized and the core exceeds 100kts.

    Correct Answer
    B. Suggest that the jet stream is beginning to dissipate.
    Explanation
    The statement "Jet fingers often develop more than 400 miles apart" suggests that the jet stream is beginning to dissipate. When the jet stream weakens and starts to break apart, it can form separate "fingers" that are spaced far apart. This indicates a loss of the strong, continuous flow that characterizes a well-organized jet stream. Therefore, the occurrence of jet fingers at a significant distance from each other implies the dissipation of the jet stream.

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  • 21. 

    Converging contours downstream of the jet stream will cause the jet to

    • A.

      Decrease in amplitude.

    • B.

      Increase in amplitude.

    • C.

      Deflect toward lower heights.

    • D.

      Deflect toward greater heights.

    Correct Answer
    C. Deflect toward lower heights.
    Explanation
    When the contours converge downstream of the jet stream, it means that the spacing between the contours is decreasing. This indicates a decrease in the height of the atmosphere. As a result, the jet stream will deflect toward lower heights, meaning it will move closer to the Earth's surface. Therefore, the correct answer is deflect toward lower heights.

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  • 22. 

    Using average surface frontal slopes, how far ahead of the surface warm front is the jet stream located?

    • A.

      300 miles.

    • B.

      400 miles.

    • C.

      500 miles.

    • D.

      600 miles.

    Correct Answer
    D. 600 miles.
    Explanation
    The jet stream is a high-speed wind current found in the upper levels of the atmosphere. It is typically located several hundred miles ahead of a warm front. Therefore, using average surface frontal slopes, the jet stream is located approximately 600 miles ahead of the surface warm front.

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  • 23. 

    Which heat transfer process involves the transfer of energy by molecular motion from hot to cold objects?

    • A.

      Radiation.

    • B.

      Advection.

    • C.

      Convection.

    • D.

      Conduction.

    Correct Answer
    D. Conduction.
    Explanation
    Conduction is the correct answer because it involves the transfer of heat energy through direct contact between particles or molecules. In this process, the kinetic energy of the hot molecules is transferred to the colder molecules, causing them to gain energy and increase in temperature. Unlike radiation, which involves the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, conduction requires physical contact between objects. Advection refers to the transfer of heat by the movement of a fluid, while convection involves the transfer of heat through the movement of a fluid.

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  • 24. 

    Advection transfers temperature

    • A.

      By electromagnetic waves.

    • B.

      Horizontally by the wind.

    • C.

      Vertically by the wind.

    • D.

      By molecular motion.

    Correct Answer
    B. Horizontally by the wind.
    Explanation
    Advection refers to the horizontal movement of a property, such as temperature, by the wind. In this context, it means that temperature is transferred horizontally through the atmosphere by the movement of air masses. This is different from vertical transfer, which occurs through convection, and molecular motion, which refers to the random movement of molecules. The correct answer states that advection transfers temperature horizontally by the wind, indicating that the wind plays a crucial role in moving and distributing heat in the atmosphere.

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  • 25. 

    What factors must a region possess in order to facilitate air mass formation?

    • A.

      Uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • B.

      Must be over water, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • C.

      Any nonuniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    • D.

      Must be over smooth land, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow.
    Explanation
    A region must possess a uniform surface, stagnant air, and large-scale difluent flow in order to facilitate air mass formation. A uniform surface ensures that there are no significant variations in temperature or moisture content, which allows for the development of a stable air mass. Stagnant air means that there is little or no vertical movement of the air, which allows the air mass to remain intact and not mix with surrounding air. Large-scale difluent flow refers to the divergence of air at the upper levels of the atmosphere, which helps to maintain the stability and integrity of the air mass.

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  • 26. 

    Which process is most responsible for the slow formation of air masses in the polar region?

    • A.

      Loss of heat by radiation.

    • B.

      Loss of heat by conduction.

    • C.

      Transport of heat by turbulence.

    • D.

