B4N051 Vol. 3 Ure Questions; Edit Code: 05

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  • 1/86 Questions

    The process by which a drug in transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as

    • Osmosis
    • Solubility
    • Absorption
    • Stimulation
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'B4N051 VOL. 3 URE Questions; Edit Code: 05', assesses knowledge in pharmacology and medication management. It covers roles in medication administration, drug nomenclature, and legal aspects of patient rights, crucial for healthcare professionals.

B4N051 Vol. 3 Ure Questions; Edit Code: 05 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to

    • Acid content

    • Water content

    • Enzyme production

    • Body fat absorption

    Correct Answer
    A. Body fat absorption
    Explanation
    A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to body fat absorption. This means that drugs can be absorbed differently in individuals with varying levels of body fat. Body fat can act as a storage site for drugs, leading to a slower release into the bloodstream. Therefore, patients with higher levels of body fat may experience delayed drug effects compared to those with lower levels of body fat.

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  • 3. 

    The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is

    • Intravenous (IV) push

    • Intramuscular (IM)

    • Subcutaneous (sc)

    • IV drip

    Correct Answer
    A. Intramuscular (IM)
    Explanation
    The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is intramuscular (IM). This method is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The drug is injected into the muscle tissue, where it is absorbed into the blood vessels and distributed throughout the body. This route of administration allows for a relatively rapid onset of action and is often used for vaccines, antibiotics, and other medications that cannot be taken orally.

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  • 4. 

    To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe

    • Down to straighten the canal

    • Outward to expose the canal

    • Inward to confine the canal

    • Up to shorten the canal

    Correct Answer
    A. Down to straighten the canal
    Explanation
    To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, gently pulling the earlobe down helps to straighten the canal. This allows for easier access to the ear canal and ensures that the drops are properly administered. Pulling the earlobe downward also helps to create a straight path for the drops to flow into the ear. This technique is commonly used in young children to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the ear drop administration.

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  • 5. 

    Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of

    • Acetaminophen overdose

    • Ibuprofen overdose

    • Vitamin C overdose

    • Opioid overdose

    Correct Answer
    A. Opioid overdose
    Explanation
    Opioid antagonists are medications that are used to treat opioid overdose. Opioids are a class of drugs that include prescription painkillers like oxycodone and hydrocodone, as well as illegal drugs like heroin. Opioid antagonists work by blocking the effects of opioids in the body, which can help reverse the effects of an overdose. They can be administered in emergency situations to help prevent respiratory depression and other dangerous symptoms associated with opioid overdose. Acetaminophen overdose, ibuprofen overdose, and vitamin C overdose are not treated with opioid antagonists.

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  • 6. 

    While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson’s diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin

    • A

    • D

    • E

    • K

    Correct Answer
    A. K
    Explanation
    While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K is known to interfere with the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Heparin works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood, while vitamin K promotes clotting. Therefore, consuming foods rich in vitamin K can counteract the effects of heparin and increase the risk of blood clot formation. It is important for Mr. Johnson to avoid or limit foods high in vitamin K to ensure the effectiveness of his heparin treatment.

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  • 7. 

    What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen?

    • Antineoplastics.

    • Antihistimines.

    • Antifungals.

    • Antivirals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Antihistimines.
    Explanation
    Antihistamines would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen because they help to relieve symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and watery eyes by blocking the effects of histamine, which is released during an allergic reaction. Antineoplastics are used to treat cancer, antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, and antivirals are used to treat viral infections.

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  • 8. 

    What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?

    • Hepatitis and polio.

    • Anthrax and influenza.

    • Small Pox and varicella.

    • Yellow Fever and typhoid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellow Fever and typhoid.
    Explanation
    Individuals deploying to Africa are at risk of contracting diseases such as Yellow Fever and typhoid. These vaccines are recommended for travelers to Africa to protect them from these specific diseases. Yellow Fever is a viral infection transmitted by mosquitoes and can cause severe symptoms, including jaundice and organ failure. Typhoid is a bacterial infection spread through contaminated food and water, causing high fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Vaccination against these diseases helps to prevent infection and ensure the health and safety of individuals traveling to Africa.

