1s051 Vol 2 CDC
- 1.
Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) inspections are conducted on behalf of whom?
- A.
Secretary of Defense, Chief of Staff of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels
- B.
Secretary of Defense, Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels
- C.
Secretary of the Air Force, Chief of Staff of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels
- D.
Secretary of the Air Force, Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels
Correct Answer
C. Secretary of the Air Force, Chief of Staff of the Air Force, and commanders at all levelsExplanation
AFIS inspections are conducted on behalf of the Secretary of the Air Force, Chief of Staff of the Air Force, and commanders at all levels. This means that these inspections are carried out to ensure accountability, readiness, and compliance with regulations within the Air Force. The Secretary of the Air Force and Chief of Staff of the Air Force are responsible for overseeing the overall operations and effectiveness of the Air Force, while commanders at all levels are responsible for the specific units and personnel under their command. Conducting AFIS inspections helps to maintain high standards and ensure the Air Force's mission readiness.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which is not an Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) inspection?
- A.
Management
- B.
Compliance unit
- C.
Unit effectiveness
- D.
Commmander's inspection program
Correct Answer
B. Compliance unitExplanation
The correct answer is "Compliance unit" because it is not a part of the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) inspection. AFIS inspections typically include management, unit effectiveness, and the commander's inspection program. Compliance unit, however, is not a specific inspection category within AFIS.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The four major graded areas (MGA) assessed by the Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) include all except
- A.
Leading people
- B.
Improving the unit
- C.
Managing resources
- D.
Executing the vision
Correct Answer
D. Executing the visionExplanation
The Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) assesses the four major graded areas (MGA), which are leading people, improving the unit, managing resources, and executing the vision. The correct answer is executing the vision because it is not one of the MGAs assessed by AFIS.Rate this question:
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- 4.
A safety evaluation is completed in conjunction with
- A.
A unit effectiveness inspection (UEI)
- B.
An annual inspection
- C.
A facility inspection
- D.
An assessment
Correct Answer
A. A unit effectiveness inspection (UEI)Explanation
A safety evaluation is completed in conjunction with a unit effectiveness inspection (UEI) because both assessments are important for ensuring the overall effectiveness and safety of a unit or organization. While a UEI focuses on evaluating the unit's operational readiness and effectiveness in meeting its mission objectives, a safety evaluation specifically assesses the unit's safety protocols, practices, and compliance with safety regulations. By conducting these evaluations together, any safety deficiencies or risks can be identified and addressed alongside the unit's overall effectiveness, ensuring that safety is an integral part of the unit's operations.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The Headquarters Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC) will conduct safety evaluations of major command (MAJCOM) Headquarters staffs at intervals not exceed to how months?
- A.
12
- B.
24
- C.
36
- D.
48
Correct Answer
C. 36Explanation
The correct answer is 36. The Headquarters Air Force Safety Center (AFSEC) conducts safety evaluations of major command (MAJCOM) Headquarters staffs at intervals not exceeding 36 months. This means that AFSEC will review the safety practices and procedures of MAJCOM Headquarters every 3 years to ensure compliance and identify any potential safety risks or hazards. Regular safety evaluations help to maintain a safe working environment and prevent accidents or incidents within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 6.
At a minimum, program assessments at wing level and below are conducted every how many months?
- A.
12
- B.
24
- C.
36
- D.
48
Correct Answer
B. 24Explanation
Program assessments at wing level and below are conducted every 24 months. This means that a comprehensive evaluation of the program's performance, effectiveness, and compliance is conducted at least once every two years. This allows for regular monitoring and improvement of the program's implementation and ensures that any issues or areas for improvement are identified and addressed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The safety assessment for geographically separated units (GSU) is conducted at intervals not to exceed
- A.
1 year
- B.
2 years
- C.
3 years
- D.
4 years
Correct Answer
C. 3 yearsExplanation
The safety assessment for geographically separated units (GSU) is conducted at intervals not to exceed 3 years. This means that the assessment should be done every 3 years or less frequently. Conducting safety assessments at regular intervals ensures that the GSU is regularly evaluated for any potential safety risks or hazards. This helps to maintain a safe environment for the people working in or around the GSU and ensures that any necessary safety measures are implemented in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which is not an assessment rating used under the Air Force Safety Management System (AFSMS)?
