CDC 2s071 Materiel Management Craftsman Volume 1. Materiel Management (Edit Code 08)
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which materiel management unit type code (UTC) identifies the superintendent bare base support?
- A.
JFBAC
- B.
JFBBS
- C.
JFBCS
- D.
JFBFM
Correct Answer
B. JFBBSExplanation
The correct answer is JFBBS. The materiel management unit type code (UTC) JFBBS identifies the superintendent bare base support. This code specifically refers to the unit responsible for providing support and management for bare base operations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which unit type code (UTC) provides supply expertise during initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location (CSL)?
- A.
JFBDC
- B.
JFBMR
- C.
JFBCW
- D.
JFBFM
Correct Answer
D. JFBFMExplanation
JFBFM is the correct answer because it is the unit type code (UTC) that provides supply expertise during the initial beddown at a main operating base (MOB), forward operating site (FOS), or cooperative security location (CSL).Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which UTC provides materiel management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons, in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a MOB, FOS, or CSL?
- A.
JFBME
- B.
JFBDC
- C.
JFBMR
- D.
JFBCW
Correct Answer
A. JFBMEExplanation
JFBME is the correct answer because it is the only option that provides materiel management support to accountable officers, responsible officers, and responsible persons in the control and accountability of class IX and class VII at a MOB, FOS, or CSL. The other options do not mention providing this specific support.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, program nominees must meet all of the following, except?
- A.
Have a 2S071 control AFSC
- B.
Be recommended by their wing commander
- C.
Have less than 15 years time in service
- D.
Possesses the rank of TSgt or MSgt
Correct Answer
B. Be recommended by their wing commanderExplanation
The correct answer is "be recommended by their wing commander." This means that in order to qualify for assignment under the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program, program nominees do not need to be recommended by their wing commander. They must, however, have a 2S071 control AFSC, have less than 15 years time in service, and possess the rank of TSgt or MSgt.Rate this question:
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- 5.
When does the Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program selection panel that is chaired by the 2S career field manager convene?
- A.
May/June
- B.
June/July
- C.
July/August
- D.
August/September
Correct Answer
A. May/JuneExplanation
The Materiel Management Enlisted Career Broadening Program selection panel, chaired by the 2S career field manager, convenes in May/June.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How many NCO per year are assigned to each Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Complex (ALC)?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
B. 3Explanation
Each Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) Air Logistics Complex (ALC) is assigned 3 NCOs per year.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who is the next senior officer under the LRS commander who also oversees the sophisticated and diverse day to day operations within the squadron?
- A.
Vice Commander
- B.
Logistics Officer
- C.
Operations Officer
- D.
Squadron superintendent
Correct Answer
C. Operations OfficerExplanation
The Operations Officer is the next senior officer under the LRS commander who oversees the sophisticated and diverse day to day operations within the squadron. This role is responsible for coordinating and managing the various operational activities, ensuring smooth functioning and efficiency. They work closely with the LRS commander and other officers to plan and execute missions, maintain equipment, and supervise personnel. The Operations Officer plays a crucial role in maintaining the operational readiness of the squadron and ensuring mission success.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which flight is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property?
- A.
Logistics operations
- B.
Command and control
- C.
Materiel management
- D.
Deployment and distribution
Correct Answer
D. Deployment and distributionExplanation
Deployment and distribution is responsible for the centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property. This function ensures that all necessary resources and personnel are properly allocated and transported to their designated locations in an efficient and organized manner. It involves coordinating logistics operations, managing materiel, and overseeing command and control to ensure the smooth execution of deployment and distribution activities.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which LRS flight is the primary liaison between customers and the Air Force Material Command Supply Chain Management-Retail (AFMC SCM-R)?
- A.
Logistics management
- B.
Operations management
- C.
Materiel management
- D.
Deployment and distribution
Correct Answer
C. Materiel managementExplanation
Materiel management is the correct answer as it refers to the management of military equipment and supplies, including their acquisition, storage, distribution, and disposal. In this context, the primary liaison between customers and the AFMC SCM-R would be responsible for managing the flow of materiel between the customers and the supply chain management system of the Air Force Material Command. This involves coordinating the procurement, storage, and distribution of materials to ensure that the customers' needs are met efficiently and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which supply class includes the major classification of "subsistence"?
- A.
I
- B.
III
- C.
V
- D.
VII
Correct Answer
A. IExplanation
Supply class I includes the major classification of "subsistence". This means that goods and services in this supply class are essential for survival and basic needs. Subsistence items typically include food, water, shelter, and other necessities required for daily living.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which best describes supply class VII items?