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  • 9. 

    A Finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a 

    • Pill

    • Paste

    • Powder

    • Tincture

    Correct Answer
    A. Powder
    Explanation
    A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally is known as a powder. Powders are a type of medication preparation that can be ingested or applied topically. They are created by grinding the drug into a fine, dry substance. Powders are versatile and can be mixed with other substances or dissolved in liquids for consumption. They are commonly used in various medical and pharmaceutical applications due to their ease of use and flexibility in administration.

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  • 10. 

    LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for Nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer?

    • 0.25

    • 0.50

    • 2.5

    • 5.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.50
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.50 because the Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. Since the ordered dose is 12.5 mg, we can calculate the amount of mLs to administer by setting up a proportion. 50 mg is to 2 mL as 12.5 mg is to x mL. Solving for x, we get x = (12.5 mg * 2 mL) / 50 mg = 0.50 mL. Therefore, 0.50 mL would be administered.

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  • 11. 

    When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to

    • Maintain patient comfort

    • Keep the medication off the patient's face

    • Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye

    • Allow the solution to pool in the affected eye, filling the conjunctival sac

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye
    Explanation
    Administering eye medications requires positioning the patient's treated eye lower than the other to prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. This is important to avoid any contamination or potential adverse effects on the unaffected eye. By keeping the treated eye lower, gravity helps to ensure that the medication stays in the intended eye and does not flow into the unaffected eye.

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  • 12. 

    Into what body cavity are otic medications adminstered?

    • External auditory canal

    • Internal auditory canal

    • Lower conjunctival

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. External auditory canal
    Explanation
    Otic medications are administered into the external auditory canal. The external auditory canal is the passage that leads from the outside of the ear to the eardrum. This is where the medication is placed in order to treat conditions such as ear infections or inflammation. Administering the medication directly into the external auditory canal allows for targeted treatment of the ear and its associated structures.

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  • 13. 

    Nonopioid analgesics are available 

    • Through product sampling

    • During clinical trials

    • By prescription only

    • Over the counter

    Correct Answer
    A. Over the counter
    Explanation
    Nonopioid analgesics are available over the counter, meaning they can be purchased without a prescription. This means that individuals can easily access these medications from pharmacies or stores without needing to consult a healthcare professional. This convenience allows people to manage their pain symptoms quickly and efficiently.

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  • 14. 

    Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to

    • Treat anemia

    • Produce bradycardia

    • Increase myocardial excitability

    • Maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion
    Explanation
    Quinidine is a medication primarily used to maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion. Cardioversion is a procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in individuals with certain types of irregular heartbeats. Quinidine helps to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent abnormal rhythms from recurring after cardioversion. It is not used to treat anemia, produce bradycardia (slow heart rate), or increase myocardial excitability.

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  • 15. 

    Out  of several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?

    • Trade name

    • Official name

    • Generic name

    • Chemical name

    Correct Answer
    A. Trade name
    Explanation
    The trade name of a medication is given by the manufacturer. It is the brand name under which the medication is marketed and sold. This name is usually trademarked and is unique to the manufacturer. The trade name helps to distinguish the medication from other similar drugs in the market. It is often easier to remember and pronounce compared to the generic or official names of the medication.

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  • 16. 

    Which statement is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights?

    • Be informed of a drug's name

    • Be informed of a drug's purpose

    • Choose the method of administration

    • Receive clearly labeled medication containers

    Correct Answer
    A. Choose the method of administration
    Explanation
    The statement "Choose the method of administration" is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights. While patients have the right to be informed about a drug's name, purpose, and receive clearly labeled medication containers, they do not have the right to choose the method of administration. This decision is typically made by the healthcare provider based on medical guidelines and the patient's specific needs and condition.

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  • 17. 

    Drug administration is controlled primarily by

    • State amendments

    • Facility mandate

    • Federal law

    • State law

    Correct Answer
    A. Federal law
    Explanation
    Drug administration is primarily controlled by federal law because the federal government has the authority to regulate and enforce laws related to drugs at a national level. Federal laws such as the Controlled Substances Act and the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act establish regulations for the manufacturing, distribution, and use of drugs. These laws ensure that drugs are safe, effective, and properly labeled. While state laws may also play a role in drug administration, federal law takes precedence and sets the overarching framework for drug regulation in the United States.

