New CDC Quiz Vol. 1 (3S051) Edit Code 03

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New CDC Quiz Vol. 1 (3S051) Edit Code 03 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    By integrating joint forces, we are able to rapidly and efficiently exploit what attributes of the adversary?

    • A.

      Mission necessities.

    • B.

      Governing directives.

    • C.

      Critical vulnerabilities.

    • D.

      Distinctive capabilities.

    Correct Answer
    C. Critical vulnerabilities.
    Explanation
    By integrating joint forces, we are able to rapidly and efficiently exploit the critical vulnerabilities of the adversary. This means that by combining the efforts and resources of different military branches, we can identify and target the weaknesses or vulnerabilities of the enemy, allowing us to gain an advantage and achieve our mission objectives more effectively.

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  • 2. 

    Competent joint war fighters must be skilled in all of these values except

    • A.

      Having a joint perspective.

    • B.

      Conducting force shaping training.

    • C.

      Applying strategic and operational art.

    • D.

      Thinking strategically and optimizing joint capabilities.

    Correct Answer
    B. Conducting force shaping training.
    Explanation
    Competent joint war fighters need to possess a joint perspective, as it is crucial for effective coordination and collaboration among different branches of the military. They also need to be skilled in applying strategic and operational art, which involves understanding and implementing military strategies at both the strategic and operational levels. Additionally, they should be able to think strategically and optimize joint capabilities, which means making informed decisions to maximize the effectiveness of joint operations. However, conducting force shaping training is not necessarily a skill that joint war fighters need to possess, as it primarily involves the development and implementation of force structure plans, which is typically the responsibility of higher-level military leaders.

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  • 3. 

    Which is not a value that has special impact on the conduct of joint operations?

    • A.

      Integrity.

    • B.

      Competency.

    • C.

      Physical courage.

    • D.

      Excellence in all we do.

    Correct Answer
    D. Excellence in all we do.
    Explanation
    Excellence in all we do is not a value that has a special impact on the conduct of joint operations. While integrity, competency, and physical courage are all important values that contribute to the success of joint operations, excellence in all we do is a more general value that can be applied to any situation, not just specific to joint operations. Joint operations require specific skills, knowledge, and teamwork, which are not encompassed by the concept of excellence in all we do.

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  • 4. 

    Which term is not used in reference to unified action in the military?  

    • A.

      Integration.

    • B.

      Coordination

    • C.

      Familiarization.

    • D.

      Synchronization.

    Correct Answer
    C. Familiarization.
    Explanation
    The term "familiarization" is not commonly used in reference to unified action in the military. Unified action typically involves the integration, coordination, and synchronization of different military elements or forces to achieve a common objective. Familiarization, on the other hand, refers to the process of becoming acquainted or familiar with something, which may not necessarily involve the same level of coordination and integration as unified action.

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  • 5. 

    The secretary of a military department operates that department under all of these except

    • A.

      Control.

    • B.

      Planning.

    • C.

      Authority.

    • D.

      Direction.

    Correct Answer
    B. Planning.
    Explanation
    The secretary of a military department operates the department under control, authority, and direction. Control refers to the power to manage and oversee the department's activities. Authority refers to the legal power to make decisions and give orders. Direction refers to providing guidance and instructions to achieve specific goals. However, planning, which involves setting objectives and determining the best course of action to achieve them, is not explicitly mentioned as one of the ways in which the secretary operates the department. Therefore, planning is the correct answer.

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  • 6. 

    The commanders of geographic commands are each assigned a geographic

    • A.

      Deputy commander.

    • B.

      Assistant commander.

    • C.

      Area of responsibility (AOR).

    • D.

      Temporary duty (TDY) location.

    Correct Answer
    C. Area of responsibility (AOR).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "area of responsibility (AOR)". In military operations, commanders of geographic commands are assigned a specific area of responsibility (AOR) that they are responsible for overseeing and managing. This AOR can encompass a specific region or territory where the commander is in charge of coordinating and executing military operations. Assigning a geographic AOR allows for clear lines of authority and accountability within the military command structure.

