Z3dx5x Vol 1 & 2 Ure's
- 1.
Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-200
- B.
Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91-200
- C.
AFMAN 91-202
- D.
AFI 91-202
Correct Answer
D. AFI 91-202Explanation
The correct answer is AFI 91-202. AFI stands for Air Force Instruction, which is a publication that provides guidance and instructions for specific procedures and programs within the Air Force. AFI 91-202 specifically implements the Mishap Prevention Program, which is a program aimed at preventing accidents and mishaps within the Air Force. Therefore, AFI 91-202 is the publication that implements the Mishap Prevention Program.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What action is the purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program?
- A.
Prevent the use of unsafe equipment.
- B.
Protect personnel from the effects of unsafe practices.
- C.
Prevent personnel from overusing risk management practices.
- D.
Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.
Correct Answer
D. Protect resources and personnel from damage, loss, injury, and or death.Explanation
The purpose of the Mishap Prevention Program is to protect both resources and personnel from any potential harm. This includes preventing damage, loss, injury, and even death. The program aims to establish measures and protocols that can minimize risks and ensure the safety of individuals and the preservation of resources. By implementing this program, organizations can create a safer environment and reduce the likelihood of accidents or mishaps occurring.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a part of the United States Department of
- A.
Commerce
- B.
The Treasury
- C.
Defense
- D.
Labor
Correct Answer
D. LaborExplanation
The correct answer is "Labor." The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions in the United States. It sets and enforces standards, provides training and education, and conducts inspections to ensure compliance with workplace safety regulations. As a part of the United States Department of Labor, OSHA works to protect workers' rights and promote a safe and healthy working environment.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Whose responsibility to advice commanders, function managers, supervisors and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Air Staff
- B.
Civil Engineering
- C.
Squadron Commander
- D.
Installation safety office
Correct Answer
D. Installation safety officeExplanation
The Installation safety office is responsible for advising commanders, function managers, supervisors, and workers on safety matters on an Air Force installation. They play a crucial role in ensuring that safety protocols and procedures are followed to maintain a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What action must supervisors take before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished?
- A.
Develop a job safety training outline (JSTO)
- B.
Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA)
- C.
Review AF Form 55
- D.
Certify the employee
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a job safety analysis (JSA)Explanation
Before a work task not governed by a technical order or other guidance can be accomplished, supervisors must conduct a job safety analysis (JSA). This involves identifying potential hazards associated with the task, evaluating the risks, and developing appropriate safety measures and procedures to mitigate those risks. By conducting a JSA, supervisors ensure that employees are aware of the potential hazards and are trained to perform the task safely. This helps to prevent accidents, injuries, and damage to equipment or property.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report ground mishaps?
- A.
475
- B.
480
- C.
978
- D.
980
Correct Answer
C. 978Explanation
The correct answer is 978. The AF form 978 is used to report ground mishaps in the Air Force. This form is used to document any accidents or incidents that occur on the ground involving Air Force personnel, equipment, or facilities. It helps to gather information about the mishap, including the date, time, location, and details of what happened. This form is an important tool for investigating and preventing future mishaps, as it allows the Air Force to analyze trends and identify areas for improvement in safety protocols and procedures.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What Air Force (AF) form is used to report a hazard?
- A.
457
- B.
480
- C.
978
- D.
980
Correct Answer
A. 457Explanation
The correct answer is 457 because AF Form 457 is used to report a hazard in the Air Force. This form is known as a Hazard Report and is used to document and report any potential hazards or unsafe conditions that may pose a risk to personnel, equipment, or operations. It allows for the identification and mitigation of hazards to ensure the safety and well-being of Air Force personnel and resources.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What three sub-categories make up human factors?
- A.
Physiological, physical, stress
- B.
Physiological, physical, social
- C.
Stress, organizational, physical
- D.
Physical, physiological, organizational
Correct Answer
D. pHysical, pHysiological, organizationalExplanation
The correct answer is Physical, physiological, organizational. Human factors refer to the study of how humans interact with systems and environments. The physical aspect focuses on the physical characteristics and capabilities of individuals, such as their strength and dexterity. The physiological aspect considers the cognitive and sensory capabilities of humans, including perception, attention, and memory. Lastly, the organizational aspect examines how factors such as work design, communication, and teamwork influence human performance.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which action is a physiological factor?
