Which of the following best states the purpose of standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?

Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both the recognized and unrecognized source of infection in hospitals.

Prevent risk of transmission of blood pathogens.

Reduce spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organisms known method of transportation.

Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organisms known method of reproduction.

What should you do if your clothes become contaminated at work?

Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water.

Change into clean clothes and throw the infected clothes in the trash

Wipe off the affected area and continue wearing your clothes home.

Wipe off the infection area, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water.

A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by

using the telephone or locally derived form

completing an Air Force (AF) Form 422, Physical Profile

paging a Public Health representative to report to the clinic

faxing a Standard Form (SF) 600, Chronological Record of Patient Care.

When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on

before entering, and take it off before leaving.

after entering the unit, and take it off before leaving

after entering the unit, and take it off after leaving.

before entering, and take it off after leaving.

What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

When package integrity is compromised.

What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

Patient’s full name and date of birth.

Patient’s full name and Social Security Number

Patient’s Social Security Number and date of birth

Patient’s last name, age, and Social Security Number

What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control.

Risk management and patient safety

Competent patient-centered care and a culture of safety

The very low-density lipoproteins transport

triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells.

glucose from the small intestine to the liver to be stored as glycogen

amino acids to the liver to dispose of most of the cholesterol through bile.

lipids from the liver to the stomach where they are joined with amino acid

Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?

Increased cellular oxygen content

Calcium loss in females is first noticed

B4N051 CDC Volume 1 Ure's (2018, Edit Code 05)

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team

The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.

Learn about Our Editorial Process

| By Akamoosejr

Akamoosejr

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 342

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 164 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

Questions

Settings

Feedback

During the Quiz End of Quiz

Play as

Quiz Flashcard

Create your own Quiz

B4N051 CDC Volume 1 Ures (2018, Edit Code 05) - Quiz

Questions and Answers

1.

What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation?
- A.
  
  The Joint Commision
- B.
  
  Infection control committee
- C.
  
  American College of Surgeons
- D.
  
  Center of Disease Control
Correct Answer
A. The Joint Commision

Explanation
The Joint Commission is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation. They are an independent, non-profit organization that sets standards for healthcare organizations and evaluates their compliance with these standards. The Joint Commission's accreditation is recognized nationwide as a symbol of quality and safety in healthcare. They work closely with healthcare professionals and organizations to continuously improve the quality of patient care and promote patient safety.

Rate this question:
2.

As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operation instructions (OI) be reviewed?
- A.
  
  Quarterly
- B.
  
  Annually
- C.
  
  Every Two Years
- D.
  
  As Needed
Correct Answer
B. Annually

Explanation
Area-specific general operation instructions (OI) should be reviewed annually to ensure that they are up-to-date and in compliance with any changes in regulations, procedures, or best practices. This regular review allows for any necessary updates or revisions to be made, ensuring that the instructions accurately reflect the current operating conditions and requirements. By reviewing the OIs annually, organizations can maintain a high level of safety, efficiency, and effectiveness in their operations.

Rate this question:
3.

Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?
- A.
  
  Antigen
- B.
  
  Antibody
- C.
  
  Pathogen
- D.
  
  Micro-organizsm
Correct Answer
C. Pathogen

Explanation
A pathogen is an organism that causes infection and disease. It can be a bacterium, virus, fungus, or parasite that invades the body and disrupts its normal functioning. Pathogens can harm the host by releasing toxins, damaging cells, or triggering an immune response. They can be transmitted through various means such as direct contact, contaminated food or water, or through the air. Identifying and understanding pathogens is crucial in preventing and treating infectious diseases.

Rate this question:
4.

Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?
- A.
  
  Helminths
- B.
  
  Viruses
- C.
  
  Bacteria
- D.
  
  Fungi
Correct Answer
C. Bacteria

Explanation
Bacteria are primitive one-celled organisms that reproduce rapidly. They are considered infectious agents because they can cause infections in humans and other organisms. Unlike viruses, which are not considered living organisms, bacteria have their own cellular structure and can carry out various metabolic processes. They can be found in various environments and can cause a wide range of diseases in humans, animals, and plants. Therefore, bacteria are the correct answer to the question.

Rate this question:
5.

Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds?
- A.
  