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  • 7. 

    Which is not a unified combatant command?

    • A.

      United States Special Operations Command (USSOCOM).

    • B.

      United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM).

    • C.

      United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM).

    • D.

      United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

    Correct Answer
    B. United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Personnel Command (USPERCOM). The reason is that USPERCOM is not a unified combatant command. Unified combatant commands are joint military commands that are responsible for specific geographic or functional areas of responsibility. USSOCOM, USSTRATCOM, and USTRANSCOM are all examples of unified combatant commands.

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  • 8. 

    Unity of command means that all forces operate under

    • A.

      A single commander.

    • B.

      A joint force commander.

    • C.

      The secretary of the Army.

    • D.

      The secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

    Correct Answer
    A. A single commander.
    Explanation
    Unity of command refers to the principle that all forces within an organization should operate under the direction and control of a single commander. This ensures clear lines of authority, avoids confusion, and promotes effective decision-making and coordination of efforts. By having a single commander, there is a centralized control and responsibility for the actions and outcomes of the forces, enabling efficient and cohesive operations.

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  • 9. 

    Major commands (MAJCOM) report directly to

    • A.

      The base commander.

    • B.

      Headquarters, USAF (HQ USAF).

    • C.

      The secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

    • D.

      The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Headquarters, USAF (HQ USAF).
    Explanation
    Major commands (MAJCOM) are the highest level of command in the United States Air Force (USAF) and they report directly to headquarters, USAF (HQ USAF). This means that MAJCOMs are accountable to the central command authority at HQ USAF, which oversees and directs the operations of all MAJCOMs. The base commander, secretary of the Air Force (SECAF), and the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) are not directly responsible for overseeing MAJCOMs.

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  • 10. 

    Which major command (MAJCOM) delivers war-winning expeditionary capabilities to the warfighter through development and transition of technology?

    • A.

      Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

    • B.

      US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE).

    • C.

      Pacific Air Forces (PACAF).

    • D.

      Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSPC).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) is responsible for delivering war-winning expeditionary capabilities to the warfighter through the development and transition of technology. This means that AFMC focuses on developing and providing advanced technology and equipment to support the Air Force's mission and ensure the success of military operations. The other options, US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE), Pacific Air Forces (PACAF), and Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSPC), have different roles and responsibilities within the Air Force and are not specifically focused on technology development and transition.

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  • 11. 

    Before you implement a new personnel policy, procedure, or program, you must receive approval from the

    • A.

      MAJCOM/USAF.

    • B.

      Appropriate level.

    • C.

      CJS/SECAF.

    • D.

      POTUS/CSAF.

    Correct Answer
    B. Appropriate level.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "appropriate level." This means that before implementing any new personnel policy, procedure, or program, it is necessary to obtain approval from the appropriate level of authority. This could vary depending on the organization or context, but it generally refers to the level of management or leadership that has the authority to make decisions and give approval for such matters. It ensures that decisions are made by the appropriate individuals who have the necessary knowledge and authority to evaluate and approve the proposed changes.

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  • 12. 

    The architecture of the base-level authorizations was dispersed between the

    • A.

      Military personnel flight (MPF) and military personnel section (MPS).

    • B.

      MPF and commander’s support staff (CSS).

    • C.

      MPF and geographically separated unit (GSU).

    • D.

      MPS and CSS.

    Correct Answer
    B. MPF and commander’s support staff (CSS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is MPF and commander's support staff (CSS). This means that the architecture of the base-level authorizations was divided between the military personnel flight (MPF) and the commander's support staff (CSS). These two entities were responsible for handling and managing the authorizations and permissions at the base level.

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  • 13. 

    What authorizations were reduced during program budget decision (PBD) 720 to save money?

    • A.

      Programs.

    • B.

      Manpower.