- A.
Performing a task while fatigued.
- B.
Performing a task while intoxicated.
- C.
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.
- D.
Performing job tasks while taking prescribed medications that may cause drowsiness.
Correct Answer
C. Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders.Explanation
Ignoring directions from supervisors and work leaders is a physiological factor because it involves the decision-making process and cognitive functioning of an individual. It can be influenced by factors such as stress, fatigue, or intoxication, which can affect a person's ability to follow instructions and make rational decisions.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Who recommends controls to mitigate health risks associated with identified health threats/hazards?
- A.
Bioenvironmental Engineering.
- B.
Installation safety office.
- C.
Base civil engineer.
- D.
Supervisors.
Correct Answer
A. Bioenvironmental Engineering.Explanation
Bioenvironmental Engineering is responsible for identifying health threats and hazards in a given environment. They have the expertise to assess the risks associated with these threats and recommend appropriate controls to mitigate them. This includes measures to protect the health and safety of individuals in the environment. The other options listed, such as the Installation Safety Office, Base Civil Engineer, and Supervisors, may have roles in implementing these controls, but it is Bioenvironmental Engineering that provides the recommendations based on their specialized knowledge and expertise.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.
- A.
Isolating operations
- B.
Providing administrative controls
- C.
Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)
- D.
Substitution a less hazardous material or process.
Correct Answer
C. Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)Explanation
The use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is considered the least preferred method when controlling hazards because it should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards. PPE is a last resort and should only be used when other control measures, such as eliminating or substituting the hazard, are not feasible. PPE is not as effective as other methods because it relies on the individual to properly use and maintain the equipment, and there is always a risk of failure or misuse. It is important to prioritize other control measures over PPE to ensure the highest level of protection.Rate this question:
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- 12.
How many impact classifications do hardhats have?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
Hardhats have two impact classifications. This means that they are designed to provide protection against two different levels of impact. This could be in the form of falling objects or other hazards that could cause injury to the head. By having two impact classifications, hardhats can offer a higher level of safety and ensure that workers are adequately protected in different work environments.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which helmet class does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors?
- A.
A
- B.
C
- C.
E
- D.
G
Correct Answer
B. CExplanation
Helmet class C does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors. Helmet classes A and G provide protection against low-voltage electrical conductors, while helmet class E provides protection against high-voltage electrical conductors. Therefore, helmet class C is the correct answer as it does not provide protection against contact with electrical conductors.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?
- A.
Falls
- B.
Poor lighting
- C.
Horseplay
- D.
Poor ergonomics
Correct Answer
A. FallsExplanation
Falls are the greatest hazard in the typical office because they can result in serious injuries. People can trip over loose wires, uneven flooring, or cluttered areas, leading to falls. Additionally, falls from chairs or ladders are also common in offices. These accidents can cause fractures, sprains, or even head injuries. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a clean and organized workspace to minimize the risk of falls in an office environment.Rate this question:
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- 15.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) office workers are how many times more likely to suffer a disabling injury for a fall than non-office workers?
- A.
1 to 2
- B.
2 to 2.5
- C.
2 to 4.5
- D.
2.5 to 3
Correct Answer
B. 2 to 2.5Explanation
Office workers are 2 to 2.5 times more likely to suffer a disabling injury from a fall compared to non-office workers, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). This suggests that the risk of fall-related injuries is significantly higher for office workers, highlighting the importance of implementing safety measures and precautions in office environments to prevent such incidents.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What chapter in the Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?
- A.
8
- B.
9
- C.
10
- D.
11
Correct Answer
C. 10Explanation
Chapter 10 in the Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How are fires classified?
- A.
Fuel type
- B.
Heat Source
- C.
Temperature
- D.