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  • 18. 

    Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as 

    • Schedule I

    • Schedule II

    • Schedule III

    • Schedule IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Schedule II
    Explanation
    Narcotics such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines have acceptable medical uses but also have a potential for abuse. They are classified as Schedule II drugs. This classification indicates that they have a high potential for abuse, may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, and have limited accepted medical uses. These drugs are tightly regulated and prescriptions for them have stricter requirements compared to drugs in lower schedules.

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  • 19. 

    Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?

    • Chemotherapeutic

    • Substitutive

    • Supportive

    • Curative

    Correct Answer
    A. Curative
    Explanation
    Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial infections. It works by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria in the body. The term "curative" refers to something that is intended to cure or eliminate a disease or infection. In this context, penicillin is administered specifically to treat the infection and eliminate the bacteria causing it, making it an example of a curative drug.

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  • 20. 

    Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?

    • Slower circulation level

    • Higher body metabolism

    • Lower body metabolism

    • Lower digestive system content

    Correct Answer
    A. Lower digestive system content
    Explanation
    Oral medications that are taken before meals are generally faster acting because the lower digestive system content allows for quicker absorption and distribution of the medication into the bloodstream. When the stomach is empty, there is less food and other substances present that could potentially interfere with the absorption process. This allows the medication to be broken down and absorbed more efficiently, leading to faster onset of action.

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  • 21. 

    Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in early 2000’s the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel?

    • Typhoid.

    • Varicella.

    • Small pox.

    • Yellow fever.

    Correct Answer
    A. Small pox.
    Explanation
    Smallpox is the correct answer because it was a childhood disease that was almost eradicated worldwide by 1972. The smallpox vaccine was highly successful in controlling the spread of the disease, leading to a significant decline in cases. However, due to concerns about potential bioterrorism threats, the vaccine was reintroduced in the early 2000s as a mobility vaccine for military personnel. This decision was made to ensure that military personnel would be protected against smallpox in case of an intentional release of the virus.

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  • 22. 

    Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?

    • Yellow fever.

    • Influenza.

    • Typhoid.

    • Anthrax.

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellow fever.
    Explanation
    Mosquitoes are known to transmit various diseases, and yellow fever is one of them. Yellow fever is caused by a virus that is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes, particularly the Aedes aegypti species. The virus can cause a range of symptoms, from mild fever and headache to severe liver damage and bleeding. Therefore, yellow fever is the correct answer as it is a viral disease transmitted by mosquitoes.

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  • 23. 

    What patient-education would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing?

    • Take only at bedtime.

    • Take with orange juice

    • Do not chew the capsule.

    • Do not take with food or milk.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not chew the capsule.
    Explanation
    It is important for the patient to understand that they should not chew the capsule of Tessalon perles. Chewing the capsule may cause the medication to be released too quickly and can lead to unwanted side effects. It is necessary to swallow the capsule whole with water to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of the medication.

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  • 24. 

    What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistimines and sedative-hypnotic drugs?

    • Milk.

    • Bread.

    • Cranberry juice.

    • Grapefruit juice.

    Correct Answer
    A. Grapefruit juice.
    Explanation
    Grapefruit juice is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines, and sedative-hypnotic drugs. It contains compounds that inhibit the activity of an enzyme called CYP3A4, which is responsible for the breakdown of many medications in the body. When this enzyme is inhibited, the medications may not be metabolized properly, leading to higher levels in the bloodstream and potentially causing harmful side effects or reducing their effectiveness. Therefore, consuming grapefruit juice while taking these medications can be problematic.

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  • 25. 

    Antianxiety medications are prescribed for 

    • Suicidal tendencies treatment

    • The treatment of withdrawals

    • Prolonged treatment

    • To treatment of insomnia

    Correct Answer
    A. To treatment of insomnia
    Explanation
    Antianxiety medications are prescribed to treat insomnia. These medications help to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, which can help individuals with insomnia fall asleep and stay asleep. By addressing the underlying anxiety that may be contributing to sleep difficulties, antianxiety medications can be an effective treatment option for insomnia.

