MCQs 7dd For Final Exam

The correct answer is "ត្រឹម 6,8". This is because the initial pH of stomach acid is around 1.5 to 3.5, which is highly acidic. As food is digested and passes through the stomach, it is neutralized by bicarbonate ions from the pancreas, raising the pH to around 6.8 in the small intestine. Therefore, the pH of stomach acid at the beginning should be closer to 6.8.

The mylohyoid muscle is responsible for elevating the hyoid bone and the floor of the mouth during swallowing. It forms the floor of the oral cavity and helps in the movement of the tongue and the swallowing process. This muscle is located in the lower part of the mandible and connects to the hyoid bone. Therefore, it is the muscle that is most closely associated with the lower part of the throat and the movement of the tongue during swallowing.

The treatment of choice for a localized infection with pus is to establish drainage. This is because drainage helps to remove the pus and infected material from the affected area, allowing for proper healing. Antibiotic administration may also be necessary to help fight the infection, but drainage is the primary method to address the localized infection. Applying cold to the area and advising hot mouth washes are not appropriate treatments for a localized infection with pus.

The management of angina pectoris involves avoiding vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia (LA) as they can worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow to the heart. Aspiration is also important to prevent the vasoconstrictors from entering the bloodstream and causing systemic effects. Therefore, large amounts of vasoconstrictors in LA with particular importance of aspiration is incorrect.

Division 1 of CN V, also known as the ophthalmic division, originates from the superior orbital fissure. The superior orbital fissure is a small opening in the skull located in the posterior part of the orbit. This division of CN V supplies sensory innervation to the forehead, scalp, upper eyelid, and the front part of the scalp. It also provides sensory innervation to the cornea, conjunctiva, and lacrimal gland. Therefore, the correct answer is Superior orbital fissure.

The palatoglossal arch is the structure that separates the oral cavity from the oropharynx. It is located at the back of the oral cavity and forms a boundary between the two regions. The other options, such as the tonsil, soft palate, dorsum of the tongue, and palatopharyngeal arch, are not specifically related to the division between the oral cavity and the oropharynx.

Both Azithromycin and Clarithromycin are classified as Macrolides 2nd generation, meaning they belong to the same class of antibiotics. This classification is based on their chemical structure and mechanism of action. Therefore, this statement is correct and provides a similarity between the two drugs.

The hamular notch is a depression located between the maxillary tuberosity and the hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate.

The correct answer is Pulpotomy with Ca(OH)2.

A pulpotomy is a dental procedure that involves removing the infected or inflamed pulp tissue from the crown portion of the tooth. In this case, the 7-year-old boy has a large pulp exposure in his right maxillary central incisor, indicating that the pulp tissue is exposed and likely infected. Pulpotomy with Ca(OH)2 is the appropriate treatment choice as it involves removing the infected pulp tissue and placing a medicated material (Ca(OH)2) to promote healing and prevent further infection. Pulpectomy with Ca(OH)2, direct pulp capping, or leaving it untreated would not be suitable options in this scenario.

All of the above answers are correct. Stomatitis can be caused by a variety of factors, including candida albicans infection, xerostomia (dry mouth), poor fitting dentures, and inadequate denture hygiene.

The correct answer is "Gram-positive aerobic cocci." This means that the predominant microorganisms in early plaque are Gram-positive bacteria that are spherical in shape and require oxygen to survive. These bacteria are commonly found in the mouth and are associated with dental plaque formation.

The question asks for the cell that is the most active in synthesizing and secreting antibodies. The correct answer is Plasma cell. Plasma cells are a type of white blood cell that are derived from B-cells and are responsible for producing and releasing large amounts of antibodies. They play a crucial role in the immune response by producing specific antibodies that can recognize and neutralize pathogens.

The correct answer is (2) and (4) because class II Division 1 malocclusion is characterized by a protruding upper jaw (prognathic maxilla) and increased overbite.

