B3e551 Vol 2
- 1.
(201) Soil contains many voids of varying sizes. What type of material most likely will be trapped in the voids between particles in a soil sample?
- A.
Organics.
- B.
Water
- C.
Fines
- D.
Air
Correct Answer
D. AirExplanation
Soil contains many voids or spaces between particles. These voids can be filled with different materials. In this case, the most likely material to be trapped in the voids between particles in a soil sample is air. Air is a common component of soil, occupying the empty spaces between soil particles.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(201) Which of the following is not one of the four groups of designated soil particle size ranges?
- A.
Cobbles
- B.
Gravels
- C.
Silts
- D.
Fines
Correct Answer
C. SiltsExplanation
The given answer, "Silts," is not one of the four groups of designated soil particle size ranges. The four groups are cobbles, gravels, sands, and fines. Silts are not included in this classification.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(201) Refer to figure 1–3. If a particle passes the 3-inch sieve but is retained on the No. 10, how is it categorized?
- A.
Coarse sand.
- B.
Sand
- C.
Course Gravel
- D.
Gravel
Correct Answer
A. Coarse sand.Explanation
Based on the information provided in figure 1-3, if a particle passes the 3-inch sieve but is retained on the No. 10 sieve, it is categorized as coarse sand.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(201) Angular gravels and sands are generally the best materials for construction because of what characteristics?
- A.
Compactability
- B.
Intertwining
- C.
Interlocking
- D.
Angular
Correct Answer
C. InterlockingExplanation
Angular gravels and sands are generally the best materials for construction because of their interlocking characteristics. The angular shape of these materials allows them to fit tightly together, creating a stable and strong base for construction. This interlocking feature helps to prevent shifting and settling, ensuring the durability and longevity of the structure. Additionally, the interlocking nature of angular gravels and sands also improves their load-bearing capacity, making them ideal for supporting heavy loads and providing a solid foundation for buildings and infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(201) When viewed under a microscope, what shape do the fines in clay have?
- A.
Subangular
- B.
Platy
- C.
Bulky
- D.
Flat
Correct Answer
B. PlatyExplanation
When viewed under a microscope, the fines in clay have a platy shape. This means that they are flat and thin, resembling small plates or flakes. This shape allows the fines to easily slide past each other, which contributes to the cohesive and plastic properties of clay.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(201) Which of the following is a type of moisture that may be present as a film surrounding separate soil particles?
- A.
Gravitational
- B.
Absorbed
- C.
Adsorbed
- D.
Capillary
Correct Answer
C. AdsorbedExplanation
Adsorbed moisture refers to the water molecules that are attracted to the surface of soil particles through weak van der Waals forces. This type of moisture forms a thin film around the soil particles, adhering to their surface. It is different from absorbed moisture, which is water that is held within the pores and voids of the soil, and capillary moisture, which is water that is drawn up through capillary action. Gravitational moisture, on the other hand, refers to water that moves downward through the soil due to the force of gravity.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(201) What is the name of a soil’s ability to deform without cracking or breaking?
- A.
Cohesion
- B.
Plasticity
- C.
Liquid Limit
- D.
Plasticity Index
Correct Answer
B. PlasticityExplanation
Plasticity refers to a soil's ability to deform without cracking or breaking. It is a measure of how easily a soil can be molded or shaped. Soils with high plasticity are typically clayey in nature and can be easily molded into different forms. Plasticity is an important property in geotechnical engineering as it affects the behavior and stability of soil structures.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(201) Organic soils have high organic contents, and what other characteristic?
- A.
Poor load-maintaining properties.
- B.
Poor load-bearing properties.
- C.
Low compressibility.
- D.
High Liquid Limit.
Correct Answer
A. Poor load-maintaining properties.Explanation
Organic soils have high organic contents, which means they contain a significant amount of decomposed plant and animal matter. This organic material can make the soil loose and unstable, resulting in poor load-maintaining properties. This means that the soil is not able to support heavy loads or structures effectively and may experience settlement or deformation under load. Therefore, poor load-maintaining properties are a characteristic of organic soils.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(201) The Unified Soils Classification System (USCS) divides soils into how many major and minor categories?