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  • 26. 

    Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with

    • Barbiturates

    • Stimulants

    • Diurectics

    • Aspirin

    Correct Answer
    A. Diurectics
    Explanation
    Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with diuretics because diuretics help to reduce fluid buildup in the body by increasing urine production and promoting the excretion of excess salt and water. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension, where fluid retention can contribute to elevated blood pressure. By combining central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors with diuretics, the effectiveness of the medication in reducing blood pressure can be enhanced.

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  • 27. 

    With type I diabetes, the pancreas

    • Releases more glycogen into the blood for the cells to use for energy.

    • Produces excessive amounts of insulin to control blood sugar.

    • Takes over the production of bile salts to control blood sugar.

    • Is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar.
    Explanation
    Type I diabetes is a condition where the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. In type I diabetes, the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas, leading to a deficiency of insulin. Without enough insulin, blood sugar levels can become dangerously high, causing various symptoms and complications. Therefore, the correct answer is that the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar.

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  • 28. 

    Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with

    • Daypro or antacids.

    • Alcohol or salicylates.

    • Triclyclics or caffeine.

    • Procardia or anticoagulants.

    Correct Answer
    A. Alcohol or salicylates.
    Explanation
    Insulin is a medication used to lower blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. When taken together with alcohol or salicylates, insulin can enhance their hypoglycemic effect, meaning it can further lower blood sugar levels. This can be dangerous and lead to hypoglycemia, a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels. Therefore, it is important for individuals taking insulin to be cautious when consuming alcohol or using medications containing salicylates.

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  • 29. 

    When a patient is receiving penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient-education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control?

    • Use a back up method of birth control while taking the penicillin.

    • There are no contraindications with oral contraceptives.

    • Avoid taking the two medications at the same time.

    • Always take the two medications at the same time.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a back up method of birth control while taking the penicillin.
    Explanation
    When a patient is taking penicillin for severe strep throat and also using oral contraceptives, it is important to educate the patient about the potential interaction between the two medications. Penicillin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of unintended pregnancy. Therefore, it is necessary to use a backup method of birth control, such as condoms, while taking penicillin to ensure contraception is maintained.

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  • 30. 

    Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except

    • For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day

    • Performing all steps in the six medication rights

    • Being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medications

    • Verifying any possible interactions against current medications

    Correct Answer
    A. For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day
  • 31. 

    Vaginal suppositories are

    • Cooled before administration

    • Useful for cleansing purposes

    • Administered to combat infection

    • Administered along the anterior wall of the vagina

    Correct Answer
    A. Administered to combat infection
    Explanation
    Vaginal suppositories are administered to combat infection. This is because suppositories are a common form of medication that can be inserted into the vagina to treat various types of vaginal infections, such as yeast infections or bacterial vaginosis. The suppositories contain active ingredients that help to kill or inhibit the growth of infectious organisms, providing relief from symptoms and promoting healing. Cooling the suppositories before administration may provide additional comfort to the patient, but it is not the primary purpose of their use. Cleansing purposes and administration along the anterior wall of the vagina are not accurate explanations for the use of vaginal suppositories.

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  • 32. 

    Which medication's primary action is pain relief?

    • Endorphins, hypnotics, and sedatives

    • Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics

    • Placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics

    • Stimulant, sedatives, and placebo

    Correct Answer
    A. Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics
    Explanation
    The primary action of analgesics is pain relief, making them the medication that best fits the description. Sedatives and hypnotics may also have some pain-relieving properties, but they are not primarily used for that purpose. The other options listed do not include analgesics as a primary action.

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  • 33. 

    Opioids are contraindicated with

    • The treatment of extremity injuries

    • Phenergan combination

    • Head injury treatment

    • Caffeine use

    Correct Answer
    A. Head injury treatment
    Explanation
    Opioids are contraindicated with head injury treatment because they can depress the central nervous system and mask the symptoms of a worsening head injury. Opioids can also increase intracranial pressure, which can be dangerous for someone with a head injury. Therefore, it is important to avoid using opioids in the treatment of head injuries.