The Fovea Palatini are small depressions or pits located on the posterior aspect of the hard palate. They serve as a landmark to determine the position of the post dam, which is the posterior border of the upper denture. The post dam is an extension of the denture that helps to seal the posterior palatal seal area and prevent the entry of food and liquids into the oral cavity. Therefore, the correct answer is Post dam.

After completing the chemo-mechanical treatment in endodontics, it is expected that all bacteria from the root canals will be removed (1). Additionally, it is important to ensure that some of the canals are shaped and cleaned properly using mechanical instruments (3). Therefore, both (1) and (3) are correct answers as they address the need to remove bacteria and properly clean and shape the canals.

The most common cause of paresthesia of the lower lip in a patient with a lower denture is trigeminal neuralgia. Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by sudden, severe facial pain that is often triggered by activities such as eating, talking, or brushing the teeth. In this case, the pressure from the denture may be irritating or compressing the trigeminal nerve, leading to the symptoms of paresthesia in the lower lip. Other potential causes such as pressure on the mental nerve or mylohyoid muscle are less common in this context. A malignant tumor in the bone would be a less likely cause unless there are other indications of cancer present.

The auriculotemporal nerve is the main nerve supplying the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). This nerve is a branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). It provides sensory innervation to the TMJ, as well as to the external ear, temporal region, and parotid gland. The nerve to masseter innervates the masseter muscle, not the TMJ. The facial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression, not the TMJ. The zygomaticotemporal nerve provides sensory innervation to the skin over the temporal region, not the TMJ. The ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory innervation to the forehead, scalp, and upper eyelid, not the TMJ.

The correct answer is "Inadequate periodontal support". This means that the tooth does not have enough support from the surrounding periodontal tissues, such as the gums and bone. This can lead to instability and eventual loss of the tooth.

The given answer, Vertical root fracture, is the correct explanation for the occurrence of periapical surgery. A vertical root fracture refers to a crack or break in the root of a tooth that extends vertically from the crown to the root tip. This condition can lead to infection and inflammation in the surrounding tissues, requiring periapical surgery to remove the affected root and alleviate the symptoms.

The correct answer is "ដាក់ធ្មេញទឹកដោះគោ ហើយអោយគាត់មកគ្លីនិករបស់អ្នកភ្លាមៗ" which means "Put the watermelon in the refrigerator and let him eat it later". This answer suggests a solution to the problem of the person having a cold but still wanting to eat the watermelon. By putting the watermelon in the refrigerator, it will remain fresh and can be enjoyed later when the person feels better.

The gingiva bevel is done for cast gold restorations in order to (1) protect the enamel and (3) improve marginal adaptation. The bevel helps to protect the enamel by creating a smooth transition between the restoration and the natural tooth structure. It also improves marginal adaptation by allowing for a better fit between the restoration and the tooth, reducing the risk of leakage or bacterial invasion. Therefore, options (1) and (3) are correct.

In order to achieve a good proximal outline for a class II amalgam cavity on a large tooth, it is important to consider the following factors:
1. The axial wall should have a taper of 1.5mm, which helps to provide retention for the restoration.
2. The gingival cavosurface margin should be placed at the level of the dentin, ensuring a proper seal and preventing leakage.
3. The proximal walls should diverge occlusally, allowing for easier placement of the amalgam and better adaptation to the tooth structure.
4. The facial and lingual proximal cavosurface margins should be placed at the level of the dentin, ensuring a proper seal and preventing leakage.

Based on these considerations, both options (2) and (4) are correct and necessary to achieve a good proximal outline for a class II amalgam cavity on a large tooth.

The correct answer is "Removing carious dentin from deep lesion." This is because rubber dam is used to isolate the tooth and prevent contamination during dental procedures, such as removing carious dentin. It ensures a clean and dry environment for the dentist to work in, reducing the risk of infection and improving the quality of the procedure. Pulp capping, amalgam placement, and composite placement are all dental procedures that may require the use of a rubber dam, but the specific answer in this case is removing carious dentin.