    • C.

      Equipment.

    • D.

      Additional duties.

    Correct Answer
    B. Manpower.
    Explanation
    During program budget decision (PBD) 720, the authorizations that were reduced to save money were related to manpower. This means that there were likely cuts in the number of personnel or staff members allocated to various programs or projects. By reducing manpower, organizations can lower their expenses on salaries, benefits, and other associated costs. This decision may have been made to address budget constraints or to optimize resource allocation in order to achieve cost savings.

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  • 14. 

    Program budget decision (PBD) 720 introduced the need for an immediate Air Force interim solution to enable the reduced personnel service providers at the base level to deliver quality service to meet our strategic delivery goal. What was that Air Force interim solution?

    • A.

      Program implementation review team (PIRT).

    • B.

      Personnel service delivery memorandum (PSDM).

    • C.

      Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).

    • D.

      Automated records management system (ARMS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM). This is because PBD 720 introduced the need for an immediate solution to enable the reduced personnel service providers at the base level to deliver quality service. The BLSDM is designed to provide a framework for delivering personnel services at the base level, ensuring efficient and effective service delivery to meet strategic goals. It is specifically mentioned as the Air Force interim solution in the given question.

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  • 15. 

    Which is not one of the three main components of the base-level service delivery model (BLSDM)?

    • A.

      A new organizational structure composed of existing military personnel flight (MPF) and centralized commander support staff (CSS) personnel.

    • B.

      Personnel assets that provide efficient base-level service through a learning organization.

    • C.

      Decentralized CSS with the ability to provide fully trained personnelists within the existing MPF.

    • D.

      An information technology (IT) solution provided to commanders to support their personnel needs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Decentralized CSS with the ability to provide fully trained personnelists within the existing MPF.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Decentralized CSS with the ability to provide fully trained personnelists within the existing MPF." This option does not align with the three main components of the base-level service delivery model (BLSDM) mentioned in the other options. The three main components include a new organizational structure composed of existing MPF and CSS personnel, personnel assets that provide efficient base-level service through a learning organization, and an information technology solution provided to support personnel needs. Therefore, the option that mentions decentralized CSS with the ability to provide fully trained personnelists within the existing MPF is not one of the three main components of the BLSDM.

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  • 16. 

    Manpower, Personnel, and Services (MP&S) structures were not organized to

    • A.

      Reduce overhead.

    • B.

      Minimize overtime.

    • C.

      Achieve efficiencies.

    • D.

      Maximize customer service.

    Correct Answer
    B. Minimize overtime.
    Explanation
    The MP&S structures were not organized to minimize overtime. This suggests that the main purpose of these structures was not to reduce the amount of overtime work that is required. Instead, it implies that there may be other objectives or priorities that the MP&S structures were designed to fulfill, such as managing manpower, personnel, and services in an efficient manner, maximizing customer service, or reducing overhead costs.

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  • 17. 

    What was the goal during Phase I of the force support squadron (FSS) transformation?

    • A.

      Integrate as many flights as possible into the mission support squadron (MSS).

    • B.

      Consolidate seven flights into five while maintaining efficiency and maximizing customer service.

    • C.

      Consolidate seven flights into four with fewer personnel, while still expecting excellent customer service.

    • D.

      Increase the number of personnel in the FSS.

    Correct Answer
    B. Consolidate seven flights into five while maintaining efficiency and maximizing customer service.
    Explanation
    During Phase I of the force support squadron (FSS) transformation, the goal was to consolidate seven flights into five while maintaining efficiency and maximizing customer service. This means that the FSS aimed to streamline their operations by reducing the number of flights while ensuring that their services remained efficient and customer-oriented. By consolidating the flights, the FSS sought to improve overall effectiveness and provide better support to their customers.

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  • 18. 

    Which element is not part of the new military personnel section (MPS) structure?

    • A.

      Customer support.

    • B.

      Career development.

    • C.

      Career enhancement.

