1.
The Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) is not used to
Correct Answer
A. Provide a way to process a shipment through the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).
Explanation
The Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) is not used to provide a way to process a shipment through the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA). This means that the ATCMD does not serve as a method for facilitating the processing of a shipment through the ACA.
2.
The shipper’s second step and responsibility in the shipping process is to
Correct Answer
C. Use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD).
Explanation
The shipper's second step and responsibility in the shipping process is to use all information gathered to prepare the DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD). This form is necessary for documenting and tracking the movement of the shipment. It includes important details such as the origin and destination of the shipment, the type and quantity of goods being shipped, and any special handling instructions. By completing this form accurately, the shipper ensures that the shipment is properly documented and can be tracked throughout the shipping process.
3.
Another name for a receiver is a
Correct Answer
C. Consignee.
Explanation
A receiver is someone who receives goods or items from a sender or shipper. In the context of logistics and transportation, the term "consignee" is commonly used to refer to the person or entity that is designated to receive the shipment. Therefore, "consignee" is the correct answer as it accurately describes the role of a receiver in the transportation and logistics industry.
4.
Which agency challenges shipments in the Defense Transportation System (DTS) and is the critical link between the shipper, transshipper, and receiver?
Correct Answer
B. Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA).
Explanation
The Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) is the agency that challenges shipments in the Defense Transportation System (DTS) and serves as the critical link between the shipper, transshipper, and receiver. They are responsible for ensuring that all necessary clearances and approvals are obtained for the transportation of goods by air. This includes coordinating with various stakeholders and verifying compliance with regulations and requirements. The ACA plays a vital role in the smooth and efficient movement of shipments within the DTS.
5.
When is a shipment, other than TP–4 cargo, considered cleared by the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA)?
Correct Answer
D. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) date shipped field.
Explanation
The correct answer is when the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field. This means that the shipment is considered cleared by the ACA as long as they have not raised any issues or challenges regarding the date of shipment entered in the ATCMD. It implies that all necessary procedures and requirements have been met for the shipment to be considered cleared by the ACA.
6.
What two types of data are entered on the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)?
Correct Answer
A. Prime and trailer
Explanation
The Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) is used to enter two types of data: prime and trailer. The prime data refers to the primary information about the transportation, such as the origin, destination, and type of goods being transported. The trailer data, on the other hand, includes additional information related to the transportation, such as the weight, dimensions, and any special requirements. By including both prime and trailer data on the TCMD, all necessary information about the transportation can be recorded and tracked efficiently.
7.
Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) explains how to fill out a Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) block-by-block?
Correct Answer
B. M
Explanation
Appendix M in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) explains how to fill out a Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) block-by-block.
8.
What type of code represents the consignor/consignee blocks of the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)?
Correct Answer
D. Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC).
Explanation
The correct answer is the Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC). The consignor/consignee blocks of the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) are represented by the DODAAC code. This code is used to identify the specific activity or organization that is sending or receiving the shipment. It is an important part of the TCMD as it helps in accurately tracking and managing the movement of goods within the Department of Defense.
9.
You can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC) when
Correct Answer
C. The consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC.
Explanation
When the consignor or consignee does not have an assigned DODAAC, you can use the sponsoring service code followed by five zeros for a Department of Defense Activity Address Code (DODAAC). This allows you to proceed with the shipment even without a specific DODAAC for the consignor or consignee.
10.
What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you?
Correct Answer
B. The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated.
Explanation
The air commodity and special handling codes provide information about the nature of the shipment and how it should be treated. These codes indicate any special requirements or instructions for handling the shipment, such as whether it is fragile, hazardous, or perishable. They also provide information on any specific packaging or labeling requirements. By understanding these codes, logistics personnel can ensure that the shipment is handled appropriately and that any necessary precautions are taken to protect the contents during transportation.
11.
Which transportation priority (TP) includes shipments requiring routine transportation?
Correct Answer
C. TP–3.
Explanation
TP-3 includes shipments requiring routine transportation. This means that TP-3 is the priority level for shipments that do not have any urgent or time-sensitive requirements. It is for shipments that can be transported in a regular and routine manner without any special considerations or expedited handling.
12.
The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the
Correct Answer
C. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.
Explanation
The correct answer is the Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date. This is because the question is asking for the components of the three-position date shipped code, and the correct answer includes both the GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.
13.
You use the transportation account codes (TAC) to
Correct Answer
C. link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments.
Explanation
The transportation account codes (TAC) are used to link movement authority, funding approval, and accounting data for shipments. This means that the TAC helps to connect the necessary information and documentation for the shipment, such as the authorization for movement, the approved funding for transportation, and the accounting data related to the shipment. By using the TAC, all of these important aspects are tied together, ensuring that the shipment is properly accounted for and managed throughout the transportation process.
14.
What is the formula to determine the cube of a shipment?