Atmospheric conditions
Correct Answer
A. Fuel typeExplanation
Fires are classified based on the type of fuel involved. Different types of fuel, such as wood, paper, or gasoline, can result in different types of fires with varying characteristics. By understanding the fuel type, firefighters and emergency responders can better assess the behavior and potential hazards of a fire, allowing them to develop appropriate strategies and tactics for extinguishing it.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What classification do flammable liquids receive?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
Correct Answer
B. Class BExplanation
Flammable liquids receive the classification of Class B. This classification is used to categorize substances that can easily catch fire and ignite, such as gasoline, alcohol, and oil. Class B liquids have a flash point below 100 degrees Fahrenheit and can be extinguished using fire extinguishers specifically designed for flammable liquid fires.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Fuels that are normally classified as A or B will change to what classification if an electric current is introduced?
- A.
Class A
- B.
Class B
- C.
Class C
- D.
Class D
Correct Answer
C. Class CExplanation
When an electric current is introduced to fuels that are normally classified as A or B, they undergo a chemical reaction that changes their classification to Class C. This change is due to the increased heat and energy produced by the electric current, which alters the properties and behavior of the fuel. Class C fuels are typically flammable liquids, such as gasoline, that can ignite easily and sustain a fire.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What action should you take first when you encounter a fire?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the alarm
Correct Answer
D. Sound the alarmExplanation
When encountering a fire, the first action to take is to sound the alarm. This is crucial because it alerts everyone in the building about the fire, allowing them to evacuate quickly and safely. By sounding the alarm, you are ensuring that everyone is aware of the emergency situation and can take appropriate action. Once the alarm is sounded, personnel can then proceed to evacuate the building, call the fire department, and attempt to extinguish the fire if it is safe to do so. However, sounding the alarm is the priority to ensure the safety of all individuals present.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What step is the fourth in the firefighting procedure?
- A.
Evacuate personnel from the building
- B.
Extinguish the fire if possible
- C.
Call the fire department
- D.
Sound the fire alarm
Correct Answer
B. Extinguish the fire if possibleExplanation
The fourth step in the firefighting procedure is to extinguish the fire if possible. This step involves using appropriate firefighting equipment and techniques to suppress and eliminate the fire. It is important to try to extinguish the fire as soon as possible to prevent it from spreading further and causing more damage. However, it is crucial to prioritize safety and evacuate personnel from the building before attempting to extinguish the fire.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Under normal conditions, how many milliamps of current could cause cardiac arrest?
- A.
50
- B.
40
- C.
20
- D.
10
Correct Answer
A. 50Explanation
Under normal conditions, a current of 50 milliamps could cause cardiac arrest. This level of current is considered to be potentially lethal and can disrupt the normal electrical signals in the heart, leading to a dangerous arrhythmia. It is important to note that individual susceptibility to electric shock can vary, and factors such as the duration of exposure and the pathway of the current can also influence the severity of the effects.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which ladder practice is not prohibited?
- A.
Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.
- B.
Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder.
- C.
Using a ladder as a scaffold.
- D.
Using a homemade ladder.
Correct Answer
A. Use of a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits.Explanation
Using a wooden ladder in the vicinity of electrical circuits is not prohibited because wood is a non-conductive material, which means it does not conduct electricity. Therefore, using a wooden ladder near electrical circuits does not pose a risk of electric shock or short-circuiting. However, the other options are prohibited for safety reasons. Carrying material while ascending or descending a ladder can cause imbalance and increase the risk of falling. Using a ladder as a scaffold is dangerous because it is not designed to support the weight and movement required for scaffold work. Homemade ladders may not meet safety standards and can be unstable or poorly constructed.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?
- A.
Accept no unnecessary risk.
- B.
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
- C.
Apply the process irregularly and continuously.
- D.
Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels.
Correct Answer
C. Apply the process irregularly and continuously.Explanation
The action "Apply the process irregularly and continuously" is not a part of risk management (RM) because risk management should be a consistent and systematic process. It involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks on a regular basis, rather than applying the process irregularly or sporadically. By integrating RM into operations and planning at all levels, making risk decisions at the appropriate level, and accepting no unnecessary risk, organizations can effectively manage and mitigate potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The risk management process includes how many steps?
- A.
Four
- B.