  Fungi
- B.
  
  Viruses
- C.
  
  Bacteria
- D.
  
  Clymidiae
Correct Answer
A. Fungi

Explanation
Fungi is the correct answer because it is the only infectious agent that includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds. Yeast refers to single-celled fungi, while molds refer to multicellular fungi that form thread-like structures. Viruses, bacteria, and chlamydiae do not have these specific structural categories.

Rate this question:
6.

What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?
- A.
  
  Water and soil
- B.
  
  Cool and dry
- C.
  
  Warm and Moist
- D.
  
  Susceptible tissue
Correct Answer
D. Susceptible tissue

Explanation
For a virus to multiply, it requires a suitable environment that allows it to infect and replicate within living cells. Susceptible tissue refers to cells or organisms that are vulnerable to viral infection. This condition is necessary because viruses cannot multiply on their own and need to invade and take over host cells to reproduce. Therefore, the presence of susceptible tissue is crucial for the multiplication of viruses.

Rate this question:
7.

Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?
- A.
  
  Option 1
- B.
  
  Virulence
- C.
  
  Incubation
- D.
  
  Convalescence
Correct Answer
C. Incubation

Explanation
The correct answer is Incubation. Incubation refers to the stage of infection when the infectious agent has entered the body but the person does not yet exhibit any symptoms of the disease. During this stage, the agent multiplies and begins to spread within the body. The length of the incubation period can vary depending on the specific disease and the individual's immune response. Once the incubation period is over, the person may start experiencing symptoms and enter the next stage of the infection.

Rate this question:
8.

Which of the following best states the purpose of standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?
- A.
  
  Prevent risk of transmission of blood pathogens.
- B.
  
  Reduce spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organisms known method of transportation.
- C.
  
  Prevent the spread of infectious agents by interfering with the organisms known method of reproduction.
- D.
  
  Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both the recognized and unrecognized source of infection in hospitals.
Correct Answer
D. Reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both the recognized and unrecognized source of infection in hospitals.

Explanation
Standard precautions are recommended by the CDC to reduce the risk of transmission of micro-organisms from both recognized and unrecognized sources of infection in hospitals. This means that these precautions are put in place to prevent the spread of infectious agents, regardless of whether the source of infection is known or not. By following standard precautions, healthcare workers can minimize the transmission of micro-organisms and protect themselves and others from infections in healthcare settings.

Rate this question:
9.

What should you do if your clothes become contaminated at work?
- A.
  
  Change into clean clothes and throw the infected clothes in the trash
- B.
  
  Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water.
- C.
  
  Wipe off the affected area and continue wearing your clothes home.
- D.
  
  Wipe off the infection area, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water.
Correct Answer
B. Change into clean clothes, bag the dirty clothes and launder them in hot soapy water.

Explanation
If your clothes become contaminated at work, the best course of action is to change into clean clothes and bag the dirty clothes. Laundering them in hot soapy water will help remove any contaminants and prevent further spread of the contamination. Wiping off the affected area or continuing to wear the contaminated clothes can lead to the spread of contaminants and potential harm to yourself or others.

Rate this question:
10.

One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is
- A.
  
  Pelvic inflammatory disease.
- B.
  
  Irregular menstrual cycles.
- C.
  
  Vaginal discharge
- D.
  
  Chlamydia.
Correct Answer
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease.

Explanation
Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various complications in females. One of the most common and serious complications is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID occurs when the infection spreads from the cervix to the uterus, fallopian tubes, and other reproductive organs. It can cause severe pain, inflammation, and damage to these organs, leading to long-term complications such as infertility. While irregular menstrual cycles and vaginal discharge can also be symptoms of gonorrhea, PID is a more severe and significant complication. Chlamydia is another sexually transmitted infection that can cause similar complications but is not the correct answer in this case.

Rate this question:
11.

A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by
- A.
  
  using the telephone or locally derived form
- B.
  
  Completing an Air Force (AF) Form 422, Physical Profile
- C.
  
  Paging a Public Health representative to report to the clinic
- D.
  
  Faxing a Standard Form (SF) 600, Chronological Record of Patient Care.
Correct Answer
A. using the telepHone or locally derived form

Explanation
The correct answer is "using the telephone or locally derived form." This means that a health care provider can notify Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by either calling them on the phone or filling out a form that is specific to their local area. This allows for quick and efficient communication of important information regarding the potential spread of a disease.