    • D.

      Force management operations.

    Correct Answer
    C. Career enhancement.
    Explanation
    The element that is not part of the new military personnel section (MPS) structure is career enhancement. The other three elements, customer support, career development, and force management operations, are all components that are included in the structure. However, career enhancement is not mentioned as one of the elements, indicating that it is not part of the new MPS structure.

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  • 19. 

    The five flights of the Force Support Squadron (FSS) include Force Development, Manpower and Personnel, Airman and Family Services, Sustainment Services, and

    • A.

      Mortuary Services.

    • B.

      Career Development.

    • C.

      Resource Management.

    • D.

      Community Services.

    Correct Answer
    D. Community Services.
    Explanation
    The five flights of the Force Support Squadron (FSS) are responsible for various aspects of support services within the squadron. Force Development focuses on enhancing the skills and knowledge of personnel, Manpower and Personnel deals with workforce management, Airman and Family Services provides support to airmen and their families, Sustainment Services ensures the availability of resources and facilities, and Mortuary Services handles the respectful care of deceased military personnel. The flight that is not included in this list is Community Services, which typically involves activities and programs aimed at enhancing the quality of life for military personnel and their families, such as recreational events, youth programs, and volunteer opportunities.

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  • 20. 

    How did the implementation of program budget decision (PBD) 720, affect the structure of the commander’s support staff (CSS)?

    • A.

      The CSS disbanded.

    • B.

      The CSS was consolidated into a single organization.

    • C.

      The CSS was divided into 2 parts, with half of the authorizations being reassigned to the military personnel flight (MPF).

    • D.

      The CSS was divided into 2 parts, with half of the authorizations being reassigned to the military personnel section (MPS).

    Correct Answer
    B. The CSS was consolidated into a single organization.
    Explanation
    The implementation of program budget decision (PBD) 720 resulted in the consolidation of the commander's support staff (CSS) into a single organization. This means that instead of being divided or disbanded, the CSS was brought together as one cohesive unit.

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  • 21. 

    The standardized force support squadron (FSS) structure was comprised of all of these flights except

    • A.

      Force management.

    • B.

      Force development.

    • C.

      Sustainment services.

    • D.

      Community services.

    Correct Answer
    A. Force management.
    Explanation
    The standardized force support squadron (FSS) structure includes flights for force development, sustainment services, and community services. Force management, however, is not included in this structure. Force management typically refers to the planning, organizing, and directing of resources and personnel to support the mission and goals of the military organization. While important, it is not one of the specific flights within the FSS structure.

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  • 22. 

    Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC) stood up, when personnel specialists were asked a question they could not answer, they contacted

    • A.

      Numbered Air Force (NAF) staff.

    • B.

      Major command (MAJCOM) personnel.

    • C.

      The military personnel section chief.

    • D.

      The manpower and personnel flight commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. Major command (MAJCOM) personnel.
    Explanation
    Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC) was established, personnel specialists would contact major command (MAJCOM) personnel when they were unable to answer a question. This suggests that major command personnel had the knowledge and expertise to provide assistance and guidance in such situations. The TFSC likely replaced this process by centralizing and streamlining personnel services, making it unnecessary to contact MAJCOM personnel directly.

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  • 23. 

    If you are in the rank of E–7 or above and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel cannot answer, the person you speak with will

    • A.

      Place a trouble ticket into the system with your name and your question attached to a subject matter expert (SME).

    • B.

      Take a message and call you back within 12 hours.

    • C.

      Take a message and call you back within 48 hours.

    • D.

      Locate and connect you to a SME to answer your question.

    Correct Answer
    D. Locate and connect you to a SME to answer your question.
    Explanation
    If you are in the rank of E-7 or above and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel cannot answer, the person you speak with will locate and connect you to a subject matter expert (SME) to answer your question. This means that they will find the appropriate SME who has the knowledge and expertise to address your specific question and connect you with them so that you can get the information you need.