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  • 34. 

    Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with

    • Preventing the formation of prostaglandins

    • The recovery of alcohol abuse

    • Increased kidney functions

    • Curing joint dysfunctions

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventing the formation of prostaglandins
    Explanation
    Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances that play a role in inflammation. They are produced by the body in response to injury or infection and can cause pain, swelling, and redness. By preventing the formation of prostaglandins, anti-inflammatory actions can help reduce these symptoms and decrease inflammation in the body. This can be beneficial for managing conditions such as arthritis, muscle sprains, and certain types of pain.

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  • 35. 

    Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines antipsychotic medications is a result of

    • Increasing body secretion function

    • Decreasing norepinephrine relay

    • Increasing serotonin reuptake

    • Blocking dopamine receptors

    Correct Answer
    A. Blocking dopamine receptors
    Explanation
    Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) are commonly seen with typical phenothiazine antipsychotic medications. These side effects occur as a result of blocking dopamine receptors. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in motor control. Blocking dopamine receptors can disrupt the normal functioning of the basal ganglia, leading to EPS symptoms such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. By blocking dopamine receptors, these medications can interfere with the delicate balance of neurotransmitters in the brain, resulting in these unwanted side effects.

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  • 36. 

    Calcium channel blocker should not be taken with

    • Grapefruit juice

    • Soy products

    • Water

    • Milk

    Correct Answer
    A. Grapefruit juice
    Explanation
    Grapefruit juice should not be taken with calcium channel blockers because it can interfere with the way the medication is metabolized in the body. Grapefruit juice contains compounds that inhibit the enzyme responsible for breaking down the medication, leading to higher levels of the drug in the bloodstream. This can increase the risk of side effects and potentially cause harmful interactions. It is important to avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking calcium channel blockers to ensure the medication is effective and safe.

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  • 37. 

    Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by

    • Antagonizing myocardial excitability

    • Producing the enzyme protease

    • Decreasing vasoconstriction

    • Increasing heart rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreasing vasoconstriction
    Explanation
    ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by decreasing vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels, which leads to an increase in blood pressure. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By inhibiting this enzyme, ACE inhibitors prevent the constriction of blood vessels, resulting in a decrease in blood pressure.

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  • 38. 

    What is the most common side effect of antihypertensives?

    • Tinnitus

    • Tachycardia

    • Vasoconstriction

    • Postural hypotension

    Correct Answer
    A. Postural hypotension
    Explanation
    Postural hypotension is the most common side effect of antihypertensives. This condition occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up or changing positions. It can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. Antihypertensives work by lowering blood pressure, and sometimes they can lower it too much, leading to postural hypotension. This side effect is particularly common in older adults and can be managed by slowly changing positions and avoiding sudden movements.

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  • 39. 

    Cathartics are categorized as

    • Antidiarrheal.

    • Antiemetics.

    • Laxatives.

    • Emetics.

    Correct Answer
    A. Laxatives.
    Explanation
    Cathartics are categorized as laxatives because they are substances that promote bowel movements and help relieve constipation. Laxatives work by either increasing the frequency of bowel movements or softening the stool, making it easier to pass. Cathartics, such as stimulant laxatives or osmotic laxatives, are commonly used to treat constipation and promote regularity in bowel movements. They are not antidiarrheal medications, antiemetics (used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting), or emetics (used to induce vomiting).

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  • 40. 

    When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?

    • 2 hours before 

    • 30 minutes before expected motion

    • When in a large crowd for longer than 30 minutes

    • When activity will raise heart rate over 80 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 minutes before expected motion
    Explanation
    Dramamine should be taken 30 minutes before expected motion when orally administered. This is because Dramamine is an over-the-counter medication commonly used to prevent and treat motion sickness. It works by blocking the effects of a certain natural substance in the body that causes nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. Taking it 30 minutes before expected motion allows the medication to be absorbed and start working in the body, providing relief from motion sickness symptoms.