      Transport of heat by evaporation and condensation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loss of heat by radiation.
    Explanation
    In the polar region, the slow formation of air masses is primarily due to the loss of heat by radiation. This process involves the transfer of heat energy from the Earth's surface to the atmosphere through the emission of infrared radiation. The polar region receives less sunlight and has colder temperatures, resulting in a slower rate of heat transfer. This gradual loss of heat leads to the formation of stable, cold air masses characteristic of polar regions.

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  • 27. 

    Air mass stability characteristics often depend on the temperature difference between the

    • A.

      Air mass and the source region surface.

    • B.

      Upper- and lower-level air, and source region.

    • C.

      Air mass and the surface over which it is traveling.

    • D.

      Air-mass source region surface and the surface over which the air mass is traveling.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air mass and the surface over which it is traveling.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "air mass and the surface over which it is traveling." Air mass stability refers to the vertical movement of air within a specific air mass. The temperature difference between the air mass and the surface over which it is traveling plays a crucial role in determining the stability characteristics. If the air mass is colder than the surface, it tends to be more stable, inhibiting vertical movement. Conversely, if the air mass is warmer than the surface, it becomes more unstable, promoting vertical movement and potentially leading to the formation of clouds and precipitation.

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  • 28. 

    How would you classify a stable air mass that formed over land in the Arctic has now moved over the ocean’s warmer surface?

    • A.

      MAws.

    • B.

      MAks.

    • C.

      CAwu.

    • D.

      CAks.

    Correct Answer
    D. CAks.
    Explanation
    When a stable air mass that initially formed over land in the Arctic moves over the ocean's warmer surface, it undergoes a process called advection. This causes the air mass to become unstable due to the temperature contrast between the colder air mass and the warmer ocean surface. As a result, the correct classification for this air mass would be "cAks".

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  • 29. 

    What air mass classification signifies an unstable, maritime tropical air mass that is colder than the surface it is moving over?

    • A.

      MTwu.

    • B.

      MTws.

    • C.

      MTku.

    • D.

      MTks.

    Correct Answer
    C. MTku.
    Explanation
    The air mass classification mTku signifies an unstable, maritime tropical air mass that is colder than the surface it is moving over. This means that the air mass is warm and moist, originating over tropical waters, but it is colder than the surface it is moving over. This can lead to instability in the atmosphere, potentially causing the formation of thunderstorms or other severe weather conditions.

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  • 30. 

    What air mass classification signifies a stable, continental polar air mass that is warmer than the surface it is moving over?

    • A.

      CPks.

    • B.

      CPws.

    • C.

      CTws.

    • D.

      CTku.

    Correct Answer
    B. CPws.
    Explanation
    The air mass classification cPws signifies a stable, continental polar air mass that is warmer than the surface it is moving over. Continental polar air masses are formed over land and are characterized by their cool and dry nature. The "w" in cPws indicates that this air mass is warmer than the surface it is moving over, which creates a stable condition. This classification is commonly associated with clear and dry weather conditions.

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  • 31. 

    What air mass forms over land only during the summer?

    • A.

      MTk.

    • B.

      MPw.

    • C.

      CPk.

    • D.

      CT.

    Correct Answer
    D. CT.
    Explanation
    The air mass that forms over land only during the summer is cT. This is because cT refers to a continental tropical air mass, which is characterized by warm and dry air. During the summer, the land heats up more quickly than the ocean, leading to the formation of this air mass. It is typically found in regions with hot and arid climates, such as deserts.

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  • 32. 

    As an air mass is heated from below, there will be increased

    • A.

      Option 1

    • B.

      Stability and an increased lapse rate.

    • C.

      Instability and a decreased lapse rate.

    • D.

      Instability and an increased lapse rate.

    Correct Answer
    D. Instability and an increased lapse rate.
    Explanation
    When an air mass is heated from below, it becomes less stable and more prone to vertical motion. This is because the warm air rises and creates instability in the atmosphere. Additionally, as the air mass rises, the temperature decreases at a faster rate, resulting in an increased lapse rate. Therefore, the correct answer is instability and an increased lapse rate.

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  • 33. 

    It is winter. A cPk air mass is moving over the Great Lakes. In this situation, the southern shores of the Great Lakes will experience

    • A.