Rate this question:
12.

Which medical term means the absence of infection?
- A.
  
  Antimicrobial.
- B.
  
  Antiseptic.
- C.
  
  Asepsis.
- D.
  
  Sepsis.
Correct Answer
C. Asepsis.

Explanation
Asepsis refers to the absence of infection. It is a medical term used to describe the state of being free from disease-causing microorganisms. Antimicrobial refers to substances that can kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms, while antiseptic refers to substances that can prevent infection. Sepsis, on the other hand, is a severe and life-threatening condition caused by the body's response to an infection. Therefore, asepsis is the correct answer as it directly means the absence of infection.

Rate this question:
13.

Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?
- A.
  
  Disinfectant.
- B.
  
  Antiseptic.
- C.
  
  Detergent.
- D.
  
  Antitoxin.
Correct Answer
B. Antiseptic.

Explanation
Antiseptics are substances that are used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue. Unlike disinfectants, which are used on non-living surfaces, antiseptics are specifically designed to be used on living tissue, such as skin. They help to prevent infections by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Antiseptics are commonly used in medical settings, such as before surgery or when cleaning wounds, to reduce the risk of infection.

Rate this question:
14.

When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on
- A.
  
  after entering the unit, and take it off before leaving
- B.
  
  After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving.
- C.
  
  before entering, and take it off before leaving.
- D.
  
  Before entering, and take it off after leaving.
Correct Answer
C. before entering, and take it off before leaving.

Explanation
The correct answer is to put the mask on before entering the unit and take it off before leaving. This ensures that the mask is worn while inside the isolation unit, where there may be a higher risk of exposure to harmful substances or pathogens. Wearing the mask before entering helps to prevent any potential contamination from entering the unit. Taking it off before leaving ensures that any contaminants on the mask do not spread outside of the unit.

Rate this question:
15.

What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?
- A.
  
  30 days
- B.
  
  45 days.
- C.
  
  6 months
- D.
  
  When package integrity is compromised.
Correct Answer
D. When package integrity is compromised.

Explanation
The correct answer is "When package integrity is compromised." This means that the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method is determined by the condition of the packaging. If the packaging is compromised or damaged, the equipment may no longer be considered sterile and should not be used. The specific time frame for shelf life is not provided in the answer options.

Rate this question:
16.

Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?
- A.
  
  Formaldehydes.
- B.
  
  Hydrochloric acid
- C.
  
  Phenolics
- D.
  
  Alcohol.
Correct Answer
B. Hydrochloric acid

Explanation
Hydrochloric acid is not a commonly used disinfecting agent because it is a strong corrosive acid that can cause severe damage to living tissues. It is primarily used in industries for cleaning and etching purposes rather than as a disinfectant. Common disinfecting agents include formaldehydes, phenolics, and alcohol, which are more effective in killing or inhibiting the growth of microorganisms.

Rate this question:
17.

What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?
- A.
  
  Between 112 and 121 degrees F.
- B.
  
  Between 122 and 131 degrees F
- C.
  
  Between 215 and 230 degrees F.
- D.
  
  Between 270 and 285 degrees F.
Correct Answer
B. Between 122 and 131 degrees F

Explanation
In a peracetic acid sterilizer, the temperature range of the sterilization cycle is between 122 and 131 degrees F. This temperature range is necessary to ensure effective sterilization of the equipment or items being processed. Temperatures within this range help to kill microorganisms and ensure the elimination of any potential contaminants.

Rate this question:
18.

Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?
- A.
  
  Plastic trays
- B.
  
  Count sheets.
- C.
  
  Metal instruments
- D.
  
  Nonmetal instruments.
Correct Answer
B. Count sheets.

Explanation
Count sheets may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer because they are typically made of paper or cloth material, which can be damaged or degraded by the sterilization process. Hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers use low-temperature plasma to kill microorganisms, and this process may not be suitable for count sheets made of non-resistant materials. Plastic trays, metal instruments, and nonmetal instruments are generally compatible with the sterilization process and can be safely placed in the hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer.

Rate this question:
19.

