Nsg Pharm Practice Test #1
- 1.
Discharge teaching for a client receiving a beta-agonist bronchodilator should emphasize reporting which side effect?
- A.
Hypoglycemia
- B.
Nonproductive cough
- C.
Tachycardia
- D.
Sedation
Correct Answer
C. TachycardiaExplanation
Discharge teaching for a client receiving a beta-agonist bronchodilator should emphasize reporting tachycardia as a side effect. Beta-agonist bronchodilators can stimulate the beta receptors in the heart, leading to an increased heart rate or tachycardia. This side effect should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider as it may indicate a need for a change in medication or dosage adjustment. Hypoglycemia, nonproductive cough, and sedation are not commonly associated with beta-agonist bronchodilators and would not be the priority side effect to report.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A client with a history of asthma is short of breath and says, I feel like i'm having an asthmatic attack." What is the nurse's best action?
- A.
Call a code
- B.
Ask the client to describe the symptoms.
- C.
Administer a beta2 adrenic agonist.
- D.
Administer a long-acting glucocorticoid.
Correct Answer
C. Administer a beta2 adrenic agonist.Explanation
The client's statement, "I feel like I'm having an asthmatic attack," indicates that they are experiencing symptoms of an asthma attack. The nurse's best action would be to administer a beta2 adrenic agonist, as these medications are commonly used to relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing in individuals with asthma. This medication works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, opening them up and allowing for easier breathing.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A client demonstrates understanding of flunisolide (AeroBid) by saying that he will do what?
- A.
Take two puffs to treat an acute asthma attack.
- B.
Rinse his mouth with water after each use.
- C.
Immediately stop taking his oral prednisone when he starts using AeroBid.
- D.
Not use his albuterol inhaler while he is taking AeroBid
Correct Answer
B. Rinse his mouth with water after each use.Explanation
Flunisolide is a steroid. One of the big nursing considerations for any steroid is that steroids can cause for the occurence of oral fungus. It is important to have your pt rinse their mouth out after each use.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The nurse is caring for a young child who has been prescribed an inhaler for control of her asthma. The child is having difficulty using the inhaler. What is the nurses best action?
- A.
Tell the parent to hold the inhaler for the child.
- B.
Ask the health care provider to switch to an oral medication.
- C.
Tell the parent that young children should not use inhalers.
- D.
Teach the child to use a spacer.
Correct Answer
D. Teach the child to use a spacer.Explanation
Teaching the child to use a spacer is the best action for the nurse to take. Using a spacer can help improve the delivery of medication from the inhaler, especially for young children who may have difficulty coordinating their breathing and pressing the inhaler at the same time. A spacer also reduces the risk of side effects such as thrush or hoarseness, which can occur when the medication is directly inhaled. By teaching the child to use a spacer, the nurse is promoting effective and safe medication administration for the child's asthma control.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The healthcare provider orders ipratropium bromide (Atrovent), albuterol (Proventil), and beclomethasone (Vanceril) inhalers for a client. What is the nurses best action?
- A.
Question the order; three inhalers should not be given at one time.
- B.
Administer the albuterol first, wait five minutes and administer ipratropium bromide, followed by beclomethasone several minutes later.
- C.
Administer each inhaler at thirty minute intervals.
- D.
Administer beclomethasone first, wait two minutes, and administer ipratropium bromide, followed by the albuterol several minutes later.
Correct Answer
B. Administer the albuterol first, wait five minutes and administer ipratropium bromide, followed by beclomethasone several minutes later.Explanation
The nurse's best action is to administer the albuterol inhaler first, wait five minutes, and then administer the ipratropium bromide inhaler. This is followed by administering the beclomethasone inhaler several minutes later. This sequence is appropriate because albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that provides immediate relief of bronchospasm. Ipratropium bromide is a long-acting bronchodilator that takes longer to take effect but provides sustained bronchodilation. Beclomethasone is a corticosteroid inhaler that reduces inflammation and should be administered last to prevent it from interfering with the bronchodilation effects of the other medications.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which instruction will the nurse include when teaching a client about the proper use of metered-dose inhalers?
- A.
"After you inhale the medication once, repeat until you obtain relief."
- B.
"Make sure that you puff out air repeatedly after you inhale the medication."