The air-water spray used as a coolant in high speed cutting of a cavity will reduce frictional heat (កាត់បន្ថយកំដៅដែលបានមកពីការកកិត) and keep the operating site clean (ធ្វើអោយកន្លែងដែលយើងឆាបមានសភាពស្អាត). Therefore, the correct answer is (2) and (3).

During the placement of a matrix for a class II cavity preparation, a wedge is placed to (1) separate the teeth, (2) adapt the matrix to the gingival margin, and (3) aid in the creation of a contact. Therefore, the correct answer is (1), (2), and (3) are all correct.

The correct answer is (1), (2), and (3). This means that statements 1, 2, and 3 are all true. Statement 1 states that radiographs cannot differentiate between infected and non-infected periapical lesions. Statement 2 states that a single radiograph cannot determine the extent of an apical lesion. Statement 3 states that periapical radiolucencies do not always indicate the presence of infection. Therefore, all three statements are true.

In cleidocranial dysplasia, early loss of primary teeth is expected. Cleidocranial dysplasia is a genetic disorder that affects the development of bones and teeth. It is characterized by delayed eruption or absence of permanent teeth, including the primary teeth. This results in early loss of primary teeth. Other common features of cleidocranial dysplasia include multiple unerupted teeth and supernumerary teeth, prominent clavicle bones, and multiple frenal attachments. However, the most specific and consistent finding in this condition is the early loss of primary teeth.

For composite resin preparations, it is necessary to create a bevelled margin because it creates a larger surface area for etching, allowing for better adhesion of the resin to the tooth structure (1). Additionally, a bevelled margin increases the edge strength of the composite resin restoration (2). After etching, the bonding agent reduces microleakage, preventing the ingress of bacteria and fluids (3). The procedure of creating a bevelled margin also eliminates the need for additional polishing of the restoration (4). Therefore, both (1) and (3) are correct explanations for why cavosurface enamel margins should be bevelled.

Herpes labialis (cold sore) presents in the mouth initially with vesicles. This is a common viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV-1). The virus enters the body through breaks in the skin or mucous membranes and causes the development of small, fluid-filled blisters or vesicles on the lips or around the mouth. These vesicles are often painful and can be accompanied by other symptoms like itching or burning sensation. Over time, the vesicles rupture, forming ulcers that eventually crust over and heal.

Upper lateral incisors are often congenitally missing.

A periodontal abscess can be diagnosed by the presence of pain on percussion, pain when eating/drinking something cold, and a widened lateral periodontal ligament space on radiograph. Pain on percussion indicates inflammation and infection in the periodontal tissues. Pain when eating or drinking something cold suggests sensitivity and inflammation in the affected area. A widened lateral periodontal ligament space on radiograph is indicative of bone loss and infection. These symptoms collectively suggest the presence of a periodontal abscess.

Enterococci is the microorganism that is more commonly found in infection root canals compared to the others listed.

The given answer is the correct choice because it states that the severe pain occurs when the patient is lying down and is intensified when the patient has an acute illness. This aligns with the symptoms described in the question, where the pain is severe and worsens when the patient is lying down. Additionally, the term "acute supperative pulpitis" refers to an inflammation of the pulp tissue with the presence of pus, which further supports the explanation.

A periapical infection is an infection that occurs at the tip of the tooth root. Pain on percussion, which means pain when tapping on the tooth, is a common symptom of a periapical infection. Additionally, a widened apical periodontal ligament space on a radiograph (X-ray) can indicate the presence of an infection. This space appears wider when there is inflammation and infection in the area. Therefore, the combination of pain on percussion and a widened apical periodontal ligament space on a radiograph is indicative of a periapical infection.

The question asks which conditions can benefit from physical therapy. The correct answer is option (4) Cerebral palsy patients. This means that individuals with cerebral palsy can benefit from physical therapy.