What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?
- A.
  
  Patient’s full name and date of birth.
- B.
  
  Patient’s full name and Social Security Number
- C.
  
  Patient’s Social Security Number and date of birth
- D.
  
  Patient’s last name, age, and Social Security Number
Correct Answer
A. Patient’s full name and date of birth.

Explanation
The standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines are the patient's full name and date of birth. These identifiers are commonly used in healthcare settings to ensure accurate identification of patients and to prevent any potential errors or mix-ups. Using the patient's full name helps to differentiate between patients with similar names, while the date of birth adds an additional layer of specificity to confirm the patient's identity. This combination of identifiers helps to maintain patient safety and ensure that the correct care is provided to each individual.

Rate this question:
20.

What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?
- A.
  
  Risk assessment and control
- B.
  
  Risk management and patient safety
- C.
  
  Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control.
- D.
  
  Competent patient-centered care and a culture of safety
Correct Answer
C. Proactive risk identification, assessment, and control.

Explanation
The foundations of safe and effective healthcare include proactive risk identification, assessment, and control. This means that healthcare providers should actively identify potential risks, assess their impact on patient safety, and implement appropriate measures to control and mitigate these risks. By taking a proactive approach, healthcare organizations can prevent adverse events and promote a culture of safety. This involves continuously monitoring and evaluating potential risks, implementing strategies to minimize them, and ensuring that all staff members are trained and competent in patient-centered care.

Rate this question:
21.

The very low-density lipoproteins transport
- A.
  
  glucose from the small intestine to the liver to be stored as glycogen
- B.
  
  Amino acids to the liver to dispose of most of the cholesterol through bile.
- C.
  
  Lipids from the liver to the stomach where they are joined with amino acid
- D.
  
  Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells.
Correct Answer
D. Triglycerides that are synthesized in the liver from carbohydrates to adipose cells.
22.

Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?
- A.
  
  Illness
- B.
  
  Wellness
- C.
  
  Diagnosis.
- D.
  
  Rehabilitation
Correct Answer
D. Rehabilitation

Explanation
During the rehabilitation phase of nursing care, the focus is on helping patients regain their independence and achieve their highest level of functioning. Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization, such as promoting autonomy, encouraging self-care, and supporting patients in setting and achieving goals, are particularly relevant in this phase. The goal is to empower patients to take control of their own health and well-being, and to help them develop the skills and confidence necessary for successful reintegration into their daily lives.

Rate this question:
23.

A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at
- A.
  
  12 months
- B.
  
  18 months
- C.
  
  24 months
- D.
  
  36 months
Correct Answer
C. 24 months

Explanation
A toddler is expected to weigh four times their birth weight at 24 months because this is the average age at which toddlers experience a significant growth spurt. By this age, they have had enough time to develop and grow, and their weight should have increased significantly from their birth weight. At 24 months, toddlers are also typically more active and eating a wider variety of foods, which contributes to their weight gain.

Rate this question:
24.

Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?
- A.
  
  Muscle atrophy
- B.
  
  Caring for elderly parents
- C.
  
  Increased cellular oxygen content
- D.
  
  Calcium loss in females is first noticed
Correct Answer
A. Muscle atropHy

Explanation
Muscle atrophy is a characteristic of late adulthood because as individuals age, they tend to lose muscle mass and strength. This can result in decreased mobility, difficulty performing daily activities, and increased risk of falls and injuries. Regular exercise and strength training can help mitigate muscle atrophy in older adults. Caring for elderly parents, increased cellular oxygen content, and calcium loss in females being first noticed are not specific characteristics of late adulthood.

Rate this question:
25.

What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment?
- A.
  
  Fitness.
- B.
  
  Pure water
- C.
  
  Work site safety.
- D.
  
  Psychological wellness.
Correct Answer
B. Pure water

Explanation
Florence Nightingale linked pure water with health and the environment. She believed that access to clean and uncontaminated water was crucial for maintaining good health and preventing diseases. Nightingale emphasized the importance of sanitation and proper hygiene practices, including the provision of clean water, in healthcare settings. She advocated for improved water supply and sanitation systems, recognizing their direct impact on overall health and well-being.

Rate this question:
26.

Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?
- A.
  
  Blood pressure screenings
- B.
  