- A.
Six major and three minor.
- B.
Three major and six minor.
- C.
Ten major and four minor.
- D.
Four major and ten minor.
Correct Answer
B. Three major and six minor.Explanation
The Unified Soils Classification System (USCS) divides soils into three major categories and six minor categories. This classification system is widely used in geotechnical engineering to categorize soils based on their physical properties and behavior. The three major categories are coarse-grained soils, fine-grained soils, and organic soils. The six minor categories further classify soils within these major categories based on specific characteristics such as grain size, plasticity, and compressibility.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(201) Refer to figure 1–6 in the text. What is the letter symbol for a well-graded gravel with little or no fines?
- A.
GP
- B.
GW
- C.
WG
- D.
GM
Correct Answer
B. GWExplanation
The letter symbol "GW" represents a well-graded gravel with little or no fines.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(201) Refer to figure 1–6 in the text. What is the letter symbol for inorganic silts with slight plasticity?
- A.
OM
- B.
MO
- C.
ML
- D.
CL
Correct Answer
C. MLExplanation
The letter symbol ML represents inorganic silts with slight plasticity.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(202) When performing the sedimentation soil classification test, how much of what material goes into the jar?
- A.
About 4 inch of the fine fraction of soil passing the No. 1 sieve
- B.
About 1 inch of the fine fraction of soil passing the No. 40 sieve
- C.
About 1 inch of the fine fraction of soil passing the No. 200 sieve.
- D.
About 1 inch of the fine fraction of soil passing the No. 4 sieve.
Correct Answer
D. About 1 inch of the fine fraction of soil passing the No. 4 sieve.Explanation
The correct answer is about 1 inch of the fine fraction of soil passing the No. 4 sieve. This is because the sedimentation soil classification test involves separating the soil into different size fractions. The fine fraction of soil passing the No. 4 sieve is the appropriate size fraction to be placed in the jar for this test.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(202) When performing the grit soil classification test, what is the difference between clayey and silty soils?
- A.
Silty soils are very gritty on the teeth while clayey soils feel smooth and powdery
- B.
Silty soils are gritty on the teeth while clayey soils feel smooth and powdery
- C.
Clayey soils are gritty on the teeth while silty soils feel smooth and powdery
- D.
Silty soils have hard, sharp particles while clayey soils feel smooth and powdery
Correct Answer
B. Silty soils are gritty on the teeth while clayey soils feel smooth and powderyExplanation
Silty soils are described as gritty on the teeth, indicating that they have a coarse texture. On the other hand, clayey soils are described as feeling smooth and powdery, suggesting that they have a fine texture. This difference in texture is important in the grit soil classification test, as it helps to differentiate between the two types of soils based on their tactile properties.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(202) When performing the roll or thread soil classification test, what is the likely classification of a soil sample that cannot be rolled into a thread at any moisture content?
- A.
CH or CL.
- B.
MH or CH
- C.
ML or CL
- D.
ML or MH.
Correct Answer
D. ML or MH.Explanation
A soil sample that cannot be rolled into a thread at any moisture content is likely to be classified as ML (silt) or MH (silty sand). This is because soils with a higher silt content (ML) or a higher sand content (MH) tend to have poor cohesion and are unable to form threads even when wet.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(202) When performing the wet shaking soil classification test, how can you tell if the water content of the soil sample is adequate?
- A.
The sample should be just wet enough to form a sticky ball.
- B.
The sample should be just wet enough to form a smooth powdery ball.
- C.
The surface of the sample becomes dull and the material becomes firm.
- D.
When the broken pieces of the sample are shaken they will liquefy again and flow together.
Correct Answer
D. When the broken pieces of the sample are shaken they will liquefy again and flow together.Explanation
The correct answer states that when the broken pieces of the sample are shaken, they will liquefy again and flow together. This indicates that the water content of the soil sample is adequate. If the soil is too dry, the broken pieces will not liquefy and flow together. If the soil is too wet, the broken pieces will not flow together and will remain separate. Therefore, the ability of the broken pieces to liquefy and flow together is a reliable indicator of the adequate water content in the soil sample during the wet shaking soil classification test.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(202) When performing the dry strength soil classification test, the soil sample indicates an inorganic clay with low to medium plasticity if the pat
- A.