- C.
"Hold your breath for 10 seconds if you can after you inhale the medication."
- D.
"Hold the inhaler in your mouth, take a deep breath, and then compress the inhaler."
Correct Answer
C. "Hold your breath for 10 seconds if you can after you inhale the medication."Explanation
The correct answer is "Hold your breath for 10 seconds if you can after you inhale the medication." This instruction is important because it allows the medication to reach deep into the lungs and be absorbed effectively. Holding the breath for 10 seconds helps to ensure that the medication has enough time to be fully distributed in the airways before exhaling. This increases the effectiveness of the medication and improves its therapeutic effects.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What is the most important thing to teach the client with a history of diabetes and asthma who has started on albuterol PRN?
- A.
Take tylenol for headaches when taking albuterol.
- B.
Monitor for orthostatic hypotension every 2 hours when taking albuterol.
- C.
Monitor blood glucose levels every 4 hours when taking albuterol.
- D.
An antianxiety agent may be prescribed to help with nervousness.
Correct Answer
C. Monitor blood glucose levels every 4 hours when taking albuterol.Explanation
Monitoring blood glucose levels every 4 hours when taking albuterol is the most important thing to teach the client with a history of diabetes and asthma. Albuterol is a medication used to treat asthma, but it can also increase blood glucose levels in individuals with diabetes. Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels helps to ensure that any changes can be detected and appropriate actions can be taken, such as adjusting diabetes medications or insulin doses. This is crucial in managing both conditions effectively and preventing complications.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A client with COPD has an acute bronchospasam. The nurse knows that which is the best medication for this emergency situation?
- A.
Zafirlukast (Accolate)
- B.
Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
- C.
Dexamethasone (Decadron)
- D.
Oxtriphylline-theophyllinate (Choledyl)
Correct Answer
B. EpinepHrine (Adrenalin)Explanation
Epinephrine (Adrenalin) is the best medication for an acute bronchospasm in a client with COPD. Epinephrine is a bronchodilator that works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, allowing for easier breathing. It acts quickly and can provide immediate relief during an emergency situation. Zafirlukast (Accolate) is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for long-term management of asthma, but it is not appropriate for acute bronchospasm. Dexamethasone (Decadron) is a corticosteroid used for reducing inflammation, but it is not the first-line treatment for acute bronchospasm. Oxitriphylline-theophyllinate (Choledyl) is a bronchodilator, but it is not commonly used in acute situations and has a slower onset of action compared to epinephrine.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the role of corticosteroids in the treatment of acute respiratory disorders?
- A.
They decrease inflammation.
- B.
They directly dilate the bronchi.
- C.
They stimulate the immune system.
- D.
They increase gas exchange in the alveoli.
Correct Answer
A. They decrease inflammation.Explanation
Corticosteroids are known for their anti-inflammatory properties. When used in the treatment of acute respiratory disorders, they help to reduce inflammation in the airways, which can alleviate symptoms such as wheezing and shortness of breath. By decreasing inflammation, corticosteroids can also help to improve lung function and overall respiratory health.Rate this question:
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- 10.
After a nebulizer treatment with the beta agonist albuterol, the patient complains of feeling a little "shaky" with slight tremors of the hands. The patients HR is 98 BPM, increased from the pretreatment rate of 88 BPM the nurse knows this reaction is...
- A.
Allergic reaction to the albuterol.
- B.
Expected adverse effect.
- C.
Indication that he has received an overdose of the medication.
- D.
Idiosyncratic creation of the medications.
Correct Answer
B. Expected adverse effect.Explanation
After a nebulizer treatment with the beta agonist albuterol, it is expected for the patient to experience slight tremors of the hands and feel "shaky". This is a known adverse effect of albuterol, which is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions. The increase in heart rate from 88 BPM to 98 BPM is also a common response to albuterol, as it stimulates the beta receptors in the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate. Therefore, the patient's symptoms are consistent with the expected adverse effects of albuterol.Rate this question:
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- 11.
A patient who is taking a xanthine derivative for chronic bronchitis asks the nurse " i miss my morning coffee, I can't wait to go home and have some" what is the nurses best response.
- A.
I know how you feel, i miss my coffee too.
- B.
I can get some coffee for you, ill be right back.