  Assessing current fitness status.
- C.
  
  Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants.
- D.
  
  Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle
Correct Answer
A. Blood pressure screenings

Explanation
Blood pressure screenings are most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program because they help to assess and monitor employees' overall health and well-being. By regularly measuring blood pressure, employers can identify individuals at risk for hypertension and provide appropriate interventions and resources to promote better health. This proactive approach to healthcare can help prevent chronic diseases and improve the overall wellness of employees, leading to increased productivity and reduced healthcare costs for the company.

Rate this question:
27.

A good source of protein is
- A.
  
  fruits
- B.
  
  Rice.
- C.
  
  Poultry
- D.
  
  Vitamins
Correct Answer
C. Poultry

Explanation
Poultry is a good source of protein because it is high in quality protein and contains all the essential amino acids that the body needs. It is also a lean meat option, which means it is low in fat and cholesterol. Poultry, such as chicken and turkey, is also rich in vitamins and minerals, including B vitamins, iron, and zinc. Including poultry in the diet can help build and repair tissues, support immune function, and promote overall health and wellbeing.

Rate this question:
28.

Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by
- A.
  
  aplastic anemia.
- B.
  
  hemolytic anemia
- C.
  
  Pernicious anemia
- D.
  
  Sickle cell anemia.
Correct Answer
C. Pernicious anemia

Explanation
Pernicious anemia is the correct answer because it is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is necessary for the production of healthy red blood cells. Clinical signs of B12 deficiency, such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath, are often first noticed in patients with pernicious anemia. This condition occurs when the body is unable to absorb B12 properly, leading to a decrease in red blood cell production and subsequent anemia.

Rate this question:
29.

Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with
- A.
  
  Anemia.
- B.
  
  Seizures
- C.
  
  Strabismus
- D.
  
  Disfigurement
Correct Answer
B. Seizures

Explanation
Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may cause newborns to be born with seizures. B6, also known as pyridoxine, is an important nutrient for the development of the nervous system. However, excessive intake of B6 during pregnancy can lead to toxicity, which can affect the baby's brain and nervous system. Seizures are a common symptom of B6 toxicity in newborns, as the excessive levels of B6 can disrupt the normal functioning of the brain. It is important for pregnant women to maintain a balanced and appropriate intake of B6 to avoid any potential harm to their babies.

Rate this question:
30.

Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except
- A.
  
  Citrus
- B.
  
  Cheese
- C.
  
  Broccoli.
- D.
  
  Tomatoes.
Correct Answer
B. Cheese

Explanation
Cheese does not naturally contain vitamin C. While citrus fruits (such as oranges and lemons), broccoli, and tomatoes are all good sources of vitamin C, cheese is not. Vitamin C is primarily found in fruits and vegetables, and dairy products like cheese do not typically contain significant amounts of this vitamin. Therefore, cheese is the only option among the given foods that does not naturally provide vitamin C.

Rate this question:
31.

A sign of vitamin A deficiency include
- A.
  
  Myopia.
- B.
  
  Presbyopia.
- C.
  
  Night blindness.
- D.
  
  Macular degeneration.
Correct Answer
C. Night blindness.

Explanation
Night blindness is a sign of vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that helps with vision in low light conditions. When there is a deficiency of vitamin A, the production of rhodopsin is impaired, leading to difficulty seeing in dim light or darkness, which is known as night blindness. Myopia refers to nearsightedness, presbyopia is age-related farsightedness, and macular degeneration is a condition that affects the central part of the retina, causing loss of vision in the center of the visual field.

Rate this question:
32.

Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K?
- A.
  
  Ulcerative colitis.
- B.
  
  Heparin overdose.
- C.
  
  Malabsorption syndromes
- D.
  
  Prolonged use of salicylates.
Correct Answer
B. Heparin overdose.

Explanation
Vitamin K is known for its role in blood clotting, and it is used to treat bleeding disorders caused by a deficiency of this vitamin. Ulcerative colitis, malabsorption syndromes, and prolonged use of salicylates are conditions that can lead to a deficiency of vitamin K or interfere with its absorption. However, heparin overdose is not directly related to vitamin K deficiency and is treated with other medications or interventions.

Rate this question:
33.