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  • 41. 

    Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?

    • Technicians are not trained to prepare medications for administration

    • A nurse or physician must directly observe technicians when they are administering medications

    • Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician

    • Nurses can always allow technicians to decide on their own to administer a medication if the decision is in the patient's best interst.

    Correct Answer
    A. Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician. This means that technicians are allowed to give medications to patients, but they must do so under the direct supervision and guidance of a nurse or physician. This ensures that the technician follows proper protocols and procedures in medication administration, and that the patient's safety is maintained. It also highlights the importance of collaboration and teamwork between technicians and healthcare professionals in providing safe and effective medication administration.

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  • 42. 

    How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?

    • One 

    • Two

    • Four

    • Five

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    There are two ways in which a provider can initiate a drug order.

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  • 43. 

    What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?

    • Drug Regulatory Act

    • Drug Control Regulation

    • Controlled Substance Act

    • Attorney General Mandate of 1974

    Correct Answer
    A. Controlled Substance Act
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Controlled Substance Act. This law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances. It was enacted to regulate the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse and addiction. The Controlled Substance Act helps to ensure that controlled substances are properly accounted for and not being misused or diverted.

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  • 44. 

    Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?

    • Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action

    • Warmer temperatures decrease circulation and cause slow drug action

    • Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to dilate cause slow drug action

    • Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to constrict cause rapid drug action

    Correct Answer
    A. Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action
    Explanation
    Warmer temperatures increase circulation in the body, leading to an increase in blood flow. This increased blood flow helps drugs to be delivered more quickly to their target sites, resulting in a rapid drug action.

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  • 45. 

    Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?

    • Internet search

    • Physician Desk Reference

    • Nurse's Pharmacy Handbook

    • Technicians Pharmacy Handbook

    Correct Answer
    A. Physician Desk Reference
    Explanation
    The Physician Desk Reference is a commonly used reference source for drugs. It provides comprehensive information about prescription drugs, including their uses, dosages, side effects, and interactions. Medical professionals often rely on the Physician Desk Reference to make informed decisions about prescribing medications to patients. It is a trusted resource that helps ensure the safe and effective use of drugs in healthcare settings.

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  • 46. 

    How many pounds are equal to 65 kg?

    • 130

    • 143

    • 152

    • 170

    Correct Answer
    A. 143
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 143. To convert kilograms to pounds, you multiply the number of kilograms by 2.20462. In this case, 65 kg multiplied by 2.20462 equals 143 pounds.

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  • 47. 

    To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?

    • In the pharmacy

    • At a work station

    • At the nurses' station

    • At the patient's bedside

    Correct Answer
    A. At the patient's bedside
    Explanation
    Liquid medications are typically poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This practice ensures that the medication is administered directly to the patient without any risk of contamination during transportation. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for accurate dosing and immediate administration, minimizing the risk of errors or delays. Additionally, pouring the medication at the patient's bedside allows the healthcare provider to observe the patient's condition and response to the medication, ensuring proper care and monitoring.

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  • 48. 

    Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?

    • Unconscious patients cannot be treated

    • Positive-pressure devices are sometimes used

    • Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult

    • Respiratory distress is no relieved through the use of an inhalation

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult
    Explanation
    Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult when using inhalation medication. This is a disadvantage because it can lead to underdosing or overdosing of the medication, which may result in ineffective treatment or potential harm to the patient. It is important to have accurate dosing in order to achieve the desired therapeutic effect and minimize any adverse effects.

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  • 49. 

    Which medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest?

    • Tetracyclines.

    • Theophyline.

    • Gentamycin.

    • Procardia.

    Correct Answer
    A. Theophyline.
    Explanation
    Theophylline is known to interact with quinolones and can potentiate cardiac arrest. Quinolones are a class of antibiotics that can cause QT interval prolongation, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Theophylline is a medication used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions, and it can also cause QT interval prolongation. When taken together, theophylline and quinolones can have a synergistic effect on QT interval prolongation, increasing the risk of cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is important to be cautious when prescribing both medications to a patient and closely monitor their cardiac function.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Nov 29, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 29, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 03, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Steve
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