      Hail.

    • B.

      Heavy snow.

    • C.

      Thunderstorms.

    • D.

      Freezing precipitation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Heavy snow.
    Explanation
    In winter, when a cPk air mass moves over the Great Lakes, it brings cold air and moisture from the lakes, causing heavy snowfall. The cold air mass interacts with the warmer lake waters, creating an unstable atmosphere that promotes the formation of snow clouds. As the air rises and cools, the moisture condenses and falls as snow. Therefore, the southern shores of the Great Lakes will experience heavy snow during this situation.

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  • 34. 

    Which air mass involves most of the wintertime storms for the North American Pacific coast?

    • A.

      MP.

    • B.

      CP.

    • C.

      MT.

    • D.

      CT.

    Correct Answer
    C. MT.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is mT. The mT air mass, also known as maritime tropical air mass, is warm and moist. It originates from the tropical oceanic regions and moves towards the North American Pacific coast. During winter, when cold air from the north interacts with the warm, moist air from the ocean, it leads to the formation of storms. These storms bring heavy rainfall and strong winds to the North American Pacific coast. Therefore, the mT air mass involves most of the wintertime storms for this region.

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  • 35. 

    Continental tropical air masses are usually associated with

    • A.

      Thermal lows.

    • B.

      Thermal highs.

    • C.

      Migratory lows.

    • D.

      Migratory highs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal lows.
    Explanation
    Continental tropical air masses are formed over warm land areas, typically in the tropics or subtropics. These air masses are characterized by high temperatures and low humidity. Due to their warm and dry nature, they tend to create areas of low atmospheric pressure, known as thermal lows. This is because the warm air rises, creating a region of relatively lower pressure compared to the surrounding areas. Therefore, the correct answer is thermal lows.

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  • 36. 

    The rate that an air mass modifies depends on the

    • A.

      Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and the initial characteristics of the air mass.

    • B.

      Initial characteristics of the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and amount of moisture in the air mass.

    • C.

      Initial characteristics of the air mass, the speed with which the air mass travels, and the temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass.

    • D.

      Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the nature of the surface over which it moves, and the speed with which the air mass travels.

    Correct Answer
    D. Temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the nature of the surface over which it moves, and the speed with which the air mass travels.
    Explanation
    The rate at which an air mass modifies depends on the temperature differences between the new surface and the air mass, the nature of the surface over which it moves, and the speed with which the air mass travels. These factors all play a role in determining how quickly the air mass will change and adapt to its new environment. The temperature differences between the air mass and the surface it encounters will influence how quickly the air mass will adjust its temperature to match the surface. The nature of the surface, such as whether it is land or water, will affect the amount of moisture that can be absorbed by the air mass. Finally, the speed at which the air mass travels will determine how quickly it can mix with surrounding air and exchange properties.

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  • 37. 

    The weather characteristics of a particular month in a given locality are governed by

    • A.

      Wind speed and moisture content.

    • B.

      Effects of local topography and moisture content.

    • C.

      Wind speed and proximity to a zone of divergence.

    • D.

      Effects of local topography and proximity to a zone of convergence.

    Correct Answer
    D. Effects of local topograpHy and proximity to a zone of convergence.
    Explanation
    The weather characteristics of a particular month in a given locality are influenced by the effects of local topography and proximity to a zone of convergence. Local topography can affect the movement of air masses, causing them to rise or sink, which can lead to changes in temperature and precipitation. Proximity to a zone of convergence, where air masses of different temperatures and moisture content come together, can also impact weather patterns, leading to the formation of clouds and precipitation. Wind speed and moisture content are not the only factors that govern weather characteristics, as local topography and proximity to convergence zones play crucial roles as well.

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  • 38. 

    Surface pressure changes are largely controlled by

    • A.

      Mass changes in the upper troposphere.

    • B.

      The jetstream pattern in the upper troposphere.

    • C.

      Temperature advection in the middle troposphere.

    • D.