Correct Answer
D. Length × width × height ÷ 1728.
Explanation
The formula to determine the cube of a shipment is to calculate the length multiplied by the width multiplied by the height, and then divide the result by 1728. This is because there are 1728 cubic inches in a cubic foot, and by dividing the product of the dimensions by this value, we can obtain the volume of the shipment in cubic feet.
15.
When a shipment arrives at the air terminal, your first job is to ensure the
Correct Answer
C. Shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal.
Explanation
The correct answer is "shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal." This answer is correct because the question asks about the first job when a shipment arrives at the air terminal, and ensuring that the shipment is supposed to come to your air terminal would be the initial step in handling the shipment.
16.
Which publication provides detailed guidance on how to mark and label cargo properly?
Correct Answer
C. MIL–STD–129, Military Marking for Shipment and Storage.
Explanation
MIL-STD-129, Military Marking for Shipment and Storage, provides detailed guidance on how to mark and label cargo properly. This publication is specifically focused on military shipments and storage, ensuring that they are properly marked for identification and handling. It outlines the specific requirements and standards for marking and labeling various types of cargo, including hazardous materials. This publication is essential for ensuring that cargo is handled and transported safely and efficiently.
17.
Identification markings and labels tell you
Correct Answer
A. What the shipment is.
Explanation
Identification markings and labels provide information about the contents of a shipment. They help identify what items are included in the package, allowing for proper handling and storage. By knowing what the shipment is, individuals can ensure that it is handled appropriately and delivered to the correct destination.
18.
You place two military shipment labels (MSL) on any item over how many cubic feet?
Correct Answer
B. 10
Explanation
According to the information given, two military shipment labels (MSL) are placed on any item over 10 cubic feet.
19.
When a shipment with a discrepancy is delivered to your air terminal, you may refuse it
Correct Answer
B. When the shipper delivers the shipment.
Explanation
When a shipment with a discrepancy is delivered to your air terminal, you may refuse it when the shipper delivers the shipment. This means that if there is any issue or discrepancy with the shipment, you have the right to refuse it when it is initially delivered by the shipper. This allows you to ensure that you only accept shipments that meet your requirements and standards.
20.
You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal
Correct Answer
C. When the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot.
Explanation
When a discrepancy is minor and can be corrected on the spot, it is necessary to correct it immediately upon receiving the shipment at the terminal. This ensures that the cargo is accurately accounted for and any errors or discrepancies are promptly resolved. It is important to address minor discrepancies as they arise to maintain the integrity and accuracy of the shipment records.
21.
Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?
Correct Answer
C. AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo
22.
In how many copies of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, must be prepared?
Correct Answer
B. 3
Explanation
Three copies of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, must be prepared. This is necessary to ensure that all relevant parties have a copy of the report for documentation and tracking purposes. One copy is typically kept by the reporting unit, one is sent to the originating unit, and one is sent to the receiving unit. This allows for proper record-keeping and communication between the involved parties regarding the frustrated cargo.
23.
After the Customer Service Branch (CSB)/Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions must the work center take?
Correct Answer
C. Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file them both.
Explanation
The work center must compare the returned AMC Form 33 to the copy they have on file to ensure that all discrepancies were corrected. They should then file both copies for their records.
24.
Using manual procedures, when you annotate the Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD), what does it represent?
Correct Answer
B. The system entry time (SET).
Explanation
When annotating the GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival on the TCMD, it represents the system entry time (SET). This means that it indicates the time at which the shipment was entered into the system.
25.
When the system entry time (SET) is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the
Correct Answer
B. Expedited handling indicators and the required delivery date (RDD).
Explanation
When the system entry time (SET) is equal for two or more shipments, the expedited handling indicators and the required delivery date (RDD) are used to determine which shipments are processed first. This means that shipments with expedited handling indicators and earlier RDDs will be given priority over other shipments. The expedited handling indicators and RDD help ensure that shipments with urgent delivery requirements are processed and delivered on time.
26.
Within how many hours of receipt must you process all cargo?
Correct Answer
B. 6
Explanation
Cargo must be processed within 6 hours of receipt. This means that once the cargo is received, it should be promptly handled, sorted, and prepared for further transportation or storage. Processing the cargo within this time frame ensures that it is efficiently managed and reduces the risk of delays or damage. It also helps in maintaining the overall supply chain operations and meeting customer expectations.
27.
You finalize the receipt of a shipment by
Correct Answer
C. Writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD.
Explanation
Finalizing the receipt of a shipment involves documenting the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD). This step ensures that the location of the shipment is recorded for tracking and inventory purposes.
28.
At manual stations or when a manual manifest is used, Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel write which information on the inbound manifests they deliver to the cargo processing function?