What percentage of the body’s weight are minerals responsible for?
- A.
  
  16
- B.
  
  8
- C.
  
  4
- D.
  
  2
Correct Answer
C. 4

Explanation
Minerals are responsible for approximately 4% of the body's weight. These essential nutrients play a crucial role in various bodily functions, including bone health, muscle contraction, nerve transmission, and fluid balance. They are required in small amounts but are vital for maintaining overall health and well-being.

Rate this question:
34.

Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
- A.
  
  During a blood transfusion
- B.
  
  As a result of not using table salt
- C.
  
  When a individual is unable to sink in water.
- D.
  
  Through an excessive amount of fluid loss.
Correct Answer
D. Through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

Explanation
The correct answer is through an excessive amount of fluid loss. Sodium chloride, commonly known as table salt, is an essential electrolyte that helps maintain fluid balance in the body. When there is an excessive amount of fluid loss, such as through sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea, the body can become deficient in sodium chloride. This deficiency can result in symptoms such as muscle cramps, weakness, fatigue, and dizziness. Therefore, the signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

Rate this question:
35.

When administering potassium intravenously, you should
- A.
  
  give in a bolus
- B.
  
  Administer directly through a saline lock
- C.
  
  Mix the potassium thoroughly before administration
- D.
  
  Add the potassium to an IV solution bag that is already infusing.
Correct Answer
C. Mix the potassium thoroughly before administration

Explanation
When administering potassium intravenously, it is important to mix the potassium thoroughly before administration. This is because potassium can settle at the bottom of the container, and if not mixed properly, the patient may receive an unequal distribution of the medication. By mixing the potassium thoroughly, it ensures that the medication is evenly distributed and the patient receives the correct dosage.

Rate this question:
36.

Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except
- A.
  
  kale.
- B.
  
  pork
- C.
  
  Salmon.
- D.
  
  Turnip greens.
Correct Answer
B. pork

Explanation
Calcium can be found in kale, salmon, and turnip greens, but not in pork. Pork is not a significant source of calcium compared to the other options listed.

Rate this question:
37.

Which route is injectable iron administered?
- A.
  
  Intra muscular.
- B.
  
  . Intra venous.
- C.
  
  Transdermal.
- D.
  
  Z-track
Correct Answer
D. Z-track

Explanation
Injectable iron is not administered through the Z-track method. The Z-track technique is used for administering medications that may cause skin discoloration or irritation. Intra muscular, intra venous, and transdermal routes are commonly used for administering injectable iron.

Rate this question:
38.

Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called
- A.
  
  salts
- B.
  
  Acids.
- C.
  
  Catalyzed.
- D.
  
  Synthesized.
Correct Answer
B. Acids.

Explanation
Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called acids. Acids are substances that have a pH less than 7 and can donate hydrogen ions when dissolved in water. This donation of hydrogen ions creates a positively charged hydrogen ion (H+) in the solution. Therefore, acids are the correct answer as they release hydrogen ions in water. Salts, catalyzed, and synthesized are not the correct answers as they do not specifically refer to substances that release hydrogen ions in water.

Rate this question:
39.

What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?
- A.
  
  Weak and malaise.
- B.
  
  Dizzy and agitated.
- C.
  
  Emotional and tired
- D.
  
  Short of breath and confused.
Correct Answer
B. Dizzy and agitated.

Explanation
Blood pH alkalosis occurs when the pH of the blood becomes too alkaline, typically above 7.45. This can be caused by various factors such as hyperventilation, vomiting, or excessive use of certain medications. When blood pH is alkalotic, it can lead to symptoms such as dizziness and agitation. This is because alkalosis can disrupt the balance of electrolytes in the body, affecting nerve and muscle function. Therefore, feeling dizzy and agitated can be common symptoms of blood pH alkalosis.

Rate this question:
40.

Complex carbohydrates are called
- A.
  
  Bisaccharides
- B.
  
  disaccharides
- C.
  
  polysaccharides
- D.
  
  Monosaccharides.
Correct Answer
C. polysaccharides

Explanation
Polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates made up of multiple monosaccharide units joined together through glycosidic bonds. They are large molecules and can be found in foods such as grains, potatoes, and legumes. Examples of polysaccharides include starch, glycogen, and cellulose. Unlike monosaccharides and disaccharides, which are smaller and simpler carbohydrates, polysaccharides provide a longer-lasting source of energy due to their complex structure and slower digestion.