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  • 24. 

    Which group is not serviced by military personnel section (MPS) personnelists?

    • A.

      Air Force retirees.

    • B.

      Air Force dependents.

    • C.

      Air Force active duty members.

    • D.

      Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.

    Correct Answer
    D. Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.
    Explanation
    The Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members are not serviced by military personnel section (MPS) personnelists. This implies that MPS personnelists are responsible for providing services to Air Force retirees, Air Force dependents, and Air Force active duty members.

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  • 25. 

    What area is the focal point for the translation of all military personnel policies and programs into individual actions affecting people?

    • A.

      Customer support element.

    • B.

      Career enhancement element.

    • C.

      Military personnel section (MPS).

    • D.

      Commander’s support staff (CSS).

    Correct Answer
    C. Military personnel section (MPS).
    Explanation
    The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for translating all military personnel policies and programs into individual actions affecting people. They serve as the focal point for ensuring that these policies and programs are implemented correctly and that individual members of the military understand and comply with them. The MPS is responsible for managing personnel records, providing support and guidance to military personnel, and ensuring that all personnel actions are carried out in accordance with established policies and regulations.

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  • 26. 

    The difference between the new concept of the military personnel section (MPS) and the old concept of the military personnel flight (MPF) is, rather than assign specific individuals to specific tasks,

    • A.

      The base training manager will assist the personnelist.

    • B.

      Each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in his or her area.

    • C.

      Manning assistance will be requested to assist the personnelist with the task.

    • D.

      Each personnelist is responsible for learning manpower, personnel, and services tasks.

    Correct Answer
    B. Each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in his or her area.
    Explanation
    In the new concept of the military personnel section (MPS), each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in his or her area. This means that instead of assigning specific individuals to specific tasks, the personnelist will be trained to handle all tasks within their designated area. This allows for more flexibility and efficiency in managing personnel and ensures that there is always someone available to handle any task that may arise.

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  • 27. 

    On average, in-house training should be held how many times per week?

    • A.

      Once.

    • B.

      Twice.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four.

    Correct Answer
    A. Once.
    Explanation
    The question asks about the average frequency of in-house training sessions per week. The correct answer is "Once" because it implies that, on average, in-house training should be held once per week. This suggests that organizations typically schedule one training session per week to ensure that employees receive regular training and development opportunities.

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  • 28. 

    Who assures training is accomplished and decides which training will be taught in the military personnel section (MPS)?

    • A.

      MPS chief or designated representative.

    • B.

      Force support squadron (FSS) commander.

    • C.

      NCOICs from each section.

    • D.

      MPS commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. MPS chief or designated representative.
    Explanation
    The MPS chief or designated representative is responsible for assuring that training is accomplished and deciding which training will be taught in the military personnel section. This individual has the authority and knowledge to determine the training needs of the section and ensure that the appropriate training is provided. The MPS chief or designated representative is the most qualified person to make these decisions, as they have a comprehensive understanding of the section's requirements and goals.

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  • 29. 

    Once program budget decision (PBD) 720 was implemented, many of the daily operations of the commander’s support staff (CSS) were

    • A.

      Dissolved.

    • B.

      Streamlined.

    • C.

      Reassigned to individuals within the squadron.

    • D.

      Reassigned to the most knowledgeable base agencies.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reassigned to individuals within the squadron.
    Explanation
    After the implementation of program budget decision (PBD) 720, the daily operations of the commander's support staff (CSS) were reassigned to individuals within the squadron. This suggests that the responsibilities and tasks previously handled by the CSS were distributed among different individuals within the squadron. This could be a result of the CSS being dissolved or reduced in its role, and the need to ensure that the necessary tasks are still being carried out by members of the squadron.

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  • 30. 

    Which personnel action is not required to be completed by individuals in the commander’s support staff (CSS)?

    • A.

      Allocation notices.

    • B.

      Performance feedback notices.

    • C.