Correct Answer
C. GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner.
Explanation
The correct answer is GMT and Julian date of the aircraft block time in the top right-hand corner. This is because ATOC personnel write the Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) and Julian date of the aircraft block time on the inbound manifests they deliver to the cargo processing function. The information is written in the top right-hand corner of the manifest.
29.
When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests and Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel attempt to acquire them, you must
Correct Answer
C. prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action.
Explanation
When aircraft arrive without cargo manifests, it is important to prepare a substitute manifest and start processing anything that requires immediate action. This means that even without the official cargo manifests, the ATOC personnel can create a temporary document to keep track of the cargo and begin processing the shipments that need immediate attention. This allows for efficient handling of the cargo and prevents any delays in processing and delivery.
30.
Which Air Mobility Command (AMC) form is used to log all terminating cargo and mail manifests?
Correct Answer
B. 156.
Explanation
AMC Form 156 is used to log all terminating cargo and mail manifests. This form is specifically designed for Air Mobility Command and is used to document the details of cargo and mail that are being unloaded from an aircraft. It helps in maintaining a record of the cargo and mail that has been received and allows for easy tracking and accountability.
31.
A short shipment is a shipment that
Correct Answer
C. Is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal.
Explanation
The correct answer is "is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal." This means that the shipment was supposed to be included in the manifest, which is a document listing all the items being transported, but it did not actually arrive at the air terminal as expected. This could be due to various reasons such as misplacement, theft, or administrative error.
32.
Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment?
Correct Answer
C. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) duty officer.
Explanation
The Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) duty officer is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment. As the duty officer at the ATOC, they oversee the operations and security of the air terminal, including the handling of shipments. If there is suspicion or evidence of pilferage, it is their responsibility to launch an investigation to determine what has happened and take appropriate action. This includes coordinating with other relevant parties such as security forces and customer service to ensure a thorough investigation is conducted.
33.
You leave in transit pallets intact, without removing the nets, tie downs, or radio frequency identification (RFID) tags when the pallets
Correct Answer
C. Are destined for a single location.
Explanation
The correct answer is "are destined for a single location." This means that the pallets are only being delivered to one specific place. If they were destined for more than one location, it would be necessary to remove the nets, tie downs, and RFID tags in order to properly distribute the items. However, since they are only going to one location, there is no need to remove these items.
34.
You must obtain a signature from everyone who picks up terminating cargo, except
Correct Answer
A. Traffic Management Office (TMO) personnel, when under operational control of AMC and located in the same facility.
35.
An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
Correct Answer
B. 7,500.
Explanation
Each ring on a 463L pallet can restrain up to 7,500 pounds of cargo.
36.
You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. As a minimum, how many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?
Correct Answer
B. Two.
Explanation
To safely winch a heavy pallet into position on an aircraft, a minimum of two attaching points should be used. This ensures that the load is evenly distributed and securely fastened, reducing the risk of the pallet shifting or becoming unstable during the loading process. Using only one attaching point may result in an unbalanced load and potential safety hazards. Therefore, it is necessary to use at least two attaching points for a safe winching operation.
37.
You are deployed and a cargo user has offered several dirty cargo pallets for air transportation. Which one of the following is considered acceptable?
Correct Answer
A. A thin film of road dust.
Explanation
A thin film of road dust is considered acceptable because it is a small amount of dirt that is likely to be present on cargo pallets during transportation. It does not pose a significant risk to the cargo or the aircraft and can be easily cleaned off before loading. Chunks of mud under a vehicle and dirt and sand that you can pinch with your fingers are not acceptable as they indicate a larger amount of dirt that can potentially cause damage or contamination. No amount of dirt is also not acceptable as it implies that any level of dirt is permissible, which is not the case.
38.
You have been tasked to scout your deployed location to look for pallets that are inappropriately stored and provide guidance to the users on how to stack them properly. One user has hundreds of pallets scattered over the yard and wants to know what the maximum number of pallets that can be stacked for storage (provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed)?
Correct Answer
D. 50
Explanation
The correct answer is 50 because the user wants to know the maximum number of pallets that can be stacked for storage. Since there are hundreds of pallets scattered over the yard, it implies that there is no limitation on the number of pallets available. Therefore, the maximum number of pallets that can be stacked for storage would be the highest number provided as an option, which is 50.
39.
A cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets to your unit, which you will be shipping to another location via air. How many of these pallets maximum can you ship in one stack, provided adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, and excluding the base support pallet?
Correct Answer
A. 20.
Explanation
The question states that the cargo user has returned 60 empty 463L pallets. It then asks how many of these pallets can be shipped in one stack, excluding the base support pallet. The maximum number of pallets that can be shipped in one stack would depend on the dimensions and weight restrictions of the aircraft being used for shipping. However, the question mentions that adequate dunnage is appropriately placed, which suggests that the pallets can be stacked on top of each other securely. Therefore, the maximum number of pallets that can be shipped in one stack would be limited by the height of the aircraft cargo hold. Without further information on the dimensions of the cargo hold, it is not possible to determine the exact number.