- A.
Was not effective.
- B.
Met but needs minor improvement(s).
- C.
Was either met and somewhat effective.
- D.
Met but needs significant improvements(s).
Correct Answer
C. Was either met and somewhat effective.Explanation
The answer "Was either met and somewhat effective" is not an assessment rating used under the Air Force Safety Management System (AFSMS). The other options listed are all possible assessment ratings used in the system.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The purpose of outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss
- A.
Potential write ups.
- B.
All superior performers.
- C.
Your findings and recommendations.
- D.
The commander’s utilization of assigned manpower.
Correct Answer
C. Your findings and recommendations.Explanation
The purpose of outbriefing after an inspection is to discuss your findings and recommendations. This is done to provide a summary of the inspection results and present any identified issues or areas for improvement. Outbriefing allows for a comprehensive discussion of the inspection findings and provides an opportunity to suggest recommendations for addressing any identified shortcomings or implementing improvements. It serves as a platform for sharing important information and ensuring that the necessary steps are taken to address the findings and make necessary changes.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The formal written inspection report must be sent to the squadron or unit commander within how many days after the inspection is complete?
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
30
- D.
45
Correct Answer
B. 15Explanation
The formal written inspection report must be sent to the squadron or unit commander within 15 days after the inspection is complete. This allows for a reasonable amount of time to compile and review the report before submitting it to the commander. It also ensures that any necessary actions or improvements identified during the inspection can be addressed in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 11.
In addition to the unit commander, send a copy of a tenant unit’s annual inspection report to the
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM) Safety office.
- B.
Unit Safety representative.
- C.
Unit’s parent Safety office.
- D.
Air Force Safety Center.
Correct Answer
C. Unit’s parent Safety office.Explanation
The correct answer is to send a copy of a tenant unit's annual inspection report to the unit's parent Safety office. This is because the parent Safety office is responsible for overseeing the safety of all units under its command, including tenant units. By providing the annual inspection report to the parent Safety office, they can assess the safety performance of the tenant unit and take any necessary actions to address any deficiencies or concerns.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Action taken to make certain that reported discrepancies have been or are being corrected is called
- A.
Priority action.
- B.
An inspection survey.
- C.
Follow-up action.
- D.
An inspection analysis.
Correct Answer
C. Follow-up action.Explanation
Follow-up action refers to the steps taken to ensure that reported discrepancies or issues are being addressed and corrected. It involves monitoring and verifying that the necessary actions are being taken to resolve the problem. This can include conducting further investigations, implementing corrective measures, and ensuring that the issue is resolved satisfactorily. It is an essential part of quality control and helps to ensure that problems are effectively addressed and prevented from recurring.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What two activities help ensure that the hazards are mitigated for all findings identified during the annual inspection?
- A.
Spot and the customer survey.
- B.
Spot inspections and unit follow-up reporting.
- C.
Mishap notifications and customer survey.
- D.
Mishap notifications and unit follow-up reporting.
Correct Answer
B. Spot inspections and unit follow-up reporting.Explanation
Spot inspections and unit follow-up reporting are two activities that help ensure that the hazards are mitigated for all findings identified during the annual inspection. Spot inspections involve conducting random checks to identify any potential hazards or non-compliance issues. Unit follow-up reporting entails documenting and addressing the findings from the inspection, ensuring that corrective actions are taken to mitigate the identified hazards. These activities work together to ensure that all hazards are identified, reported, and addressed in a timely manner, promoting a safe and compliant environment.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What must Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) representatives present before conducting an inspection of a workplace on an Air Force installation?
- A.
Official credentials.
- B.
Military identification.
- C.
Personal identification.
- D.
Identifying credentials.