      Enlisted/officer performance report on individual personnel (RIP).

    • D.

      Rotation of unit personnel into other base agencies.

    Correct Answer
    D. Rotation of unit personnel into other base agencies.
    Explanation
    The rotation of unit personnel into other base agencies is not required to be completed by individuals in the commander's support staff (CSS). This action involves transferring personnel from one base agency to another, which is typically handled by higher-level authorities or personnel management offices. The CSS is responsible for tasks such as allocation notices, performance feedback notices, and enlisted/officer performance reports on individual personnel. These actions directly pertain to the CSS's role in supporting the commander and managing personnel within their own unit.

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  • 31. 

    The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for activities within the

    • A.

      Geographically separated unit (GSU) and satellite personnel activity (SPA).

    • B.

      Customer service element and force management operations element.

    • C.

      Commander’s support staff (CSS) and customer service element.

    • D.

      GSU and total force service center (TFSC).

    Correct Answer
    A. GeograpHically separated unit (GSU) and satellite personnel activity (SPA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is geographically separated unit (GSU) and satellite personnel activity (SPA). The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for activities within these two units. The MPS handles personnel matters and provides support services to both the GSU and SPA. These units may be located in different geographic locations, but the MPS ensures that they receive the necessary personnel support and services.

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  • 32. 

    Who determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the satellite personnel activity (SPA)?

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • B.

      Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander.

    • C.

      Host military personnel section (MPS) commander.

    • D.

      Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Host military personnel section (MPS) commander.
    Explanation
    The host military personnel section (MPS) commander determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the satellite personnel activity (SPA). This individual is responsible for overseeing the personnel activities and ensuring that the appropriate tasks are assigned to the SPA.

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  • 33. 

    An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a

    • A.

      Listing of experience needed to qualify for position.

    • B.

      Grouping of people with precise skills and qualifications.

    • C.

      Listing of training classes needed to qualify for a position.

    • D.

      Grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications.

    Correct Answer
    D. Grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications.
    Explanation
    An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications. This means that individuals with the same AFSC will have similar training, experience, and qualifications, allowing them to perform similar roles within the Air Force. This grouping helps to streamline the organization and ensure that individuals with the necessary skills are assigned to the appropriate positions.

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  • 34. 

    Where can you find the list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty?

    • A.

      Recruiter’s Directory.

    • B.

      Enlisted Classification Directory.

    • C.

      Enlisted Force Structure Directory.

    • D.

      Retraining Classification Directory.

    Correct Answer
    B. Enlisted Classification Directory.
    Explanation
    The Enlisted Classification Directory is the correct answer because it is a comprehensive resource that provides the list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty. This directory is used by recruiters and military personnel to understand the requirements and expectations of different job roles within the enlisted ranks. It helps in determining the qualifications and skills needed for specific positions and assists in making informed decisions regarding career choices and retraining opportunities.

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  • 35. 

    The item within the classification structure used to identify positions or persons not elsewhere identified is the

    • A.

      Reporting identifier.

    • B.

      Special duty.

    • C.

      Air Force specialty code.

    • D.

      Special experience.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reporting identifier.
    Explanation
    A reporting identifier is used within the classification structure to identify positions or persons that are not identified elsewhere. This means that it serves as a unique identifier for individuals or roles that do not fit into any other category or classification. It helps to differentiate and track these specific positions or persons within the overall structure.

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  • 36. 

    If an Airman fails to progress in training due to reading and comprehension, how would the Airman be disqualified within the classification structure?

    • A.

      Within reasons beyond their control.

    • B.

      Within reasons within their control.

    • C.

      Drug and alcohol involvement.

    • D.

      Substandard duty performance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Within reasons beyond their control.
    Explanation
    If an Airman fails to progress in training due to reading and comprehension, they would be disqualified within the classification structure within reasons beyond their control. This means that the Airman's inability to progress is not their fault, but rather due to external factors that they have no control over. This could include learning disabilities, language barriers, or other circumstances that hinder their ability to improve their reading and comprehension skills.