Has little or no dry strength and crumbles or powders when picked up.
- B.
Can be broken with great effort, but cannot be powdered
- C.
Cannot be broken nor powdered by finger pressure
- D.
Can be broken and powdered with some effort
Correct Answer
D. Can be broken and powdered with some effortExplanation
The correct answer indicates that the soil sample has low to medium plasticity. This means that it has some ability to retain its shape when molded, but it is not very sticky or malleable. The fact that the soil can be broken and powdered with some effort suggests that it is not very cohesive and does not have a high dry strength.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(202) What is the likely soil classification if a sample passes the No. 40 sieve, does not have an organic odor, and has more than 50 percent fines in the sedimentation test, and a pat cannot be broken with hand strength?
- A.
SH
- B.
MH
- C.
CH
- D.
CL
Correct Answer
C. CHExplanation
The likely soil classification is CH because the given information indicates that the sample has more than 50 percent fines in the sedimentation test and a pat cannot be broken with hand strength. CH stands for clayey soil with high plasticity, which means it has a high percentage of fine particles and can be molded easily.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(203) Given a soil sample with an original weight of 40.52 and a dried weight of 28.52, what is the moisture content?
- A.
12%
- B.
24%
- C.
42%
- D.
36%
Correct Answer
C. 42%Explanation
The moisture content of the soil sample can be calculated by subtracting the dried weight from the original weight, and then dividing that value by the original weight and multiplying by 100. In this case, the calculation would be: (40.52 - 28.52) / 40.52 * 100 = 12 / 40.52 * 100 = 0.296 * 100 = 29.6%. Therefore, the correct answer is 29.6%, which is not one of the options given.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(203) What are the three known values when using a Casagrande cup to determine the liquid limit (LL) of a sample?
- A.
Distance between sample halves, distance of cup drop, and number of blows per minute
- B.
13.5mm, 10mm, and 120 blows
- C.
Distance between samples, distance of cup drop, and number of blows per minute
- D.
13.5mm, 10mm, and 25 blows
Correct Answer
A. Distance between sample halves, distance of cup drop, and number of blows per minuteExplanation
The three known values when using a Casagrande cup to determine the liquid limit (LL) of a sample are the distance between sample halves, the distance of cup drop, and the number of blows per minute. These values are important in accurately measuring the liquid limit of a soil sample using the Casagrande cup method. The distance between sample halves determines the thickness of the soil sample, the distance of cup drop determines the energy applied to the soil, and the number of blows per minute determines the rate at which the soil is compacted.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(203) What is the final result of a Proctor compaction test?
- A.
The maximum dry density.
- B.
The peak point of compaction.
- C.
The optimal moisture content for soil compaction.
- D.
The compaction curve displaying all dry densities.
Correct Answer
C. The optimal moisture content for soil compaction.Explanation
The final result of a Proctor compaction test is the optimal moisture content for soil compaction. This test is used to determine the maximum density achievable for a specific soil and the corresponding moisture content at which it can be achieved. The optimal moisture content is crucial in ensuring that the soil is compacted to its maximum density, which is important for construction projects to ensure stability and load-bearing capacity. The test helps in determining the ideal moisture content for achieving the highest compaction and strength of the soil.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(204) What is the specific gravity of Bromine if its density is 3119 kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m3)?
- A.
3.12.
- B.
31.2.
- C.
7.99
- D.
79.9
Correct Answer
A. 3.12.Explanation
The specific gravity of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of water. In this case, the density of bromine is given as 3119 kg/m3. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3. To find the specific gravity, we divide the density of bromine by the density of water: 3119 kg/m3 / 1000 kg/m3 = 3.119. Rounded to two decimal places, this is 3.12. Therefore, the specific gravity of bromine is 3.12.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(205) Rigid pavements are often cut into squares or slabs because slabs allow
- A.
Water to drain between their cracks during heavy precipitation.
- B.
For easier removal and replacement if one if damaged.
- C.
the PCC to expand and contract according to temperature changes
- D.
The ACC to expand and contract according to temperature changes.