40.
Your supervisor has asked you to restrain four pallets in the warehouse with varying weights and heights. Which pallet is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set?
Correct Answer
B. An 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds.
Explanation
The 89-inch high pallet weighing 8,225 pounds is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set because it is the tallest and heaviest pallet among the options. The taller and heavier the pallet, the more force it can exert and the more difficult it is to restrain. Therefore, a full 463L net set would be the most suitable and effective in securing this particular pallet.
41.
You are building a multi-pallet train using one-inch couplers. Which aircraft can this train be loaded on, assuming it is properly configured?
Correct Answer
D. DC–10.
Explanation
The DC-10 is the correct answer because it is capable of carrying multi-pallet trains using one-inch couplers. The other aircraft options listed, such as the C-5, C-17, and C-130, may have different capabilities or requirements for loading and transporting multi-pallet trains.
42.
You are issuing three CGU–1/B straps to an Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) C–130. Which form would you use to maintain accountability for the items issued to this aircraft?
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt.
Explanation
The AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt, is the correct form to use to maintain accountability for the items issued to the AFSOC C-130 aircraft. This form is commonly used to document temporary issues of equipment and ensures that there is a record of what items have been issued and to whom. It helps in maintaining accountability and tracking the equipment throughout its use.
43.
You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy (AVB), and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which two other factors will you use to consider which piece to build?
Correct Answer
C. Movement indicator and SET.
Explanation
The movement indicator and system entry time (SET) are the two factors that will be considered when deciding which piece to build. The movement indicator indicates the urgency or priority of the cargo, while the SET determines the order in which the cargo will be loaded onto the aircraft. By considering both factors, the most important and time-sensitive cargo can be prioritized for immediate loading onto the pallet.
44.
When internal slingable unit (ISU) containers are damaged during deployments, they may be accepted for airlift so the ISU can be returned to the depot for repair. How must they be prepared for airlift?
Correct Answer
A. Empty and placed on base support pallet.
45.
You must break down an originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo if there is a difference of how many pounds between the documented and actual weight?
Correct Answer
B. 150.
Explanation
If there is a difference of 150 pounds between the documented and actual weight, it is necessary to break down the originating pallet and individually weigh each piece of cargo. This is because the difference in weight indicates a potential discrepancy or error in the documentation, and individually weighing each piece of cargo will help identify the specific item or items that are contributing to the difference.
46.
When building multi-pallet trains, you may need to use dunnage to help distribute the weight evenly. The weight of the dunnage is annotated as what kind of weight?
Correct Answer
B. Tare.
Explanation
When building multi-pallet trains, dunnage is used to help distribute the weight evenly. The weight of the dunnage is annotated as tare weight. Tare weight refers to the weight of the packaging or container that holds the goods, excluding the goods themselves. In this case, the dunnage is considered part of the packaging and is therefore included in the tare weight.
47.
What must be considered when building a multi-pallet train?
Correct Answer
D. Materials handling equipment (MHE) required to handle the pallet train.
Explanation
When building a multi-pallet train, it is important to consider the materials handling equipment (MHE) required to handle the train. This means that the equipment needed to transport and move the pallets should be taken into account. This includes considering the size, weight, and type of MHE required to efficiently handle the pallet train. Immigrations clearance, supply of pallet covers, and multi-pallets in back log are unrelated factors that do not directly impact the construction of the multi-pallet train.
48.
Who is responsible for weighing and marking each item with the correct gross weight and center of balance (C/B) point?
Correct Answer
A. Shipper.
Explanation
The shipper is responsible for weighing and marking each item with the correct gross weight and center of balance (C/B) point. The shipper is the person or company that is responsible for preparing and packaging the items to be shipped. They are responsible for ensuring that the items are properly weighed and marked with the correct gross weight and C/B point to ensure safe and efficient transportation. The load master is responsible for the safe loading and unloading of cargo onto an aircraft or ship. The load planner is responsible for planning the distribution of weight and balance of the cargo on an aircraft or ship. The joint inspector is responsible for inspecting and certifying the cargo for shipment.
49.
You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a center of balance (C/B)?
Correct Answer
D. Single pallet.
Explanation
The single pallet does not need to be marked with a center of balance because it is a single unit and does not have any specific weight distribution concerns.
50.
If the shipper decides to remove cargo from a weighed and marked vehicle, what must be re-accomplished?
Correct Answer
B. Reweighing and recomputing C/B.
Explanation
If the shipper decides to remove cargo from a weighed and marked vehicle, the cargo weight needs to be rechecked by reweighing the vehicle. Additionally, the weight of the remaining cargo needs to be recomputed to determine the new center of balance (C/B) of the vehicle. This is necessary to ensure that the vehicle remains stable and safe for transportation.