The correct answer is (2) and (4) are correct.



(2) The procedure of incision and drainage is only necessary when there is a localized, fluctuant swelling. This indicates the presence of an abscess that needs to be drained.

(4) After the incision and drainage, it is important to prescribe antibiotics and provide symptomatic relief to the patient. This includes pain management and addressing any associated symptoms.

The correct answer is (2) and (4) because both statements are supported by the information given in the question. The question states that if there is pain in response to thermal stimuli and percussion, and if there is a strong pain when biting down, along with the presence of apical radiolucency on the radiographs, it indicates a connection to the periapical area. Therefore, options (2) and (4) are both correct.

The correct answer is the lateral (external) pterygoid. This muscle is responsible for moving the jaw downwards and to the side. It works in conjunction with the medial pterygoid to help with chewing and grinding food. The masseter muscle is also involved in chewing, but it primarily elevates the jaw. The temporalis muscle helps with closing the jaw and retracting the mandible. The buccinator muscle is involved in keeping food in the mouth and assisting with blowing air out of the mouth.

The given answer is correct because all of the criteria mentioned are important for an antibiotic agent to be useful in the treatment of a pathology microorganism. The concentration of the antibiotic needs to be achieved and maintained at the site of infection to effectively kill the microorganism. The agent should have low toxicity to minimize harm to the body. It should not promote resistance or disrupt the normal flora of the body, as this can lead to further complications. Lastly, the microorganism must be susceptible to the agent for it to be effective in treating the infection.

Cephalosporin cannot be given to a patient allergic to PNC because it has a similar structure to penicillin (PNC). This similarity in structure increases the likelihood of cross-reactivity and an allergic reaction in patients with a known allergy to PNC. Therefore, it is not recommended to administer cephalosporin to such patients to avoid potential adverse effects.

The correct answer is No, without any crossover. This means that there are no allergies that occur when someone is exposed to both PNC and Erythromycin.

Lincomycin is a medication that exhibits different effects on bacteria depending on the dosage. At low doses, it acts as a bacteriostatic agent, meaning it inhibits the growth and reproduction of bacteria. However, at usual doses, it becomes bactericidal, meaning it kills the bacteria directly. This dual action makes Lincomycin effective in treating infections caused by susceptible bacteria. Additionally, Lincomycin has a narrow spectrum, meaning it is primarily effective against certain types of bacteria.

Tetracycline is prescribed for periodontal disease because it releases collagenase and breaks down collagen in the gingival, periodontal, and bone tissues. This helps to reduce inflammation and promote healing in the affected areas.

The correct answer is Gram (+) bacteria and Gram (-) bacteria. Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is effective against both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. It works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, making it effective against a wide range of bacterial infections caused by these two types of bacteria. Candida species and Trichomonase are not bacteria but rather fungi and a protozoan parasite respectively, and are not targeted by tetracycline.

Erythromycin and Azithromycin are both antibiotics that are eliminated from the body primarily through the kidney. The kidney plays a crucial role in filtering waste products and drugs from the bloodstream and excreting them in urine. Since both medications are primarily eliminated through the renal route, it indicates that the kidney is responsible for their clearance from the body.

Once absorbed, PNC (presumably a substance or medication) is distributed throughout the body, including the gingival crevicular fluid, saliva, and placenta. This means that the substance can be found in the fluid that surrounds the gums, in the mouth's saliva, and can also cross the placental barrier, potentially affecting the fetus if present.

The correct answer is a combination of the first three criteria mentioned. The agent should not promote resistance or create an imbalance in the normal flora, as this would lead to the development of drug-resistant strains and disrupt the natural microbial balance in the body. The agent must be capable of penetrating the site of infection to effectively target and eliminate the pathogenic microorganism. Additionally, the agent should be toxic to the body, meaning it should have a selective toxicity that specifically targets the pathogen without causing harm to the host. The last criterion mentioned, provoking cell multiplication, is not relevant to the effectiveness of an antimicrobial in treating pathogenic microorganisms.