Correct Answer
C. the PCC to expand and contract according to temperature changesExplanation
Rigid pavements are often cut into squares or slabs because it allows the PCC (Portland Cement Concrete) to expand and contract according to temperature changes. This is important because concrete expands when it is exposed to high temperatures and contracts when it is exposed to low temperatures. By cutting the pavement into squares or slabs, it allows for these temperature-induced movements without causing significant damage to the pavement.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(205) What happens to the weight of a load applied to a rigid paving material?
- A.
It is distributed evenly across the subsurface material
- B.
The load is supported by the surface of the rigid pavement.
- C.
It creates a cone shape down through the subsurface material.
- D.
Loads are distributed down to the bottom of the subsurface material.
Correct Answer
A. It is distributed evenly across the subsurface materialExplanation
When a load is applied to a rigid paving material, it is distributed evenly across the subsurface material. This means that the weight of the load is spread out and dispersed throughout the material beneath the pavement. This distribution helps to prevent concentrated areas of stress and ensures that the load is supported by the entire subsurface, rather than just the surface of the pavement.Rate this question:
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- 24.
. (206) What is the final determination of the Marshall stability test?
- A.
The amount of flow of the sample.
- B.
The amount of deformation of the sample
- C.
The amount of deformation of the sample at 140°F.
- D.
Whether the hot mix asphalt (HMA) design can support the intended traffic load.
Correct Answer
D. Whether the hot mix aspHalt (HMA) design can support the intended traffic load.Explanation
The final determination of the Marshall stability test is whether the hot mix asphalt (HMA) design can support the intended traffic load. This test is conducted to evaluate the strength and stability of the asphalt mixture. The Marshall stability value indicates the maximum load that the HMA specimen can withstand before failure. By determining the stability, engineers can assess whether the asphalt design meets the required standards and can safely withstand the expected traffic load.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(206) After hot mix asphalt (HMA) compaction, what is a good indication of the mix design’s probable pavement surface performance?
- A.
The theoretical specific gravity of a HMA sample
- B.
The combination of aggregate voids filled with asphalt and filled with water.
- C.
The combination of aggregate voids filled with asphalt and filled with air.
- D.
The affective asphalt content
Correct Answer
C. The combination of aggregate voids filled with aspHalt and filled with air.Explanation
The combination of aggregate voids filled with asphalt and filled with air is a good indication of the mix design's probable pavement surface performance because it ensures proper drainage and allows for air voids that can accommodate temperature-induced expansion and contraction. This helps to prevent cracking and other pavement distresses.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(207) Which test to ensure the proper quality of concrete for a project is not typically conducted on Portland Cement Concrete (PCC)?
- A.
Air content.
- B.
Moisture.
- C.
Temperature
- D.
Hydration.
Correct Answer
D. Hydration.Explanation
Hydration is not typically tested for the proper quality of Portland Cement Concrete (PCC). Hydration refers to the chemical reaction that occurs when water is added to cement, resulting in the hardening of the concrete. While hydration is an important process in the formation of concrete, it is not a test conducted to ensure the quality of the concrete. Tests such as air content, moisture, and temperature are commonly performed to assess the quality and performance of PCC.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(207) What specific measurement in a slump test indicates the slump?
- A.
The vertical distance between the slump cone and the free standing concrete sample
- B.
The horizontal distance between the bottom of the slump cone and the top of the free standing concrete sample
- C.
The vertical distance between the top of the slump cone and the top of the free standing concrete sample
- D.
The horizontal distance between the top of the slump cone and the free standing concrete sample.
Correct Answer
C. The vertical distance between the top of the slump cone and the top of the free standing concrete sampleExplanation
The correct answer is the vertical distance between the top of the slump cone and the top of the free standing concrete sample. This measurement indicates the slump of the concrete, which refers to the amount of vertical settlement or collapse that occurs when the slump cone is removed. By measuring this distance, construction professionals can determine the workability and consistency of the concrete mixture, which is important for ensuring the quality and performance of the final product.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(207) The typical desired range for a concrete slump is between how many inches?
- A.
Four and Seven
- B.
Zero and Four
- C.