Five
- C.
Six
- D.
Seven
Correct Answer
B. FiveExplanation
The risk management process includes five steps. These steps are: risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, and risk communication. Each step is crucial in effectively managing and minimizing risks in various domains, such as business, finance, and project management. By following these steps, organizations can identify potential risks, evaluate their impact and likelihood, develop strategies to mitigate them, monitor their effectiveness, and communicate relevant information to stakeholders. This comprehensive approach ensures a systematic and proactive approach to risk management.Rate this question:
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- 26.
How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
Correct Answer
D. FourExplanation
The Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification is made up of four volumes. Each volume serves a specific purpose in defining and organizing the architecture framework for the Department of Defense. These volumes include the Volume I: Definition and Overview, Volume II: Product Description, Volume III: Architecture Data Repository, and Volume IV: Architecture Data Exchange. Each volume provides essential information and guidelines for the development and implementation of architecture within the Department of Defense.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which office annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management?
- A.
Office of Administration
- B.
Office of Communications
- C.
Office of Public Engagement
- D.
Office of Management and Budget
Correct Answer
D. Office of Management and BudgetExplanation
The Office of Management and Budget annually evaluates agency efforts to improve the quality and usefulness of information technology investments requested by agencies through well-organized strategic decisions relating to investments and portfolio management.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?
- A.
State Level
- B.
Federal Level
- C.
Congressional Level
- D.
Department of Defense Level
Correct Answer
B. Federal LevelExplanation
Air Force architectures are mandated to be developed at the Federal Level. This means that the development of these architectures is required by the federal government, specifically at the national level. The federal government has the authority to set policies and regulations for the Air Force, and the development of architectures is one of the requirements to ensure effective planning and coordination at a national level. This ensures that the Air Force operates in alignment with federal goals and objectives, and facilitates communication and collaboration with other federal agencies.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?
- A.
Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record.
- B.
Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record.
- C.
Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.
- D.
Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record.
Correct Answer
C. Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record.Explanation
The Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) consists of three parts: administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record. The administrative record includes all the necessary paperwork and documentation related to the installation process. The drawing record contains the diagrams and blueprints of the installed systems. The maintenance record keeps track of all the maintenance activities and repairs performed on the systems.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?
- A.
Administrative record
- B.
Maintenance record
- C.
Drawing record
- D.
Outage record
Correct Answer
C. Drawing recordExplanation
The drawing record section of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) provides a physical layout of the communications and information systems. It includes engineering data that is necessary for the installation and maintenance of these systems. This section typically contains diagrams, blueprints, and other visual representations that depict the placement and configuration of the equipment and infrastructure. It is an essential resource for technicians and engineers involved in the installation and maintenance of the communications and information systems.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) is normally retained in the production work center?
- A.
Administrative record
- B.
Maintenance record
- C.
Drawing record
- D.
Outage record
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance recordExplanation
The maintenance record is typically retained in the production work center of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR). This record contains important information about the maintenance activities performed on the communication and information systems, including any repairs, upgrades, or replacements. It helps in tracking the history of maintenance work and ensures that the systems are properly maintained and functioning effectively.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What functions do the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model specify?
- A.
Programming
- B.
Transport
- C.
Network
- D.
Data
Correct Answer
C. NetworkExplanation
The seven layers of the OSI reference model specify different functions in the communication process. The Network layer, which is the correct answer, is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. It ensures that packets are delivered to the correct destination by using logical addressing and establishing connections. The other options mentioned, such as Programming, Transport, and Data, are not specific functions of the OSI model.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model
- A.
Data Transport and Application
- B.
Session and Data Transport
- C.
Network and Presentation
- D.
Application and Session
Correct Answer
A. Data Transport and ApplicationExplanation
The correct answer is Data Transport and Application. The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model consists of seven layers, which are divided into two categories: lower layers and upper layers. The lower layers include the Physical, Data Link, and Network layers, which are responsible for the actual transmission and routing of data. The upper layers include the Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application layers, which focus on the end-user application and data manipulation. Therefore, the Data Transport and Application layers represent the two categories of the seven-layer OSI reference model.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model layer?