The statement suggests that all the given options are correct in the treatment of refractory periodontitis with Doxycycline. The dosage of 20mg q.12h is appropriate, and Doxycycline is used as an adjunctive periodontal therapy. The mechanism of action of Doxycycline involves the suppression of collagenase, which is beneficial in treating periodontal disease. The therapeutic objective of using Doxycycline is to help kill the bacteria causing the infection.

Metronidazole is effective against gram-negative bacteria, anaerobic germs, Fuso bacterium, and Polyimonas. This means that it has a broad spectrum of antibacterial action, making it effective against a wide range of bacterial infections caused by these organisms.

When taking Metronidazole, ingestion of alcohol can cause adverse effects such as nausea, abdominal cramps, facial flushing, headache, and confusion.

Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid should not be used in patients who have hypersensitivity to penicillin (PNC) because it can lead to an allergic reaction. Hypersensitivity to PNC is a contraindication for this medication combination, as it can cause severe allergic symptoms such as rash, itching, swelling, and difficulty breathing. It is important to avoid using this medication in patients with a known allergy to penicillin to prevent any adverse reactions.

The correct answer is that all of the given indications are correct for the use of Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid. This means that Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid can be used to treat severe dental infections, cellulitis, surgical prophylaxis, and respiratory tract infections.

The correct answer is that all of the above precautions are correct when using amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid. This means that individuals with a history of allergy to PNC, those who experience an erythematous rash, as well as those with hepatic or renal impairment should exercise caution when using this medication. It is important to consider these factors to ensure the safe and effective use of the drug.

Amoxicillin is a commonly used antibiotic, but it is contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to penicillin (PNC). This means that if a patient has a known allergy or hypersensitivity to penicillin, they should not be prescribed amoxicillin as it may cause an allergic reaction. Gingivitis, cellulitis, and cyst are not contraindications for amoxicillin.

A history of allergy to PNC (Penicillin) is a contraindication for prescribing Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is a type of penicillin antibiotic, and individuals who have a known allergy to penicillin may also be allergic to amoxicillin. Allergic reactions to penicillin can range from mild rashes to severe anaphylaxis, which is a life-threatening allergic reaction. Therefore, it is important to avoid prescribing amoxicillin to patients with a history of allergy to PNC to prevent any potential allergic reactions.

Cephalosporin 1st generation is indicated for the treatment of Gram (+) bacteria infections. This class of antibiotics is effective against a wide range of Gram-positive bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pneumoniae. Cephalosporins work by inhibiting the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, leading to the destruction of the bacteria. They are less effective against Gram-negative bacteria and are not indicated for anaerobic bacteria infections or viral infections such as coxsackie-virus.

The correct answer is Azithromycin, Clindamycin, and Lincomycin. These three antibiotics are alternative choices to using amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid. They can be used to treat bacterial infections when the first-line treatment with amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is not effective or not suitable for the patient. Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic, Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic, and Lincomycin is a lincosamide antibiotic. These antibiotics have different mechanisms of action and can target different types of bacteria, providing alternative treatment options.

Doxycycline is contraindicated in pregnancy because it can harm the developing fetus. It is also contraindicated in children under the age of 8 years because it can affect the development of their teeth and bones. Additionally, it should be avoided in patients with renal failure because the drug is primarily eliminated through the kidneys and may accumulate to toxic levels in these patients.

Metronidazole is an antibiotic that is specifically effective against anaerobic bacteria, which are bacteria that can survive and reproduce without oxygen. It works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of these bacteria, leading to their death. Therefore, metronidazole is indicated for the treatment of anaerobic bacterial infections, making it the correct answer in this case. It is not indicated for bacterial infections caused by other types of bacteria such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus.

The question is asking which of the given options are correct explanations for oral viral infections encountered in a dental clinic. The correct answer is that all of the options are correct. Acute lymph nodular pharyngitis, herpes labialis, and human papilloma virus are all potential causes of oral viral infections.