Correct Answer
D. Identifying credentials.Explanation
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) representatives must present identifying credentials before conducting an inspection of a workplace on an Air Force installation. This is important to establish their authority and legitimacy as OSHA representatives. By presenting their identifying credentials, they can verify their identity and ensure that they are authorized to perform the inspection. This helps to maintain the security and integrity of the workplace inspection process.Rate this question:
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- 15.
If required, provide photographic or video support; however, videos or photographs taken on installations fall under the exclusive control of the
- A.
Chief of safety.
- B.
Unit commander.
- C.
Installation commander.
- D.
Occupational safety manager.
Correct Answer
C. Installation commander.Explanation
The installation commander is the correct answer because they have the ultimate authority and responsibility for the safety and security of the installation. They are in charge of making decisions and implementing policies to ensure the safety of personnel and the proper functioning of the installation. This includes overseeing the occupational safety manager and other safety personnel, as well as having control over any videos or photographs taken on the installation. The unit commander may have some authority within their specific unit, but the installation commander has overall control and authority.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Although units are cited individually, Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) may classify a similar finding at another installation as a
- A.
Finding.
- B.
Citation.
- C.
Repeat finding.
- D.
Repeat citation.
Correct Answer
D. Repeat citation.Explanation
The correct answer is "repeat citation" because the question states that although units are cited individually, OSHA may classify a similar finding at another installation as a "repeat citation." This means that if OSHA finds the same violation at another installation, it will be considered a repeat citation, indicating that the violation has occurred before and the establishment has not taken appropriate actions to address it.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Who has the primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards that place workers at risk?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Individual.
- C.
Commander.
- D.
Functional manager.
Correct Answer
B. Individual.Explanation
The individual has the primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards that place workers at risk. This means that each employee is responsible for being aware of potential hazards in their work environment and taking necessary precautions to ensure their own safety and the safety of others. Supervisors, commanders, and functional managers may also have a role in identifying hazards, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the individual worker.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Who evaluates a hazard report to determine if it is a valid hazard?
- A.
Chief of Safety.
- B.
Legal office staff.
- C.
Functional manager.
- D.
Supervisor where the hazard exists.
Correct Answer
A. Chief of Safety.Explanation
The Chief of Safety is responsible for evaluating hazard reports to determine their validity. As the highest-ranking safety officer in an organization, they have the expertise and authority to assess the potential risks and hazards mentioned in the report. The Chief of Safety's evaluation ensures that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate the identified hazards and maintain a safe working environment.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The office of primary responsibility (OPR) for a hazard report must return the report to the Safety office with action annotated within how many workdays?
- A.
5.
- B.
10.
- C.
20.
- D.
30.
Correct Answer
B. 10.Explanation
The OPR for a hazard report is responsible for reviewing and addressing the reported hazard. They must return the report to the Safety office within 10 workdays with their actions annotated. This ensures that the hazard is promptly addressed and appropriate measures are taken to mitigate any potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Who monitors the hazard report until the hazard is eliminated?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Commander.
- C.
Functional manager.
- D.
Safety professionals.
Correct Answer
D. Safety professionals.Explanation
Safety professionals are responsible for monitoring the hazard report until the hazard is eliminated. They have the expertise and knowledge to assess and analyze the hazards, identify appropriate control measures, and ensure that these measures are implemented effectively. Safety professionals play a crucial role in maintaining a safe working environment by continuously monitoring hazards and taking necessary actions to eliminate them. They collaborate with other stakeholders such as supervisors, commanders, and functional managers, but the ultimate responsibility of monitoring the hazard report lies with the safety professionals.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the highest review level in the appeal process for hazard reports that originate from installations in foreign countries?
- A.
Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Environmental Security.
- B.
Major command commander.
- C.
Department of Labor.
- D.
Department of State.
Correct Answer
A. Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Environmental Security.Explanation
The highest review level in the appeal process for hazard reports that originate from installations in foreign countries is the Deputy Under Secretary of Defense for Environmental Security. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the Department of Defense and is responsible for overseeing environmental security matters. They have the authority to review and make decisions on appeals related to hazard reports, ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to address any identified hazards and protect the environment.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A procedure used by supervisors and employees to assess the hazards associated with a work procedure and determine the safest and most efficient means of doing a given task best defines
- A.