- C.
Its important not to take coffee or other caffeinated products with this medication as it may cause an increased HR as well as other problems.
- D.
You've been on this medication for a few days, i can call your prescriber to ask whether you can have some coffee.
Correct Answer
C. Its important not to take coffee or other caffeinated products with this medication as it may cause an increased HR as well as other problems.Explanation
The nurse's best response is "Its important not to take coffee or other caffeinated products with this medication as it may cause an increased HR as well as other problems." This response provides the patient with important information about the potential risks of combining coffee or other caffeinated products with the medication. It shows that the nurse is knowledgeable about the medication and is looking out for the patient's well-being.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The nurse performs discharge teaching with a client who is prescribed the anticholinergic inhaler ipratropium bromide (Atrovent). Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that teaching has been successful?
- A.
"I will not drink grapefruit juice while taking this drug."
- B.
"I may gain weight as a result of taking this medication."
- C.
"This inhaler is not to be used alone to treat an acute asthma attack."
- D.
"Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of this medication."
Correct Answer
C. "This inhaler is not to be used alone to treat an acute asthma attack."Explanation
The correct answer indicates that the client understands that the anticholinergic inhaler, ipratropium bromide (Atrovent), is not meant to be used as a rescue inhaler for acute asthma attacks. This demonstrates that the client has grasped the teaching and is aware of the appropriate use of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When administering magnesium sulfate the nurse knows to take these assessments into special consideration (select all that apply)
- A.
Temperature
- B.
Respirations
- C.
Urinary Output
- D.
Blood pressure
- E.
Pulse
Correct Answer(s)
B. Respirations
C. Urinary Output
D. Blood pressureExplanation
To avoid magnesium toxicity it is important to make sure the patient is urinating efficiently. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression and hypotension. https://www.nrsng.com/magnesium-sulfate-mgso4-nursing-pharmacology-considerations/Rate this question:
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- 14.
The nurse completes an admission assessment on a patient with asthma. Which information given by patient is most indicative of a need for a change in therapy?
- A.
The patient uses albuterol (Proventil) before any aerobic exercise.
- B.
The patient says that the asthma symptoms are worse every spring.
- C.
The patient's heart rate increases after using the albuterol (Proventil) inhaler.
- D.
The patient's only medications are albuterol (Proventil) and salmeterol (Serevent).
Correct Answer
D. The patient's only medications are albuterol (Proventil) and salmeterol (Serevent).Explanation
Long-acting 2-agonists should be used only in patients who also are using an inhaled corticosteroid for long-term control. Salmeterol should not be used as the first-line therapy for long-term control. Using a bronchodilator before exercise is appropriate. The other information given by the patient requires further assessment by the nurse, but is not unusual for a patient with asthma.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The nurse reviews the medication administration record (MAR) for a patient having an acute asthma attack. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A.
Albuterol (Ventolin) 2.5 mg per nebulizer
- B.
Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 60 mg IV
- C.
Salmeterol (Serevent) 50 mcg per dry-powder inhaler (DPI)
- D.
Triamcinolone (Azmacort) 2 puffs per metered-dose inhaler (MDI)
Correct Answer
A. Albuterol (Ventolin) 2.5 mg per nebulizerExplanation
Albuterol is a rapidly acting bronchodilator and is the first-line medication to reverse airway narrowing in acute asthma attacks. The other medications work more slowly.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A patient is scheduled to take a morning dose of Metformin. The patient is scheduled for surgery tomorrow. Which of the following nursing interventions are correct?
- A.
Administer the medication as ordered.
- B.
Hold the dose and notify the doctor for further orders.
- C.
Administer the medication as ordered but hold the next day's dose.
- D.
Check the patient’s blood glucose prior to administering the medication.
Correct Answer
B. Hold the dose and notify the doctor for further orders.Explanation
Metformin (Glucophage) is held 48 hours prior to surgery (however a doctor's order is needed for this). Therefore, you should hold the dose and call the doctor for further orders.Rate this question:
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- 17.
You administered 5 units of Humalog at 0800. What is the ONSET and DURATION of this medication?
- A.
Onset: 15 minutes, Duration: 3 hours
- B.
Onset: 2 hours, Duration: 16 hours
- C.