Rate this question:
41.

What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?
- A.
  
  Stomach.
- B.
  
  Heart.
- C.
  
  Brain.
- D.
  
  Liver.
Correct Answer
D. Liver.

Explanation
The liver is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism. It plays a crucial role in the synthesis, breakdown, and storage of lipids. It produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats. The liver also regulates the level of cholesterol in the body by synthesizing it and removing excess cholesterol from the bloodstream. Additionally, it is involved in converting excess glucose into triglycerides for storage as fat. Overall, the liver acts as a central hub for lipid metabolism, making it the correct answer.

Rate this question:
42.

Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of
- A.
  
  lipids.
- B.
  
  Proteins.
- C.
  
  Glucose.
- D.
  
  Carbohydrates.
Correct Answer
B. Proteins.

Explanation
Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of proteins. Proteins are made up of long chains of amino acids that are linked together. These chains fold into specific shapes, which determine the protein's function. Lipids, glucose, and carbohydrates are not composed of amino acids and do not serve as building blocks for proteins.

Rate this question:
43.

Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
- A.
  
  Protect against disease at the cellular level.
- B.
  
  The body’s only defense against infection
- C.
  
  Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body
- D.
  
  Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion
Correct Answer
A. Protect against disease at the cellular level.

Explanation
Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are a crucial part of the immune system and play a vital role in protecting the body against diseases. They are responsible for defending the body against infections and other harmful substances at the cellular level. Leukocytes are involved in identifying and destroying pathogens, producing antibodies, and regulating the immune response. This accurate definition highlights the essential function of leukocytes in safeguarding the body from diseases by targeting and eliminating harmful agents at the cellular level.

Rate this question:
44.

The life span of lymphocytes is
- A.
  
  12 years
- B.
  
  2 weeks
- C.
  
  Years
- D.
  
  Days
Correct Answer
C. Years

Explanation
Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and destroying pathogens and foreign substances in the body. The life span of lymphocytes can vary depending on their subtype and the specific conditions in the body. Generally, lymphocytes can live for several years, ranging from a few years to decades. This allows them to provide long-term protection against infections and diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is "years".

Rate this question:
45.

What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?
- A.
  
  Lymphocytes and macrophages
- B.
  
  Polyleukocytes and monocytes
- C.
  
  Monocytes and phagocytes.
- D.
  
  Neutrophils and leukocytes.
Correct Answer
A. LympHocytes and macropHages

Explanation
Lymph nodes contain a large number of lymphocytes and macrophages to fight invading microorganisms. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking foreign substances. Macrophages, on the other hand, are responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens and debris. Together, lymphocytes and macrophages work to identify and eliminate harmful microorganisms, making them essential components of the immune system's defense mechanism.

Rate this question:
46.

The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the
- A.
  
  Parathyroid glands
- B.
  
  Pituitary gland
- C.
  
  Thymus gland.
- D.
  
  Thyroid gland.
Correct Answer
C. Thymus gland.

Explanation
The thymus gland is the primary central gland of the lymphatic system. It is responsible for the production and maturation of T lymphocytes, which are crucial for immune system function. The thymus gland is located in the upper chest, behind the sternum, and it plays a vital role in the development of the immune system, particularly during childhood. The parathyroid glands are responsible for regulating calcium levels in the body, the pituitary gland is often referred to as the "master gland" as it controls the function of other endocrine glands, and the thyroid gland regulates metabolism and produces hormones.

Rate this question:
47.

Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body’s response is called a
- A.
  
  Secondary immune response.
- B.
  
  Primary immune response.
- C.
  
  Partial immune response
- D.
  
  Single immune response.
Correct Answer
C. Partial immune response

Explanation
The correct answer is "partial immune response." When Nathan breaks out with chickenpox for the first time, his body's immune system will initiate a primary immune response. This response involves the recognition of the virus by immune cells, the production of specific antibodies, and the activation of immune defenses to eliminate the virus. However, since it is Nathan's first exposure to chickenpox, his immune system may not be fully prepared to mount a complete and effective response, resulting in a partial immune response.