Change analysis.
- B.
Job safety analysis.
- C.
Operational hazard analysis.
- D.
Preliminary hazard analysis.
Correct Answer
B. Job safety analysis.Explanation
Job safety analysis is a procedure used by supervisors and employees to assess the hazards associated with a work procedure and determine the safest and most efficient means of doing a given task. It involves breaking down the job into specific steps, identifying potential hazards, and implementing controls to minimize or eliminate those hazards. This analysis helps to ensure that workers are aware of the risks involved in their tasks and are equipped with the necessary precautions to perform their job safely.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which hazard abatement measure recommends using protective equipment as a last resort?
- A.
Personnel actions.
- B.
Procedural actions.
- C.
Planning and engineering.
- D.
Operation hazard analysis.
Correct Answer
B. Procedural actions.Explanation
Procedural actions are a hazard abatement measure that recommends using protective equipment as a last resort. This means that instead of relying solely on personal protective equipment (PPE), procedural actions focus on implementing measures such as training, standard operating procedures, and administrative controls to eliminate or reduce hazards. By prioritizing procedural actions, organizations aim to address hazards at their source and minimize the reliance on PPE, which should only be used when other control measures are not feasible or effective.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Who determines hazard abatement control measures?
- A.
Supervisor with technical assistance from Civil Engineering.
- B.
Safety staff with technical assistance from Civil Engineering.
- C.
Functional manager with technical assistance from Civil Engineering.
- D.
Functional manager or supervisor with technical assistance from safety, fire, and health officials.
Correct Answer
D. Functional manager or supervisor with technical assistance from safety, fire, and health officials.Explanation
The correct answer is functional manager or supervisor with technical assistance from safety, fire, and health officials. This means that the responsibility for determining hazard abatement control measures lies with the functional manager or supervisor. They are supported by safety, fire, and health officials who provide technical assistance in identifying and implementing the necessary measures. This ensures that the control measures are effective and comply with safety regulations and guidelines.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Temporary measures taken to reduce the degree of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency pending completion of an abatement program are called
- A.
Abatement priority measures.
- B.
Imminent danger controls.
- C.
Interim control measures.
- D.
Risk assessment.
Correct Answer
C. Interim control measures.Explanation
Interim control measures refer to temporary actions implemented to reduce the level of risk associated with an occupational hazard or deficiency until a permanent solution is implemented through an abatement program. These measures are put in place to mitigate immediate dangers and provide a safer working environment while the comprehensive abatement program is being completed.Rate this question:
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- 26.
If you encounter an imminent danger situation, you should immediately notify
- A.
A responsible supervisor.
- B.
The chief of Safety.
- C.
The functional manager.
- D.
An occupational safety manager.
Correct Answer
A. A responsible supervisor.Explanation
In an imminent danger situation, it is important to immediately notify a responsible supervisor. This is because a supervisor is typically in a position of authority and can take appropriate action to address the danger. They have the authority to implement safety protocols, evacuate the area if necessary, and communicate with other relevant parties such as the chief of Safety or the occupational safety manager. The responsible supervisor is the first point of contact to ensure that the situation is promptly addressed and necessary measures are taken to ensure the safety of everyone involved.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Your hazard abatement recommendations should be
- A.
Subjective and suitable.
- B.
Realistic and subjective.
- C.
Appropriate and feasible.
- D.
Objective and unquestionable.
Correct Answer
C. Appropriate and feasible.Explanation
The hazard abatement recommendations should be appropriate and feasible because it is important to suggest actions that are suitable for the specific hazard and can actually be implemented. The recommendations should take into consideration the nature of the hazard and its potential impact, as well as the resources and capabilities available for implementation. It is crucial to ensure that the recommendations are not only suitable for addressing the hazard but also realistic and achievable within the given constraints.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which forms may be used to post notices of hazards in a workplace?
- A.
AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard, and 457 USAF Hazard Report.
- B.
AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard.
- C.
AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 457 USAF Hazard Report.