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  • 37. 

    Which is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member’s control?

    • A.

      A medical condition.

    • B.

      Loss of security clearance.

    • C.

      Drug or alcohol involvement.

    • D.

      Failure to progress in training.

    Correct Answer
    A. A medical condition.
    Explanation
    A medical condition is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member's control because it is typically not something that an individual can control or prevent. Medical conditions can arise due to various factors such as genetics, accidents, or exposure to certain substances, and individuals cannot be held responsible for these circumstances. On the other hand, loss of security clearance, drug or alcohol involvement, and failure to progress in training are examples of disqualifications that can be attributed to an individual's actions or choices.

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  • 38. 

    What is not a duty of the personnelist career field?

    • A.

      Performs personnel actions.

    • B.

      Creates, maintains, and audits personnel records.

    • C.

      Conducts interviews to determine individual interests.

    • D.

      Advises officers and Airmen on military personnel issues and programs.

    Correct Answer
    C. Conducts interviews to determine individual interests.
    Explanation
    The personnelist career field is responsible for performing personnel actions, creating and maintaining personnel records, and advising officers and Airmen on military personnel issues and programs. However, conducting interviews to determine individual interests is not a duty of the personnelist career field. This task is typically performed by career counselors or guidance counselors who specialize in helping individuals explore their interests and career options.

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  • 39. 

    Responsibilities of the personnelist does not include having to

    • A.

      Administer the casualty program.

    • B.

      Update computerized personnel data.

    • C.

      Oversee personnel activities and functions.

    • D.

      Record information in unit, field, and Personnel Data System (PDS) records.

    Correct Answer
    C. Oversee personnel activities and functions.
    Explanation
    The responsibilities of a personnelist include administering the casualty program, updating computerized personnel data, and recording information in unit, field, and Personnel Data System (PDS) records. However, overseeing personnel activities and functions is not one of their responsibilities.

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  • 40. 

    The National Security Act of 1974 established all of the military departments except

    • A.

      Air Force.

    • B.

      Marines.

    • C.

      Navy.

    • D.

      Army.

    Correct Answer
    B. Marines.
    Explanation
    The National Security Act of 1974 established the Department of Defense, which includes the Army, Navy, and Air Force. However, the Marine Corps is not considered a separate military department but rather operates under the Department of the Navy. Therefore, the correct answer is Marines.

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  • 41. 

    Which office prepares and distributes the unit manpower document (UMD)?

    • A.

      Career development.

    • B.

      Force support squadron.

    • C.

      Manpower office.

    • D.

      Airman and family readiness.

    Correct Answer
    C. Manpower office.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Manpower office. The Manpower office is responsible for preparing and distributing the unit manpower document (UMD). This document outlines the personnel requirements and allocations within a specific unit. It helps in ensuring that the unit has the necessary manpower to carry out its mission effectively. The Manpower office plays a crucial role in managing and organizing the personnel resources within the organization.

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  • 42. 

    How often is the unit manpower document (UMD) used?

    • A.

      Daily.

    • B.

      Weekly.

    • C.

      Monthly.

    • D.

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily.
    Explanation
    The unit manpower document (UMD) is used on a daily basis. This document is essential for tracking and managing the personnel resources within a unit. It provides information such as the number of personnel available, their roles and responsibilities, and any changes in staffing. By using the UMD daily, units can ensure that they have the necessary manpower to carry out their tasks effectively and efficiently.

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  • 43. 

    Who publicizes availability of the Enlisted Promotions References and Requirements Catalog (EPRRC)?

    • A.

      Commander’s support staff.

    • B.

      Military personnel section admin.

    • C.

      Force support squadron secretary.

    • D.

      Military support group staff.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander’s support staff.
    Explanation
    The Commander's support staff is responsible for publicizing the availability of the Enlisted Promotions References and Requirements Catalog (EPRRC). They are in charge of disseminating information and ensuring that the catalog is accessible to military personnel.