The correct answer is nutritional support and pain palliation. Oral herpetic infections can cause discomfort and pain, so pain palliation is necessary to provide relief to the patient. Additionally, nutritional support is important to ensure that the patient's immune system is functioning optimally to fight off the infection. This may include a balanced diet, adequate hydration, and possibly the use of supplements if needed. Antibiotherapy is not necessary for oral herpetic infections as they are caused by a virus, not bacteria. Treatment of anti-fungus is also not applicable as oral herpetic infections are not caused by fungi.

In fractures anterior to the canine in the mandible, two plates are required. This is because the anterior region develops less tension forces compared to the molar region, and therefore, only two plates are needed for stabilization.

The correct answer is two screws on each side of the fracture site. This is because miniplates are commonly used in the fixation of fractures, and it is generally recommended to use two screws on each side of the fracture site to provide adequate stability and support for the fractured bone. Using only one screw on each side may not provide enough stability, while using three screws on each side may be excessive and increase the risk of complications. Therefore, two screws on each side of the fracture site is the minimum number required for fixation of a miniplate.

Risdom wiring is indicated for symphysis fracture. This means that Risdom wiring is a suitable treatment option for fractures occurring in the symphysis, which is the joint between two bones that is designed to allow limited movement. It is commonly used in cases where the symphysis fracture is not severe enough to require more invasive procedures such as surgery.

The most common complication of maxillofacial injuries requiring immediate attention is airway obstruction. This is because trauma to the face and jaw can cause swelling, bleeding, or displacement of the structures in the upper airway, leading to difficulty in breathing. Immediate intervention is necessary to ensure that the airway is clear and the patient can breathe properly. Haemorrhage, infection, and shock are also potential complications of maxillofacial injuries, but airway obstruction is considered the most urgent and life-threatening.

The given data shows the occurrence of systemic complications during treatment. Among the listed options, "Preparation" is the most common complication. This implies that complications are more likely to occur during the preparation stage of the treatment compared to the other stages mentioned (removal of fillings, filling, and incision).

The most common complication among the given options is "Filling". This implies that during the treatment process, complications are more likely to occur with fillings compared to the removal of fillings, apicoectomy, or incision. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a more detailed explanation.

Mandible fracture is not a technical or mechanical factor that can cause difficult mask ventilation or intubation. Technical and mechanical factors refer to issues related to equipment, positioning, or anatomical abnormalities that can hinder the process. Mandible fractures are primarily a result of trauma and can affect the stability and alignment of the jaw, but they do not directly impede the ventilation or intubation process.

Short of the tongue is not a cause of difficult mask ventilation or intubation. Difficult mask ventilation or intubation can be caused by various technical and mechanical factors, such as foreign bodies in the airway, poor technique, inexperience, and leaks around a face mask. However, the length or size of the tongue does not directly impact the difficulty of mask ventilation or intubation.

Blade No 11 is the correct answer because it is commonly used for making small incisions and draining abscesses. It has a pointed and curved shape, which allows for precise and controlled cutting. Blade No 12 is larger and more suitable for making larger incisions, while Blade No 15 is used for making long and straight incisions. Blade No 22 is not typically used for abscess drainage.

Turning the head back is the easiest technique for opening the airway in a medical emergency. By tilting the head back, the airway is straightened, allowing for easier passage of air into the lungs. This position helps to prevent the tongue from blocking the airway and allows for better ventilation. It is a simple and effective method to ensure that the patient's airway is clear and open, enabling them to breathe properly.

If pressure is incorrectly applied over the xiphoid process during CPR, the liver may be injured. The xiphoid process is a small cartilaginous extension at the bottom of the sternum, and the liver is located just above it on the right side of the abdomen. Applying excessive or incorrect pressure can cause the xiphoid process to fracture or injure the liver, which is a vital organ responsible for various functions in the body.