- D.
AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard and AF Form 978, Supervisor Mishap Report.
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 979, Danger Tag, and AF Form 1118, Notice of Hazard. -
- 29.
Which risk assessment codes (RAC) are required to be included on the Air Force Form 3, Hazard Abatement Plan?
- A.
Only RAC 1 and 2.
- B.
Only RAC 1, 2 and 3.
- C.
Only RAC 4 and 5.
- D.
All RAC codes.
Correct Answer
B. Only RAC 1, 2 and 3.Explanation
The Air Force Form 3, Hazard Abatement Plan, requires the inclusion of RAC 1, 2, and 3. This means that the risk assessment codes 1, 2, and 3 are necessary to be included in the plan. Other risk assessment codes, such as RAC 4 and 5, are not required for this specific form.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What are the two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard?
- A.
Severity and probability.
- B.
Severity and cost-effectiveness.
- C.
Probability and mission requirements.
- D.
Mission requirements and cost-effectiveness.
Correct Answer
A. Severity and probability.Explanation
The two criteria used in determining the priority for abating a hazard are severity and probability. Severity refers to the potential impact or harm that could result from the hazard, while probability refers to the likelihood or chance of the hazard occurring. By considering both severity and probability, decision-makers can prioritize their efforts and resources towards addressing hazards that pose the highest potential risk.Rate this question:
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- 31.
An assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap is called
- A.
Hazard abatement.
- B.
End analysis.
- C.
Probability.
- D.
Severity.
Correct Answer
C. Probability.Explanation
Probability refers to the assessment of the likelihood that a hazard or deficiency will result in a mishap. It involves evaluating the chances of an event or incident occurring based on various factors such as past occurrences, statistical data, and expert judgment. By considering the probability of a hazard or deficiency leading to a mishap, individuals and organizations can make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to mitigate risks and prevent accidents.Rate this question:
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- 32.
How many risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions are used in the RAC matrix process?
- A.
2.
- B.
3.
- C.
4.
- D.
5.
Correct Answer
D. 5.Explanation
The RAC matrix process uses a total of 5 risk assessment code (RAC) descriptions.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The abatement priority number (APN) is a code consisting of the risk assessment code (RAC) and the
- A.
Probability.
- B.
Personnel exposure.
- C.
Cost effectiveness index.
- D.
Severity and probability multiplier.
Correct Answer
C. Cost effectiveness index.Explanation
The abatement priority number (APN) is a code that helps prioritize the order in which abatement actions should be taken. It consists of the risk assessment code (RAC) and the cost effectiveness index. The cost effectiveness index takes into consideration the cost of implementing the abatement action and the effectiveness of that action in reducing the risk. Therefore, the APN with a higher cost effectiveness index would indicate that the abatement action is more cost-effective in reducing the risk compared to other actions with lower cost effectiveness indexes.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Who has authority over a contract?
- A.
Contractor.
- B.
Stakeholder.
- C.
Civil Engineer.
- D.
Contracting officer.
Correct Answer
D. Contracting officer.Explanation
The contracting officer has authority over a contract. They are responsible for the administration and management of the contract, including ensuring that all parties involved fulfill their obligations and that the contract is executed according to the agreed terms and conditions. The contracting officer has the power to make decisions, resolve disputes, and take necessary actions to enforce the contract. They play a crucial role in overseeing the contract's execution and ensuring its successful completion.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which agency or office performs the pre-award survey?
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM) Contracting office.
- B.
Air Force Contract Management Agency.
- C.
Defense Contract Management Agency.
- D.
Base Contracting office.
Correct Answer
C. Defense Contract Management Agency.Explanation
The Defense Contract Management Agency performs the pre-award survey.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Who is responsible for reminding the contractor of the contractual obligation to comply with all pertinent regulations?
- A.
Civil engineer.
- B.
Safety personnel.
- C.
Corp of engineers.
- D.
Contracting officer.