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  • 44. 

    The commander’s support staff (CSS) is responsible to assist unit personnel with all of these Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) requirements except

    • A.

      Identifying reference requirements.

    • B.

      Printing out and distributing Enlisted Promotions References and Requirements Catalogs (EPRRC) to all individuals.

    • C.

      Obtaining study reference materials such as career development courses (CDC) and the Airman Handbook.

    • D.

      Ensuring availability of non-CDC reference materials.

    Correct Answer
    B. Printing out and distributing Enlisted Promotions References and Requirements Catalogs (EPRRC) to all individuals.
    Explanation
    The commander's support staff (CSS) assists unit personnel with various Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) requirements. This includes identifying reference requirements, obtaining study reference materials such as career development courses (CDC) and the Airman Handbook, and ensuring availability of non-CDC reference materials. However, they are not responsible for printing out and distributing Enlisted Promotions References and Requirements Catalogs (EPRRC) to all individuals.

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  • 45. 

    Leave accrues at how many days per calendar month?

    • A.

      1.5.

    • B.

      2.5.

    • C.

      .5.

    • D.

      3.0.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.5.
    Explanation
    Leave accrues at a rate of 2.5 days per calendar month.

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  • 46. 

    Leave must begin and end where?

    • A.

      Local area.

    • B.

      Home of record.

    • C.

      Base.

    • D.

      Work.

    Correct Answer
    A. Local area.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Local area" because when referring to leave, it typically means taking time off from work or military duty to spend time in the nearby vicinity or within a certain distance from where the person is currently located. Therefore, leave must begin and end in the local area, which is the immediate surrounding area or region where the individual is stationed or residing.

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  • 47. 

    Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset the cost for a member’s

    • A.

      Clothing allowance.

    • B.

      Health insurance.

    • C.

      Electric bill.

    • D.

      Meals.

    Correct Answer
    D. Meals.
    Explanation
    Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is a military benefit designed to cover the cost of meals for service members. It is provided to offset the expenses of food while on duty or during deployments. This allowance acknowledges that service members may not have access to affordable or convenient meal options and helps to ensure they have adequate nutrition while serving. Therefore, BAS is specifically intended to cover the cost of meals rather than clothing allowance, health insurance, or electric bills.

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  • 48. 

    The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two items?

    • A.

      Food and housing requirements.

    • B.

      Room and laundry services.

    • C.

      Rations and transportation.

    • D.

      Room and board.

    Correct Answer
    D. Room and board.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Room and board." The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is a military benefit that provides funding to service members to cover the costs of meals. "Room and board" refers to the provision of both accommodation and meals, which were historically provided by the military. This answer aligns with the concept of BAS and the historical origins of the military.

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  • 49. 

    What is furnished to enlisted personnel at government expense as essential station messing (ESM)?

    • A.

      Food.

    • B.

      Clothing.

    • C.

      Housing.

    • D.

      Cleaning supplies.

    Correct Answer
    A. Food.
    Explanation
    Enlisted personnel are provided with essential station messing (ESM) at government expense, which refers to the provision of food. This means that the government covers the cost of providing meals to enlisted personnel, ensuring that they have access to nutritious and sufficient food while on duty. This is an important benefit for enlisted personnel, as it helps to meet their basic needs and supports their overall well-being and performance in their military duties.

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  • 50. 

    What is an Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)-standardized managed computer support system that effectively executes formal training across the Air Force?

    • A.

      Orders processing application (OPA).

    • B.

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

    • C.

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • D.

      Oracle training administration (OTA).

    Correct Answer
    D. Oracle training administration (OTA).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oracle training administration (OTA). Oracle training administration is a computer support system that is standardized by the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) and effectively executes formal training across the Air Force. It is specifically designed to manage and administer training programs within the Air Force.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 22, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Dwdeason
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