The correct answer is to support circulation by injecting 1:1000 adrenaline. In this scenario, the patient's pulse and respiration have become weak and irregular, indicating a severe and potentially life-threatening condition. Adrenaline (also known as epinephrine) is a medication that can help improve circulation by constricting blood vessels and increasing heart rate and blood pressure. This resuscitative measure should be implemented immediately to stabilize the patient's condition and prevent further deterioration.

Infiltration with lidocaine is not a method to control intraoperative hemorrhage. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that is commonly used to numb an area before a surgical procedure, but it does not have any hemostatic properties. The other options listed - gauge sponge pressure, artery application to open vessels, and bone compression for surface bleeding - are all methods that can be used to control bleeding during surgery.

Vitamin B does not play a role in haemostasis. Haemostasis is the process of stopping bleeding and maintaining blood in a fluid state within the blood vessels. Factors such as prothrombin, vessel wall calcium, and vitamin K are all important in haemostasis. Prothrombin is a clotting factor that helps in the formation of blood clots. Vessel wall calcium is necessary for the contraction of blood vessels and the formation of a platelet plug. Vitamin K is essential for the production of clotting factors. However, vitamin B does not have a direct role in the process of haemostasis.

Thrombocytopenic purpura is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which leads to bleeding. Platelets are responsible for clotting and preventing excessive bleeding. Therefore, a deficiency of platelets is the main cause of bleeding in patients with thrombocytopenic purpura.

External cardiac compressions should be repeated at a rate of 60 times per minute. This is based on the current guidelines for cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), which recommend a compression rate of at least 100-120 compressions per minute. However, allowing for interruptions and other factors, a rate of 60 compressions per minute is considered acceptable. This ensures adequate blood flow and oxygenation to the brain and other vital organs during CPR, increasing the chances of successful resuscitation.

Anaphylactic shock is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening. Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock. It acts quickly to reverse the symptoms of an allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and increasing heart rate. Adrenaline helps to improve blood flow, open up airways, and prevent further complications. Dexamethasone is a steroid that may be used in combination with adrenaline to reduce inflammation, but it is not the first drug of choice. Anti-histamines and Deriphylline may be used as additional treatments, but they are not the primary drug for anaphylactic shock.

Given that the patient had a myocardial infarction 5 months ago, it is important to consider the patient's cardiac health before proceeding with the extraction. Referring the patient to a cardiologist will allow for a thorough evaluation of the patient's cardiac status and determine if any precautions or modifications are needed for the extraction procedure. Putting the patient on antibiotics is also important to prevent any potential infection. Doing the extraction at a later date, after the cardiologist's evaluation and with the patient on antibiotics, ensures a safer and more successful outcome.

The correct answer is "Or Administer Midazolam buccal liquid, 10 mg/ml, or midazolam injection." This is because Midazolam is a medication used for sedation and anesthesia, not for treating milder forms of allergy reactions. The other options listed are all commonly used treatments for allergies, such as antihistamines (Cetirizine and Chlorphenamine) and a bronchodilator (salbutamol inhaler).

The correct answer is "Administer Adrenaline, 1ml/A of 1:1000 solution for IM." This is because adrenaline is not typically used in the management of asthma. Adrenaline is commonly used in the treatment of severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis), but it is not a standard treatment for asthma. The other options listed, such as assessing the patient, sitting the patient upright, administering oxygen, and using a salbutamol inhaler, are all appropriate management strategies for asthma.

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Nystatin is the drug of choice for candidiasis because it is an antifungal medication that specifically targets the fungi responsible for causing candidiasis, such as Candida albicans. Nystatin works by binding to the cell membranes of the fungi, causing them to become leaky and eventually die. It is commonly used to treat oral thrush, a type of candidiasis that affects the mouth and throat. Nystatin is available in various forms, including oral suspensions and topical creams, making it suitable for different types and severities of candidiasis infections.