Correct Answer
D. Contracting officer.Explanation
The contracting officer is responsible for reminding the contractor of the contractual obligation to comply with all pertinent regulations. They are the individual who oversees the contract and ensures that all parties involved are fulfilling their obligations. This includes reminding the contractor of their responsibilities, such as complying with regulations, to ensure that the contract is being executed properly.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Mishaps are investigated to
- A.
Pin down legal liability.
- B.
Prevent future mishaps.
- C.
Determine the true cost of the mishap.
- D.
Determine the true severity of injuries or damage.
Correct Answer
B. Prevent future mishaps.Explanation
Mishaps are investigated in order to prevent future mishaps. By analyzing the causes and circumstances of a mishap, measures can be taken to identify and rectify any issues or weaknesses in processes, systems, or human behavior that contributed to the mishap. This helps in implementing preventive measures and improving safety protocols to minimize the likelihood of similar incidents occurring in the future.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Safety investigations and legal investigations are conducted separately to
- A.
Protect the legal information in the report.
- B.
Protect privileged safety information in the report.
- C.
Prevent the safety information from getting in the wrong hands.
- D.
Prevent the reports from being for anything other than mishap prevention.
Correct Answer
B. Protect privileged safety information in the report.Explanation
Safety investigations and legal investigations are conducted separately in order to protect privileged safety information in the report. Privileged safety information refers to sensitive data that may be subject to legal protection, such as confidential communication between safety experts or information that could potentially harm the reputation of individuals or organizations involved. By conducting separate investigations, the privileged safety information can be safeguarded and kept confidential, ensuring that it does not fall into the wrong hands or compromise the integrity of the investigation process.Rate this question:
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- 39.
A single investigation officer (SIO) normally investigates what types of mishaps?
- A.
Class A, B, and C.
- B.
Class B, C, and D.
- C.
Class C, D, and E.
- D.
Class D, E, and HAPs.
Correct Answer
C. Class C, D, and E.Explanation
A single investigation officer (SIO) normally investigates mishaps classified as Class C, D, and E.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When a board is appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap, the president must be at least a
- A.
Colonel or GS–13.
- B.
Colonel or GS–15.
- C.
Lieutenant colonel or GS–13.
- D.
Lieutenant colonel or GM–15.
Correct Answer
B. Colonel or GS–15.Explanation
When a board is appointed to investigate a Class A on-duty mishap, the president must be at least a colonel or GS–15. This means that the person leading the investigation must have a rank of colonel or a General Schedule (GS) level of 15. This requirement ensures that the person in charge has the necessary experience, authority, and expertise to effectively investigate and handle the serious nature of a Class A mishap.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When a mishap occurs involving an individual in permanent change of station status, the mishap is accountable to the
- A.
Gaining command.
- B.
Air Force at large.
- C.
Base closest to the mishap site.
- D.
Losing command until the individual signs in at the next duty station.
Correct Answer
D. Losing command until the individual signs in at the next duty station.Explanation
When an individual is in permanent change of station status and a mishap occurs, the losing command is responsible and accountable for the mishap until the individual signs in at the next duty station. This means that the losing command must handle any investigations, reports, or actions related to the mishap until the individual arrives at their new duty station. Once the individual signs in at the next duty station, the responsibility for the mishap transfers to the gaining command.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Information exempt from release outside the Air Force community by statute or case law is known as
- A.
Secret.
- B.
Top secret.
- C.
Privileged.
- D.
Confidential.
Correct Answer
C. Privileged. -
- 43.
When mishap reports are no longer needed, dispose of them in accordance with (IAW) Air Force
- A.
Instructions.
- B.
Policy directives.
- C.
Records and Distribution Schedule.
- D.
Occupational Safety and Health Standards.
Correct Answer
C. Records and Distribution Schedule.Explanation
The correct answer is "Records and Distribution Schedule." When mishap reports are no longer needed, they should be disposed of in accordance with the Records and Distribution Schedule. This schedule provides guidelines and instructions for the management and disposal of records within the Air Force. It ensures that records are properly maintained and disposed of in a systematic and organized manner, in compliance with Air Force policies and regulations.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which agency can approve the release of privileged information outside the Air Force?