- A.
Transport
- B.
Data Link
- C.
Physical
- D.
Session
Correct Answer
B. Data LinkExplanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer is a part of the Data Link layer in the OSI model. The Data Link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on a network, and the LLC sublayer specifically handles flow control and error checking.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What does the logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium.
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
B. Communications between devices over a single link of a network.Explanation
The logical link control (LLC) sublayer of the data link layer manages communications between devices over a single link of a network. This sublayer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating logical connections between devices. It handles flow control, error control, and sequencing of frames on a single link. The LLC sublayer ensures that data is transferred reliably and efficiently between devices on the same network link.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What does the media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manage?
- A.
Communications between devices over a single link of a network.
- B.
Communications between devices over multiple links of a network.
- C.
Protocol access to the physical network medium
- D.
Protocol access to the links of a network.
Correct Answer
C. Protocol access to the pHysical network mediumExplanation
The media access control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer manages protocol access to the physical network medium. This means that it controls how devices on a network share and access the physical transmission medium, such as Ethernet cables or wireless frequencies. The MAC sublayer ensures that devices take turns transmitting data and that they can successfully communicate without interfering with each other. It also handles tasks like addressing, error detection, and flow control to ensure reliable data transmission over the physical medium.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What network topology is another name for a bus topology?
- A.
Star
- B.
Ring
- C.
Loop
- D.
Linear
Correct Answer
D. LinearExplanation
A bus topology is a network configuration where all devices are connected to a single cable, forming a linear structure. Therefore, the term "Linear" is another name for a bus topology.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What topology offers centralized management of a network?
- A.
Bus
- B.
Star
- C.
Ring
- D.
Radial
Correct Answer
B. StarExplanation
The star topology offers centralized management of a network. In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which allows for easy monitoring and control of the network. This centralization simplifies network management tasks such as troubleshooting, adding or removing devices, and implementing security measures. Additionally, the star topology provides better performance and reliability as each device has its own dedicated connection to the central hub.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What negative effect could occur when star networks are interconnected?
- A.
There are no negative effects.
- B.
A fault in network cabling will disrupt all communication.
- C.
Performance will suffer due to the load of the additional devices.
- D.
When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.
Correct Answer
D. When the central node point fails, large portions of the network become isolated.Explanation
When star networks are interconnected, they rely on a central node point to manage and distribute communication. If this central node point fails, it can lead to large portions of the network becoming isolated, resulting in a negative effect. This means that communication between different parts of the network will be disrupted, causing a loss of connectivity and potentially impacting the overall functioning of the interconnected star networks.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When used alone, the word "topology" often refers to a network's
- A.
Transport topology
- B.
Physical topology
- C.
Physical medium
- D.
Logical topology
Correct Answer
B. pHysical topologyExplanation
The word "topology" refers to the arrangement and interconnections of the nodes in a network. When used alone, it commonly refers to the physical topology, which describes the physical layout of the network, including the physical connections between nodes and the way they are arranged. This is different from the transport topology, which refers to the logical paths that data takes through the network, the physical medium, which refers to the actual cables or wireless signals used for communication, and the logical topology, which refers to the way nodes appear to be connected to each other, regardless of the physical layout.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is a Transmission Control Protocol Socket?
- A.
Regulate of how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
- B.
Reference location of a particular application or process on each machine (in the application layer).
- C.
Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.
- D.
Prevent of network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
Correct Answer
C. Combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address used by a process to request network services and passes as an argument between layers.Explanation
A Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Socket is a combination of a port number and Internet Protocol (IP) address. It is used by a process to request network services and is passed as an argument between layers. This means that when a process wants to communicate over a network, it uses a TCP socket to specify the destination IP address and port number. This allows the process to establish a connection and request the desired network services.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which governing body is the authority for information technology (IT) communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control?
- A.
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)
- B.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
- C.
Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
- D.