      Positive vorticity advection in the lower troposphere.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mass changes in the upper tropospHere.
    Explanation
    Surface pressure changes are largely controlled by mass changes in the upper troposphere. This is because the upper troposphere is where most of the mass of the atmosphere is located. When there are changes in the mass distribution in this region, it can lead to changes in the pressure at the surface. These mass changes can be caused by various factors such as the movement of air masses, the presence of weather systems, and the interaction between different air masses. Therefore, understanding the mass changes in the upper troposphere is crucial in predicting and analyzing surface pressure changes.

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  • 39. 

    Horizontal divergence within an air mass will

    • A.

      Cause the surface pressure to rise.

    • B.

      Increase the mass in the vertical column above the surface.

    • C.

      Increase the vertical extent of the column above the surface.

    • D.

      Vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.

    Correct Answer
    D. Vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.
    Explanation
    Horizontal divergence within an air mass refers to the spreading out of air horizontally. This causes the air column to vertically contract, meaning it becomes thinner and shorter. As the air column contracts vertically, it also expands horizontally, leading to a wider distribution of air. Therefore, the correct answer is that horizontal divergence will vertically contract the original column of air and then expand it horizontally.

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  • 40. 

    As air converges at the surface and toward the center of a layer, there will be horizontal

    • A.

      And vertical expansion.

    • B.

      Contraction and vertical expansion.

    • C.

      Expansion and vertical contraction.

    • D.

      Contraction and vertical contraction.

    Correct Answer
    B. Contraction and vertical expansion.
    Explanation
    As air converges at the surface and toward the center of a layer, it will experience contraction horizontally, meaning it will become more compact. This is because the air is being forced to come together and occupy a smaller area. At the same time, there will be vertical expansion, as the air is pushed upwards due to the convergence. This vertical expansion occurs because the air needs to rise to fill the void left by the converging air at the surface. Therefore, the correct answer is contraction and vertical expansion.

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  • 41. 

    An increase of mass in a column of air will cause the surface pressure to

    • A.

      Increase.

    • B.

      Decrease.

    • C.

      Remain steady.

    • D.

      Do nothing, pressure is not affected by mass.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase.
    Explanation
    An increase in mass in a column of air will cause the surface pressure to increase. This is because an increase in mass leads to a greater number of air molecules in the column, resulting in more collisions between the molecules and the surface. These collisions exert a force on the surface, which in turn increases the pressure. Therefore, as the mass of the column of air increases, so does the surface pressure.

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  • 42. 

    In the chimney effect, the maximum upward vertical wind motion will be located

    • A.

      At the tropopause.

    • B.

      At the surface of the earth.

    • C.

      Throughout the column of air.

    • D.

      At the level of nondivergence (LND).

    Correct Answer
    D. At the level of nondivergence (LND).
    Explanation
    In the chimney effect, the maximum upward vertical wind motion will be located at the level of nondivergence (LND). This is because the chimney effect occurs when warm air rises and creates a vertical column of air. As the air rises, it eventually reaches a point where it can no longer continue to rise due to the surrounding air becoming less dense. At this point, known as the level of nondivergence (LND), the upward motion of the air is maximized. Therefore, the maximum upward vertical wind motion in the chimney effect is located at the level of nondivergence.

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  • 43. 

    The primary cause of surface pressure changes for a dynamic low is net

    • A.

      Divergence aloft.

    • B.

      Adiabatic cooling aloft.

    • C.

      Adiabatic warming aloft.

    • D.

      Divergence at the surface.

    Correct Answer
    A. Divergence aloft.
    Explanation
    Divergence aloft is the primary cause of surface pressure changes for a dynamic low. Divergence refers to the movement of air away from a certain area. When there is divergence aloft, it means that air is moving away from the upper levels of the atmosphere. This leads to a decrease in air mass and lower atmospheric pressure at the surface. As a result, a dynamic low pressure system is formed. Adiabatic cooling and warming aloft do not directly cause surface pressure changes, while surface divergence is a result of the pressure changes rather than the cause.

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  • 44. 

    A low-pressure system undergoing cyclogenesis is said to be

    • A.

      Divergence and surface low pressure.

    • B.

      Forming or deepening.

    • C.

      Dissipating or filling.

    • D.