- A.
Department of Defense (DOD).
- B.
Headquarters (HQ) United States Air Force/Safety (USAF/SE).
- C.
HQ Air Force Safety Center/Safety (SEC)/SE).
- D.
HQ AFSEC/Judge Advocate (JA).
Correct Answer
B. Headquarters (HQ) United States Air Force/Safety (USAF/SE). -
- 45.
Hiding the relationship between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations is called
- A.
Washing the report.
- B.
Sanitizing the report.
- C.
Scrubbing the report.
- D.
Disassociating the report.
Correct Answer
B. Sanitizing the report.Explanation
Sanitizing the report refers to the act of hiding or removing any information that reveals the connection between the identity of a mishap and the findings, causes, and recommendations mentioned in the report. This ensures that the report does not disclose any sensitive or confidential information that could potentially harm individuals or organizations involved in the mishap.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A promise of confidentiality is authorized for which mishap?
- A.
Spaces.
- B.
Explosives.
- C.
Chemical agents.
- D.
Off-duty military.
Correct Answer
A. Spaces.Explanation
A promise of confidentiality is authorized for mishaps that occur in spaces. This means that if an accident or incident happens in a confined area such as a room, building, or any enclosed space, confidentiality can be promised to those involved. This is done to encourage individuals to report the mishap without fear of retaliation or negative consequences. By maintaining confidentiality, it allows for a more open and honest reporting process, which can ultimately lead to better understanding and prevention of future mishaps.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Promises of confidentiality are not allowed for which mishaps?
- A.
Nuclear, aviation, and space.
- B.
Chemical agents, afloat, and aviation.
- C.
Afloat, motor vehicle, and ground and industrial.
- D.
Aviation, ground and industrial, and directed energy.
Correct Answer
C. Afloat, motor vehicle, and ground and industrial. -
- 48.
Which system is used to transmit the majority of mishap reports?
- A.
Intrabase System.
- B.
Electronic Mail System.
- C.
Defense Message System.
- D.
Air Force Safety Automated System.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Safety Automated System.Explanation
The Air Force Safety Automated System is used to transmit the majority of mishap reports. This system is specifically designed to collect, analyze, and disseminate safety-related information within the Air Force. It provides a centralized platform for reporting and tracking mishap data, allowing for efficient communication and analysis of safety incidents. The other options, such as the Intrabase System, Electronic Mail System, and Defense Message System, may have their own purposes but are not specifically designed for transmitting mishap reports.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The Air Force classifies mishaps by the
- A.
Direct total dollar cost and degree of property damage.
- B.
Degree of injury/illness and replacement cost of equipment.
- C.
Direct total dollar cost of damage and degree of injury/illness.
- D.
Degree of injury/illness, and replacement cost of equipment.
Correct Answer
C. Direct total dollar cost of damage and degree of injury/illness.Explanation
The Air Force classifies mishaps based on two factors: the direct total dollar cost of damage and the degree of injury/illness. This means that they consider both the financial impact of the damage caused and the severity of any injuries or illnesses resulting from the mishap. By evaluating these two factors, the Air Force can assess the overall impact and consequences of the mishap accurately.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A mishap that involves intent for flight and no reportable damage to the Department of Defense (DOD) aircraft, but involves a fatality, reportable injury, or reportable property damage is categorized as which aviation mishap?
- A.
Aircraft Flight.
- B.
Aircraft Flight-Related.
- C.
Unmanned Aerial Vehicle.
- D.
Aircraft Ground Operations.
Correct Answer
B. Aircraft Flight-Related.Explanation
A mishap that involves intent for flight and no reportable damage to the Department of Defense (DOD) aircraft, but involves a fatality, reportable injury, or reportable property damage is categorized as Aircraft Flight-Related. This category includes mishaps that occur during the flight or intended flight of an aircraft, even if there is no damage to the aircraft itself. It covers incidents where there is a loss of life, injury, or property damage, indicating that the mishap is directly related to the aircraft's flight activities.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 01, 2018Quiz Created by
Mike_the_LDO