Onset: 30 minutes, Duration: 1 hour
- D.
Onset: 2 hours, Duration: 24 hours
Correct Answer
A. Onset: 15 minutes, Duration: 3 hoursExplanation
Humalog is a rapid-acting insulin. It has an onset: 15 minutes and duration: 3 hoursRate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following insulins has no peak but a duration of 24 hours?
- A.
Novolog
- B.
Lantus
- C.
NPH
- D.
Humalin N
Correct Answer
B. LantusExplanation
Lantus is the only option here that is a LONG-ACTING insulin which has NO peak and a 24 hour duration.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?
- A.
NPH
- B.
Humulin R
- C.
Lantus
- D.
Novolog
Correct Answer
B. Humulin RExplanation
Humulin R is a type of insulin that can be administered intravenously. Unlike NPH, Lantus, and Novolog, which are long-acting or rapid-acting insulins, Humulin R is a short-acting insulin that can be given intravenously for immediate effect. Intravenous administration allows for a quicker onset of action and is often used in emergency situations or in hospitals for better glycemic control.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Most common complication insulin therapy:
- A.
Hypotension
- B.
Gallstones
- C.
Lipodystrophies
- D.
Hypoglycemia
- E.
Retinopathy
Correct Answer
D. HypoglycemiaExplanation
Hypoglycemia is the most common complication of insulin therapy. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels, and if too much insulin is administered or if the individual's diet or exercise routine changes, it can lead to low blood sugar levels. Hypoglycemia can cause symptoms such as dizziness, confusion, sweating, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. It is important for individuals on insulin therapy to monitor their blood sugar levels regularly and adjust their insulin dosage accordingly to prevent hypoglycemia.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Effects associated with insulin- induced hypoglycemia: Select all that apply
- A.
Tachycardia
- B.
Palpitations
- C.
Headaches
- D.
Diaphoresis
- E.
Polyuria
- F.
Nausea
Correct Answer(s)
A. Tachycardia
B. Palpitations
D. DiapHoresis
F. NauseaExplanation
Insulin-induced hypoglycemia can cause a variety of effects on the body. Tachycardia refers to an increased heart rate, which can occur as a result of low blood sugar levels. Palpitations are sensations of a racing or irregular heartbeat, which can also be caused by hypoglycemia. Diaphoresis refers to excessive sweating, which is another common symptom of low blood sugar. Nausea can occur as a result of the body's response to hypoglycemia. However, polyuria (excessive urination) and headaches are not typically associated with insulin-induced hypoglycemia.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Effective in the immediate management of the comatose, hypoglycemic patient.
- A.
Have the patient drink orange juice
- B.
Provide IV infusion of 50% glucose solution
- C.
Glucagon injection -- subcutaneous or intramuscular
- D.
Both b & C
Correct Answer
C. Glucagon injection -- subcutaneous or intramuscularExplanation
Glucagon injection is the correct answer because it is an effective treatment for hypoglycemia in comatose patients. Glucagon stimulates the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, raising blood sugar levels. It can be administered either subcutaneously or intramuscularly. Providing glucose solution through IV infusion may also be effective, but it is not the immediate management option for a comatose patient. Having the patient drink orange juice may not be feasible or effective in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Dramatic decrease in systemic availability of a drug following oral administration is most likely due to:
- A.
extreme drug instability at stomach pH
- B.
hepatic "first-pass" effect
- C.
drug metabolized by gut flora
- D.
Tablet does not dissolve
Correct Answer
B. hepatic "first-pass" effectExplanation
much of the drug is inactivated the first time it passes through the liver -- usually occurring before the drug distributes systemically.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Drug delivery method LEAST suitable for long term (days to weeks) slow release.
- A.
Pellet implant under the skin (subcutaneous)
- B.
Time release capsule
- C.
i.m. injection of a drug-oil suspension
- D.
transdermal patch
Correct Answer
B. Time release capsuleExplanation
extended release is common, but not over a days to weeks time frame.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Factor(s) influencing the volume of distribution: (Select all that apply)
- A.
Patient's gender
- B.
Route of administration
- C.
Patient's age
- D.
Patient's disease state
- E.