Department of Defense (DOD)
Correct Answer
A. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)Explanation
The correct answer is Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA). DISA is the governing body for information technology communications within the Department of Defense (DOD) and has authority over every level of IT communication from the DOD information network to the warfighter under their scope of control. DISA is responsible for providing and managing the IT infrastructure, cybersecurity, and communication services for the DOD. They ensure that the DOD's information systems are secure, reliable, and interoperable, enabling effective communication and information sharing among the DOD components and with external partners.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What action is the purpose of a sliding window in a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?
- A.
Request network services and pass arguments between layers.
- B.
Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine.
- C.
Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data.
- D.
Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.
Correct Answer
D. Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement.Explanation
A sliding window in TCP is used to regulate the flow of information between the transmitting and receiving devices. It determines how much data can be sent over the TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. This helps in preventing network congestion by ensuring that the transmitting devices do not overwhelm the receiving devices with data.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What portion of the Internet Protocol (IP) Datagram (packet) allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers and discard them?
- A.
Version Identification
- B.
Header Checksum
- C.
Time to Live
- D.
Flags
Correct Answer
B. Header ChecksumExplanation
The correct answer is Header Checksum. The Header Checksum is a field in the IP Datagram that allows IP to detect datagrams with corrupted headers. It is used to verify the integrity of the header by performing a mathematical calculation on the header contents and comparing it to the value stored in the Header Checksum field. If the calculated value does not match the stored value, it indicates that the header has been corrupted during transmission and the datagram is discarded.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What value is the maximum of an octet in Internet Protocol version (IPv4)?
- A.
239
- B.
254
- C.
255
- D.
256
Correct Answer
C. 255Explanation
The maximum value of an octet in Internet Protocol version (IPv4) is 255. In IPv4, an octet is a unit of data consisting of 8 bits. Each octet can represent a decimal value ranging from 0 to 255. Therefore, 255 is the highest value that can be represented by an octet in IPv4.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which classes allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network?
- A.
Class A address
- B.
Class B address
- C.
Class C address
- D.
Class D address
Correct Answer
C. Class C addressExplanation
Class C addresses allow for a maximum of 254 hosts per network. In the classful addressing system, Class C addresses have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets are used to identify the network, and the last octet is used to identify the hosts within that network. Since the last octet has 8 bits, it can represent 2^8 - 2 = 254 unique host addresses (subtracting 2 for the network address and the broadcast address). Therefore, Class C addresses are suitable for smaller networks that require fewer hosts.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What class is reserved for multicast addressing?
- A.
Class A address
- B.
Class B address
- C.
Class C address
- D.
Class D address
Correct Answer
D. Class D addressExplanation
Class D address is reserved for multicast addressing. Multicast addressing is a method of sending data packets to a group of devices simultaneously. In contrast to unicast addressing (one-to-one communication) and broadcast addressing (one-to-all communication), multicast addressing allows efficient distribution of data to a specific group of devices that have expressed interest in receiving the data. Class D addresses range from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 and are specifically designated for multicast communication.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What range of numbers are those of well known port numbers?
- A.
0-1023
- B.
1024-49151
- C.
49152-65535
- D.
655356-87000
Correct Answer
A. 0-1023Explanation
The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. These port numbers are assigned to commonly used services and protocols, such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). They are considered well-known because they are standardized and widely recognized.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What characteristic is the major difference between Random Access Memory (RAM) and Read Only Memory (ROM)?
- A.
ROM is volatile, RAM is non-volatile
- B.
ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatile
- C.
RAM has a slower access time versus ROM
- D.
ROM has a slower access time versus RAM
Correct Answer
B. ROM is non-volatile, RAM is volatileExplanation
ROM is non-volatile, meaning that it retains its data even when the power is turned off. On the other hand, RAM is volatile, which means that it loses its data when the power is turned off. This is the major difference between the two types of memory.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What action is the main purpose of system cache?
- A.
Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM)
- B.
Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data.
- C.
Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data
- D.
Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data.
Correct Answer
C. Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored dataExplanation
The main purpose of system cache is to reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data. System cache stores frequently accessed data from the main memory, allowing the CPU to quickly retrieve it without having to access the slower main memory. By reducing the CPU's access time to stored data, system cache helps improve overall system performance and efficiency.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 08, 2018Quiz Created by
Kwilson27
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