      Forming or filling.

    Correct Answer
    B. Forming or deepening.
    Explanation
    When a low-pressure system undergoes cyclogenesis, it means that it is forming or deepening. Cyclogenesis refers to the process of a low-pressure system intensifying and developing into a stronger storm. This can occur when there is an increase in convergence of air at the surface, leading to the formation of a low-pressure center. As the system deepens, it becomes stronger and can potentially develop into a more severe weather event, such as a tropical storm or hurricane.

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  • 45. 

    The damper effect is comprised of upper-level

    • A.

      Divergence and surface low pressure.

    • B.

      Divergence and surface high pressure.

    • C.

      Convergence and surface low pressure.

    • D.

      Convergence and surface high pressure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Convergence and surface high pressure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is convergence and surface high pressure. In the context of the damper effect, convergence refers to the coming together of air masses at the surface, which leads to the formation of high pressure. High pressure systems are associated with clear skies and calm weather conditions. This explanation aligns with the given answer choice.

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  • 46. 

    When the central pressure of an anticyclone is rising, you can infer the anticyclone is

    • A.

      Filling.

    • B.

      Building.

    • C.

      Deepening.

    • D.

      Weakening.

    Correct Answer
    B. Building.
    Explanation
    When the central pressure of an anticyclone is rising, it indicates that the air within the anticyclone is becoming denser and sinking. This sinking air leads to the compression and building up of the anticyclone. Therefore, the correct answer is building.

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  • 47. 

    A high-pressure system undergoes anticyclolysis when the clockwise circulation area

    • A.

      Decreases or disappears.

    • B.

      Increases or disappears.

    • C.

      Decreases or forms.

    • D.

      Increases or forms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreases or disappears.
    Explanation
    Anticyclolysis refers to the weakening or dissipation of a high-pressure system. In this process, the clockwise circulation area within the system decreases or disappears. This means that the system loses its organized, rotating motion in a clockwise direction. Therefore, the correct answer is "decreases or disappears."

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  • 48. 

    An unstable wave cyclone is one where the amplitude

    • A.

      Decreases with time and the wave fills.

    • B.

      Increases with time and the wave fills.

    • C.

      Decreases with time and the wave deepens.

    • D.

      Increases with time and the wave deepens.

    Correct Answer
    D. Increases with time and the wave deepens.
    Explanation
    In an unstable wave cyclone, the amplitude of the wave increases with time and the wave deepens. This means that the wave becomes stronger and more pronounced as time passes, and the depth of the wave also increases. This can lead to more intense weather conditions and potentially severe storms.

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  • 49. 

    After warm air with an unstable wave is pushed aloft and cuts off from a cyclone, the cyclone will become

    • A.

      Baroclinic and begin to deepen.

    • B.

      Barotropic and begin to deepen.

    • C.

      Baroclinic and begin to fill.

    • D.

      Barotropic and begin to fill.

    Correct Answer
    D. Barotropic and begin to fill.
    Explanation
    When warm air with an unstable wave is pushed aloft and cuts off from a cyclone, the cyclone will become barotropic and begin to fill. In meteorology, a barotropic system refers to a weather system in which the density surfaces are parallel to the surfaces of constant pressure. When a cyclone becomes barotropic, it means that the temperature and wind fields are aligned and there is no significant temperature gradient. As a result, the cyclone starts to fill, meaning that it weakens and loses its intensity.

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  • 50. 

    Unstable waves are classified as

    • A.

      Barotropic highs.

    • B.

      Barotropic lows.

    • C.

      Baroclinic high.

    • D.

      Baroclinic lows.

    Correct Answer
    D. Baroclinic lows.
    Explanation
    Unstable waves are classified as baroclinic lows. Baroclinic refers to the condition where there is a gradient of temperature or density in the atmosphere or ocean. Unstable waves in this context are characterized by the presence of such gradients, which can lead to the development of storms and other turbulent weather conditions. Barotropic highs and lows, on the other hand, do not have such gradients and are associated with more stable atmospheric conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is baroclinic lows.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Aug 01, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 12, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Kyleburbach
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