Patient's body composition
Correct Answer(s)
A. Patient's gender
C. Patient's age
D. Patient's disease state
E. Patient's body compositionExplanation
The volume of distribution is a pharmacokinetic parameter that describes the extent of drug distribution in the body. It is influenced by various factors. The patient's gender can affect the volume of distribution due to differences in body composition and hormonal levels. The patient's age can also impact the volume of distribution as it may affect factors such as body composition and organ function. The patient's disease state can alter the volume of distribution by affecting factors such as protein binding and tissue perfusion. Additionally, the patient's body composition, including factors such as muscle mass and fat content, can influence the volume of distribution.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Factors which may reduce drug bioavailability:
- A.
Exposure to digestive enzymes
- B.
Gastric acid instability
- C.
Absence of intestinal flora (bacteria)
- D.
First pass effect
Correct Answer(s)
A. Exposure to digestive enzymes
B. Gastric acid instability
D. First pass effectExplanation
Exposure to digestive enzymes, gastric acid instability, and the first pass effect can all reduce drug bioavailability. Digestive enzymes can break down the drug before it is absorbed into the bloodstream. Gastric acid instability can affect the drug's stability and make it less available for absorption. The first pass effect refers to the metabolism of the drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation, which can also decrease its bioavailability.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Factor(s) which may change intrinsic drug clearance:
- A.
Dietary considerations
- B.
Smoking
- C.
Age
- D.
B12
- E.
Genetic factors
Correct Answer(s)
A. Dietary considerations
B. Smoking
C. Age
E. Genetic factorsExplanation
Factors such as dietary considerations, smoking, age, and genetic factors can potentially influence the intrinsic drug clearance. Dietary considerations can affect the metabolism and absorption of drugs, while smoking can alter the activity of drug-metabolizing enzymes. Age-related changes in liver and kidney function can impact drug clearance, and genetic factors can lead to variations in drug-metabolizing enzymes and transporters. These factors can individually or collectively modify the intrinsic drug clearance, ultimately affecting the pharmacokinetics and efficacy of drugs.Rate this question:
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- 28.
It is important for the nurse to be aware of the four sequential processes of the pharmacokinetic phase. What are these processes? (In the correct order)
- A.
Absorption, metabolism, distribution, excretion
- B.
Biotransformation, excretion, absorption, metabolism
- C.
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
- D.
Metabolism, distribution, absorption, excretion
Correct Answer
C. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretionExplanation
The correct order of the four sequential processes of the pharmacokinetic phase is absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption refers to the movement of the drug from the site of administration into the bloodstream. Distribution involves the transport of the drug throughout the body to its target site. Metabolism, also known as biotransformation, is the process by which the drug is broken down and transformed into different substances. Excretion is the elimination of the drug and its metabolites from the body, usually through urine or feces.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The nurse notices that one of the client's drugs has a low therapeutic index. What is the most important nursing implication of this?
- A.
A wide margin of safety
- B.
A narrow margin of safety
- C.
Measured 1 hour after administration
- D.
Measured 10 minutes after administration
Correct Answer
B. A narrow margin of safetyExplanation
A low therapeutic index means that there is a small difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose of a drug. This implies that the drug has a narrow margin of safety, meaning that there is a higher risk of adverse effects or toxicity if the drug is not carefully monitored and administered. Therefore, the most important nursing implication of a drug with a low therapeutic index is to closely monitor the client for any signs of adverse effects and to ensure that the drug is administered at the correct dosage and frequency to prevent toxicity.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Nursing responsibilities in the assessment phase of the nursing process include which responsibilities? (Select all that apply.)
- A.
Identify side effects of drugs that are nonspecific
- B.
Check peak and trough levels of drugs
- C.
Advise client to avoid fatty foods prior to ingesting an enteric coated tablet
- D.
Evaluate client's reaction to drug
Correct Answer(s)
A. Identify side effects of drugs that are nonspecific
B. Check peak and trough levels of drugsExplanation
In the assessment phase of the nursing process, nursing responsibilities include identifying side effects of drugs that are nonspecific and checking peak and trough levels of drugs. This is important to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication regimen for the client. By identifying side effects, the nurse can monitor and manage any adverse reactions that may occur. Checking peak and trough levels helps to determine the appropriate dosage and timing of medication administration. Both of these responsibilities contribute to the overall assessment of the client's response to the drug therapy.Rate this question:
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- 31.