Zero and Seven
- D.
Two and Four
Correct Answer
D. Two and FourExplanation
The desired range for a concrete slump refers to the consistency or workability of the concrete mix. A slump test measures the vertical displacement of the concrete when a cone-shaped mold is removed. A slump between two and four inches is considered ideal for most construction applications. This range provides a good balance between fluidity and stability, allowing the concrete to be easily placed and compacted while still maintaining its shape and strength. A slump outside of this range may indicate that the concrete is either too dry and difficult to work with or too wet and prone to segregation and excessive shrinkage.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(207) What is the ideal amount of entrapped air in a concrete sample?
- A.
0%
- B.
4%-7%
- C.
2%-4%
- D.
2%-7%
Correct Answer
A. 0%Explanation
The ideal amount of entrapped air in a concrete sample is 0%. This means that there should be no air bubbles or voids present in the concrete. Air entrainment can weaken the concrete and reduce its durability, so it is important to minimize the amount of entrapped air.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(208) When are concrete block walls beneficial over poured concrete walls?
- A.
When a wall needs to be reinforced with steel rods.
- B.
When the weight of the wall needs to be reduced.
- C.
When there is a limited ability to construct complex concrete forms
- D.
When concrete walls do not need to be reinforced
Correct Answer
C. When there is a limited ability to construct complex concrete formsExplanation
Concrete block walls are beneficial over poured concrete walls when there is a limited ability to construct complex concrete forms. This means that if there are constraints or limitations in constructing intricate or complicated shapes with concrete, using concrete blocks can be a more practical and feasible option. Concrete blocks are pre-made and can be easily stacked and arranged to form a wall, eliminating the need for complex formwork construction.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(208) What standard describes the standards for loadbearing capacity of concrete masonry units (CMU)?
- A.
ANSI 2–1.
- B.
ASTM C90
- C.
ANSI C90
- D.
ASTM 2–1
Correct Answer
B. ASTM C90Explanation
ASTM C90 is the correct answer because it is a standard that specifically describes the standards for loadbearing capacity of concrete masonry units (CMU). ANSI 2-1 and ANSI C90 are incorrect options as they do not pertain to the loadbearing capacity of CMU. ASTM 2-1 is also incorrect as it does not exist as a standard.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(208) Which type of mortar is used for structural masonry applications?
- A.
Type O
- B.
Type N
- C.
Type S
- D.
Type M
Correct Answer
C. Type SExplanation
Type S mortar is used for structural masonry applications. This type of mortar has a high compressive strength and is suitable for use in load-bearing walls and other structural elements. It is commonly used in areas with high wind and seismic activity, as it provides greater resistance to these forces. Type S mortar is made with a higher proportion of Portland cement compared to other types, resulting in its increased strength and durability.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(209) Steel is a hard, strong, flexible alloy of iron,
- A.
aluminum, and other metals to give a particular property.
- B.
carbon, and other metals to give a particular property.
- C.
Carbon, and molybdenum to give a particular property
- D.
carbon, and nickel to give a particular property
Correct Answer
B. carbon, and other metals to give a particular property.Explanation
The correct answer is carbon, and other metals to give a particular property. Steel is formed by combining iron with carbon and other metals. The addition of carbon helps to increase the hardness and strength of the steel, while the other metals provide additional properties such as corrosion resistance or heat resistance. Therefore, carbon and other metals are essential components in the formation of steel and contribute to its unique properties.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(209) Which category of steel structural member shape has the greatest strength?
- A.
W
- B.
S
- C.
C
- D.
L
Correct Answer
A. WExplanation
The category of steel structural member shape that has the greatest strength is W.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(209) In which situation is aluminum a better choice than steel for a structural member?
- A.
The frame of a roll-up overhead door.
- B.
The structure supporting a water tower
- C.
The frame of a warehouse shelving system
- D.
The frame of an Alaskan Small Shelter System tent
Correct Answer
D. The frame of an Alaskan Small Shelter System tentExplanation
Aluminum is a better choice than steel for the frame of an Alaskan Small Shelter System tent because aluminum is lightweight, which makes it easier to transport and set up in remote locations. Additionally, aluminum is resistant to corrosion, which is important in the harsh weather conditions typically found in Alaska. Steel, on the other hand, is heavier and more prone to rusting, making it less suitable for this specific application.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(209) An effective way to protect steel, even if the protective coating is scratched, is
- A.
glazing.