Rate this question:
48.

During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?
- A.
  
  Bruising
- B.
  
  Maturation
- C.
  
  Inflammation.
- D.
  
  Reconstruction
Correct Answer
C. Inflammation.

Explanation
During the inflammation stage of healing, immature fiber cells and capillaries are formed. This stage is characterized by the body's response to injury, which includes increased blood flow to the affected area, release of inflammatory mediators, and recruitment of immune cells. The formation of immature fiber cells and capillaries is crucial for the subsequent stages of healing, such as the reconstruction and maturation phases.

Rate this question:
49.

For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is
- A.
  
  Guilt.
- B.
  
  Acceptance.
- C.
  
  Fear and anxiety
- D.
  
  Shock and disorientation.
Correct Answer
D. Shock and disorientation.

Explanation
When patients experience severe injuries or medical conditions, their initial psychological reaction is often shock and disorientation. This is because they are suddenly confronted with a traumatic event or a life-threatening situation, which can be overwhelming and disorienting. The shock response is a natural defense mechanism that temporarily numbs emotions and causes a state of disbelief. Disorientation may occur as patients struggle to comprehend and process the situation they find themselves in. Guilt, acceptance, and fear and anxiety may come later as patients begin to process their condition and its implications.

Rate this question:
50.

Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?
- A.
  
  Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes.
- B.
  
  Uncoordinated movement, loud voice, sweet smelling breath.
- C.
  
  Muscle tremors, behavior changes, rapid pulse rate
- D.
  
  Loud voice, difficulty breathing, muscle tremors.
Correct Answer
A. Impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, behavioral changes.

Explanation
The signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment that would be expected in an intoxicated patient include impaired vision, uncoordinated movement, and behavioral changes. These symptoms are commonly associated with the effects of alcohol or drug intoxication on the central nervous system. Impaired vision can occur due to alcohol's impact on the optic nerves, while uncoordinated movement is a result of the alcohol's effects on motor control. Behavioral changes can range from mood swings to aggression or depression and are often observed in intoxicated individuals.

Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
Mar 21, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
May 17, 2018

Quiz Created by
Akamoosejr

B4N051 CDC Volume 1 Ure's (2018, Edit Code 05)

What organization is responsible for establishing the hospital accreditation evaluation?

As a minimum, how frequently should area-specific general operation instructions (OI) be reviewed?

Which of the following most accurately describes an organism that causes infection and disease?

Which infectious agents are primitive one-celled, plant-like organisms that reproduce rapidly?

Which infectious agent includes two structural categories known as yeast and molds?

What condition must be present for a virus to multiply?

Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?

Which of the following best states the purpose of standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?

What should you do if your clothes become contaminated at work?

One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is

A health care provider notifies Public Health of a suspected communicable disease by

Which medical term means the absence of infection?

Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?

When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on

What is the shelf life for sterilized equipment using the event-related method?

Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?

What is the temperature range of the sterilization cycle in a peracetic acid sterilizer?

Which item may not be placed in a hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer?

What are the standard identifiers associated with the National Patient Safety Guidelines?

What are the foundations of safe and effective healthcare?

The very low-density lipoproteins transport

Nursing actions that facilitate self-actualization is pertinent during which aspect of the nursing care?

A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at

Which is a characteristic of late adulthood?

What controllable factor did Florence Nightingale link with health and the environment?

Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?

A good source of protein is

Clinical signs of B12 deficiency are first noted by

Pregnant women who overdose on B6 may have caused newborns to be born with

Vitamin C can be found naturally in all of the following foods except

A sign of vitamin A deficiency include

Which ailment is not treated by vitamin K?

What percentage of the body’s weight are minerals responsible for?

Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

When administering potassium intravenously, you should

Calcium can be found in all of the following sources except

Which route is injectable iron administered?

Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called

What symptoms may occur with blood pH alkalosis?

Complex carbohydrates are called

What organ is primarily responsible for controlling lipid metabolism?

Amino acids are the small molecular building blocks of

Which is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

The life span of lymphocytes is

What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?

The primary central gland of the lymphatic system is the

Nathan has broken out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body’s response is called a

During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?

For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is

Which signs or symptoms of nervous system impairment would you look for in an intoxicated patient?