During a medication review session, a client comments, "I just do not know why I am taking all of these pills." This comment suggests which nursing diagnosis?
- A.
Risk for injury
- B.
Knowledge deficit
- C.
Risk for aspiration
- D.
Anxiety
Correct Answer
B. Knowledge deficitExplanation
The client's comment suggests a lack of understanding about their medication regimen, indicating a knowledge deficit. This nursing diagnosis would involve assessing the client's knowledge and understanding of their medications, providing education and information to address any gaps in knowledge, and evaluating the client's ability to manage their medications safely and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Native American client is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 2 and is prescribed the antidiabetic drug metformin (Glucophage) 500 mg PO with morning and evening meals. Which statement best indicates to the nurse that the client will adhere to the pharmacotherapy?
- A.
"I will no longer put sugar on my cereal."
- B.
"I will feel better soon if I take this medicine."
- C.
"I need to take the medicine as scheduled to reduce the possibility of damage to my body."
- D.
"I have diabetes because of my ancestry."
Correct Answer
C. "I need to take the medicine as scheduled to reduce the possibility of damage to my body."Explanation
The statement "I need to take the medicine as scheduled to reduce the possibility of damage to my body" best indicates that the client will adhere to the pharmacotherapy because it shows an understanding of the importance of taking the medication as prescribed to manage their diabetes and prevent potential complications. This statement demonstrates the client's commitment to following their treatment plan and taking responsibility for their health.Rate this question:
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- 33.
A child is ordered to receive naloxone (Narcan) IV, STAT. The child's weight is 20 kg, and the recommended child's drug dosage is 0.01 mg/kg. Naloxone is available in 400 mcg/mL solution. The nurse should administer:
Correct Answer
0.5mlExplanation
The recommended child's drug dosage for naloxone is 0.01 mg/kg. Since the child's weight is 20 kg, the total dosage required would be 0.01 mg/kg x 20 kg = 0.2 mg.
The naloxone solution is available in a concentration of 400 mcg/mL. To calculate the volume needed, we can use the formula:
Volume (mL) = Total dosage (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL)
Substituting the values, we get:
Volume (mL) = 0.2 mg / 400 mcg/mL = 0.2 mg / 0.4 mg/mL = 0.5 mL
Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL of naloxone to the child.Rate this question:
- 34.
A pediatric client is ordered to receive 3 mg/kg of a medication. The client weighs 88 pounds. The medication is available in a 15 mg/mL elixir. How much medication should the client receive?
- A.
2 ml
- B.
4 ml
- C.
8 ml
- D.
16 ml
Correct Answer
C. 8 mlExplanation
To determine the amount of medication the client should receive, we need to convert their weight from pounds to kilograms. Since 1 kg is equal to 2.2 pounds, the client's weight in kilograms is 88 pounds divided by 2.2, which is approximately 40 kg. The dosage is 3 mg/kg, so we multiply 3 mg by 40 kg to get 120 mg. The medication is available in a 15 mg/mL elixir, so we divide 120 mg by 15 mg/mL to get 8 mL. Therefore, the client should receive 8 mL of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The nurse understands the differences between drug excretion in children and that in adults. With this knowledge, the nurse makes the which decision in administering medication to children?
- A.
Because most children need a higher dose of medications, the nurse will contact the physician for an increase in the ordered dose.
- B.
Because children excrete drugs rapidly, the nurse will need to assess carefully for therapeutic effects of the medication.
- C.
The most important assessment is to evaluate for drug accumulation, because the excretion of drugs in children is slower.
- D.
The excretion of most drugs is the same in children as in adults, but assessments are important to avoid side effects.
Correct Answer
C. The most important assessment is to evaluate for drug accumulation, because the excretion of drugs in children is slower.Explanation
The correct answer is that the most important assessment is to evaluate for drug accumulation, because the excretion of drugs in children is slower. This means that medications may stay in a child's system for longer periods of time compared to adults. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to carefully monitor for any signs of drug accumulation, which can lead to potential toxicity or adverse effects. This knowledge helps the nurse make informed decisions about administering medications to children.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The nurse reviews the client's list of medications with the client. The nurse knows that the 88-years-old client's slower absorption of oral medications is primarily because of which phenomenon?