- B.
Calvinization
- C.
Galvanization
- D.
cathodic protection.
Correct Answer
C. GalvanizationExplanation
Galvanization is the process of coating steel with a layer of zinc to protect it from corrosion. Zinc acts as a sacrificial anode, meaning that it corrodes before the steel does. This creates a barrier between the steel and the environment, preventing rust and other forms of corrosion. Even if the protective coating is scratched, the zinc will continue to provide protection to the steel, as it will corrode in place of the steel. Therefore, galvanization is an effective way to protect steel, even if the protective coating is scratched.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(210) The term hardwood, when referring to lumber, identifies wood cut from what sort of tree?
- A.
Pine
- B.
Maple
- C.
Evergreen
- D.
Decidious
Correct Answer
D. DecidiousExplanation
Deciduous trees are the type of trees that shed their leaves annually. Hardwood lumber refers to wood that is harvested from deciduous trees, such as oak, maple, or walnut. These trees are known for their dense and durable wood, making them suitable for various applications like furniture, flooring, and cabinetry. Pine and evergreen trees, on the other hand, are classified as softwood trees, which have different characteristics and uses compared to hardwood.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(210) Lumber quantities are measured by feet board measure or board feet (FBM). Calculate the FBM for two boards 6" × 12" each; one is 12 feet long and the other is 8 feet
- A.
108
- B.
132
- C.
162
- D.
270
Correct Answer
B. 132 -
- 39.
(210) Structural members made from gluing together dimensional timber are called
- A.
Oriented strand board
- B.
Particle board
- C.
Plywood
- D.
Glulam
Correct Answer
D. GlulamExplanation
Glulam is the correct answer because it refers to structural members made by gluing together dimensional timber. Glulam stands for glued laminated timber and it is a type of engineered wood product that consists of layers of timber bonded together with adhesives. This process enhances the strength and stability of the timber, making it suitable for use in various construction applications. Glulam is commonly used in beams, columns, and other load-bearing structures in buildings.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(211) Plastic skylights are most likely made from
- A.
thermaplastics
- B.
polyethylene.
- C.
thermoplastics.
- D.
polyester
Correct Answer
D. polyesterExplanation
Plastic skylights are most likely made from polyester because polyester is a common material used in the production of plastic products. Polyester is a strong and durable thermoplastic polymer that can be easily molded into various shapes, making it suitable for manufacturing skylights. Additionally, polyester has good resistance to weathering and UV radiation, which is important for skylights exposed to sunlight.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(211) Which component does not comprise a window system?
- A.
Structural frames
- B.
Glass panes.
- C.
Coatings
- D.
Spacers
Correct Answer
C. CoatingsExplanation
Coatings do not comprise a window system because they are not a structural or functional component of a window. Structural frames provide support and stability, glass panes allow for visibility and insulation, and spacers maintain the distance between the glass panes. Coatings, on the other hand, are applied to the glass surface for various purposes such as reducing heat transfer, enhancing energy efficiency, or providing privacy. While coatings can improve the performance of windows, they are not essential components of the window system itself.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(212) During construction, what group of operations involve the final interior and exterior surfaces?
- A.
Insulating
- B.
Finishing
- C.
Plumbing
- D.
Covering
Correct Answer
B. FinishingExplanation
During construction, the group of operations that involve the final interior and exterior surfaces is called finishing. This includes tasks such as applying paint or wallpaper, installing flooring, and adding trim or molding. Finishing is the last step in the construction process and is essential for giving the building a polished and completed appearance.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(212) Which function is not accomplished by exterior coverings of a facility?
- A.
Thermal insulation
- B.
Adequate sound damping
- C.
Keep out the wind and rain
- D.
Structurally support the building.