- A.
Decreased cardiac output
- B.
Decreased blood flow
- C.
Decreased enzyme function
- D.
Increased pH of gastric secretions
Correct Answer
D. Increased pH of gastric secretionsExplanation
As individuals age, there are several physiological changes that occur in the body, including changes in the gastrointestinal system. One of these changes is an increase in the pH of gastric secretions, which refers to the acidity level of the stomach. This increase in pH can affect the absorption of oral medications in older adults. When the pH of gastric secretions is higher, it can alter the solubility and breakdown of medications, leading to slower absorption. Therefore, the nurse knows that the 88-year-old client's slower absorption of oral medications is primarily due to the increased pH of gastric secretions.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The client is receiving potassium supplements. What is the most important nursing implication when administering this drug?
- A.
It cannot be given as an IV bolus.
- B.
It must be diluted.
- C.
It must be chilled before administration.
- D.
It must be given only at bedtime.
Correct Answer
B. It must be diluted.Explanation
Implication is the key word.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The client gained 10 pounds in 2 days. It is determined that the weight gain is caused by fluid retention. The nurse correctly estimates that the weight gain may be equivalent to how many liters of fluid?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
C. 4Explanation
2.2 lbs per 1000ml or 1kg per 1000 mlRate this question:
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- 39.
A diabetic patient has the following presentation: unresponsive to voice or touch, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and pallor. Which of the following actions by the healthcare provider is the priority?
- A.
Send blood to the laboratory for analysis
- B.
Administer 50% dextrose IV per protocol
- C.
Administer oxygen per nasal cannula
- D.
Administer the prescribed insulin.
Correct Answer
B. Administer 50% dextrose IV per protocolExplanation
The given presentation of the diabetic patient suggests that they are experiencing hypoglycemia, which is a life-threatening condition. Administering 50% dextrose IV per protocol is the priority because it will rapidly increase the patient's blood glucose levels and help reverse the symptoms of hypoglycemia. Sending blood to the laboratory for analysis, administering oxygen, and administering insulin are important interventions, but they are not the priority in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is bioavailability?
- A.
The amount of drug that is biometrically excreted in your blood.
- B.
The amount of available drug to be used for biological testing
- C.
The amount of medication in your blood that is available to produce an effect.
- D.
The amount of blood that is available for transfusion.
Correct Answer
C. The amount of medication in your blood that is available to produce an effect.Explanation
Bioavailability refers to the amount of medication in your blood that is available to produce an effect. It represents the fraction of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation and is able to exert its therapeutic effect. This can be influenced by factors such as the route of administration, drug formulation, and metabolism. Understanding bioavailability is crucial for determining the appropriate dosage of a medication and ensuring its effectiveness in producing the desired therapeutic outcome.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Pharmacokinetics is BEST defined by which of the following?
- A.
How the drug affects the body.
- B.
The amount of drug necessary to produce a desired effect.
- C.
The use of drugs for treatment.
- D.
The process of a drug entering circulation.
- E.
How the body moves and affects a drug.
Correct Answer
E. How the body moves and affects a drug.Explanation
Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how the body processes and affects a drug. It involves understanding how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. This includes factors such as drug absorption rates, distribution throughout different tissues, metabolism by enzymes, and excretion through various routes. By studying pharmacokinetics, healthcare professionals can determine the optimal dosing regimen for a drug, predict drug interactions, and assess the overall effectiveness and safety of a medication.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NpH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin. The nurse tells the client to:
- A.
Freeze the insulin.
- B.
Refrigerate the insulin.
- C.
Store the insulin in a dark, dry place.
- D.
Keep the insulin at room temperature.
Correct Answer
B. Refrigerate the insulin.Explanation
Insulin should be stored in the refrigerator to maintain its effectiveness. Freezing insulin can cause it to become denatured and lose its potency. Storing insulin in a dark, dry place is not recommended as it may expose it to extreme temperatures or humidity. Keeping insulin at room temperature for an extended period can also lead to degradation of the medication. Therefore, refrigerating the insulin is the correct way to store it and ensure its efficacy.Rate this question:
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Mar 19, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jan 28, 2019Quiz Created by
Adira
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