Correct Answer
B. Adequate sound dampingExplanation
Exterior coverings of a facility serve multiple functions, such as thermal insulation, keeping out the wind and rain, and structurally supporting the building. However, adequate sound damping is not a function typically accomplished by exterior coverings. Sound damping is usually achieved through the use of interior materials and design elements, such as acoustic panels or insulation.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(213) What does the acronym “LEED” stand for?
- A.
Leadership in Environmental and Energy Design
- B.
Leadership in Efficiency and Environmental Design
- C.
Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design.
- D.
Leading in Energy and Environmental Design
Correct Answer
C. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design.Explanation
LEED stands for Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. This acronym is used to represent a rating system that assesses the environmental performance of buildings and encourages sustainable practices in construction and operation. The correct answer is "Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design."Rate this question:
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- 45.
(213) In reference to green building standards, which criterion is not evaluated by Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED)?
- A.
Sustainable sites.
- B.
Indoor water quality
- C.
Energy and atmosphere
- D.
Materials and resources
Correct Answer
B. Indoor water qualityExplanation
LEED does evaluate the criterion of Indoor water quality. The program focuses on sustainable sites, energy and atmosphere, and materials and resources, but it also includes indoor water quality as one of its evaluation criteria.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(214) In reference to facility site access and circulation, what is the minimum width for walkways?
- A.
3 feet
- B.
4 feet
- C.
6 feet
- D.
8 feet
Correct Answer
B. 4 feetExplanation
The minimum width for walkways in reference to facility site access and circulation is 4 feet. This width allows for comfortable and safe passage for pedestrians, ensuring that they have enough space to walk without feeling cramped or restricted. It also allows for the easy movement of equipment or materials if needed. A wider walkway would provide even more space, but 4 feet is the minimum requirement to ensure proper accessibility and circulation within the facility.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(214) Which organization publishes documents regarding the planning, design, and operation of pedestrian facilities?
- A.
Americans with Disabilities Act.
- B.
Unified Facilities Criteria
- C.
Department of Highway and Transportation Office
- D.
American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials
Correct Answer
D. American Association of State Highway and Transportation OfficialsExplanation
The American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials (AASHTO) publishes documents regarding the planning, design, and operation of pedestrian facilities. These documents provide guidelines and standards for creating safe and accessible pedestrian infrastructure, ensuring that pedestrians are able to navigate and use transportation facilities effectively. AASHTO's publications help transportation agencies and professionals in designing and maintaining pedestrian-friendly environments that promote safety and accessibility for all users.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(214) Refer to figure 3–4. How many parking spaces are authorized for an office building with 70 people assigned?
- A.
70
- B.
60
- C.
42
- D.
15
Correct Answer
C. 42Explanation
Based on Figure 3-4, the number of parking spaces authorized for an office building with 70 people assigned is 42.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(215) What is a quantity-distance (QD) arc?
- A.
The QD affected by explosion radiation from an impact site
- B.
The QD affected by an explosion radiating from an impact site.
- C.
The potential area affected by explosion radiation from a storage facility
- D.
The potential area affected by an explosion radiating from a storage facility
Correct Answer
D. The potential area affected by an explosion radiating from a storage facilityExplanation
A quantity-distance (QD) arc refers to the potential area that could be affected by an explosion radiating from a storage facility. This means that if there is an explosion at a storage facility, the QD arc represents the area that could be impacted by the explosion's radiation. The QD arc helps determine the necessary safety measures and distance requirements to minimize the risk and damage caused by such explosions.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(215) Which publication has detailed information about determining quantity-distance (QD) arcs?
- A.
AFPAM 36–2241 Explosives Safety Standards
- B.
UFC 1–201–01 General Building Requirements
- C.
UFC 2–100–01 Installation Master Planning
- D.
AFMAN 91–201 Explosives Safety Standards
Correct Answer
D. AFMAN 91–201 Explosives Safety StandardsExplanation
AFMAN 91-201 Explosives Safety Standards is the correct answer because this publication provides detailed information about determining quantity-distance (QD) arcs. QD arcs are used to establish safe distances between explosives and occupied facilities or personnel, and AFMAN 91-201 provides guidelines and standards for ensuring the safety of explosives handling and storage. The other publications listed do not specifically focus on QD arcs or explosives safety standards.Rate this question:
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 04, 2018Quiz Created by
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