- A.
Major end items
- B.
Construction
- C.
Ammunition
- D.
Subsistence
Correct Answer
A. Major end itemsExplanation
Supply class VII items are major end items. This means that they are the final products or equipment that are directly used by the end user. Major end items can include vehicles, aircraft, weapons, or other large and complex items. They are typically expensive and have a long lifespan. This is in contrast to construction, ammunition, and subsistence items, which are categorized under different supply classes.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which supply class includes all repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies and subassemblies?
- A.
X
- B.
IX
- C.
VIII
- D.
VII
Correct Answer
B. IXExplanation
Supply class IX includes all repair parts and components, including kits, assemblies, and subassemblies. This class is specifically designated for repair parts and components, ensuring that all necessary items for repairs and maintenance are included.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?
- A.
Supply chain operations reference
- B.
Air expeditionary forces
- C.
Unit type code
- D.
Operation plan
Correct Answer
A. Supply chain operations referenceExplanation
Supply chain operations reference provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure. This framework helps organizations in managing and improving their supply chain operations by providing a standardized set of metrics, processes, and practices that can be used across different industries. It allows companies to benchmark their performance, identify areas for improvement, and implement best practices to achieve operational excellence in their supply chain management.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which re-leveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provided a summary of information about a given stock number?
- A.
C
- B.
D
- C.
F
- D.
R
Correct Answer
D. RExplanation
The re-leveling flag "R" is used on a requirements computation inquiry to provide a summary of information about a given stock number. This flag indicates that the inquiry is requesting information related to re-leveling, which involves adjusting the stock levels based on current demand and supply conditions. By using this flag, the inquiry will generate a summary report that includes details such as the current stock level, demand forecast, supply availability, and any necessary adjustments or recommendations for the stock number in question.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the tool called that gives the ability to track the identity, status, and location of Department of Defense units, and non-unit cargo (excluding bulk petroleum, oil, and lubricants [POL]), and passengers; medical patients; and personal property from origin to consignee or destination across the range of military operations?
- A.
In-transit visibility (ITV)
- B.
Global Transportation Network (GTN)
- C.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)
- D.
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)
Correct Answer
A. In-transit visibility (ITV)Explanation
In-transit visibility (ITV) is the correct answer because it accurately describes the tool that allows the Department of Defense to track the identity, status, and location of various elements such as units, cargo, passengers, medical patients, and personal property. ITV provides real-time information on the movement of these entities from their origin to their destination across different military operations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which system is designed to efficiently collect, process , and transmit transportation data required to move outbound freight, receive inbound freight, direct in-transit freight, perform airlift clearance, support contingency requirements and provide command and control oversight of cargo moving in Defense Transportation system (DTS)?
- A.
Global Transportation Network
- B.
Global Decision Support System (GDSS)
- C.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)
- D.
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)
Correct Answer
C. Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)Explanation
The Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS) is designed to efficiently collect, process, and transmit transportation data required to move outbound freight, receive inbound freight, direct in-transit freight, perform airlift clearance, support contingency requirements, and provide command and control oversight of cargo moving in the Defense Transportation System (DTS). It is specifically designed to handle the various operations and logistics involved in the movement of cargo within the defense transportation system.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which Air Mobility Command air transportation system supports fixed, deployed and mobile sites?
- A.
Global Transportation Network (GTN)
- B.
Global Decision Support System (GDSS)
- C.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)
- D.
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)
Correct Answer
D. Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)Explanation
The Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to support fixed, deployed, and mobile sites within the Air Mobility Command air transportation system. GATES is responsible for managing the execution of air transportation missions, including planning, scheduling, and tracking aircraft and cargo movements. It provides real-time visibility and control over the entire transportation process, ensuring efficient and effective support to various sites.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which Air mobility Command force level command and control (C2) system supports Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management?
- A.
Global Transportation Network (GTN)
- B.
Global Decision Support System (GDSS)
- C.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)
- D.
Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)
Correct Answer
B. Global Decision Support System (GDSS)Explanation
The Global Decision Support System (GDSS) is the correct answer because it supports the Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC) execution authority for effective airlift mission management. The GDSS is a command and control (C2) system within the Air Mobility Command force level that provides real-time information and decision-making support for the planning and execution of air transportation missions. It allows TACC to effectively manage and coordinate the movement of tankers and airlift assets, ensuring efficient and timely airlift operations.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What is the Air Force's source for hazardous data and pollution prevention information?
- A.
Asset Visibility
- B.
Air Force Hazardous Material
- C.
Hazardous Material Information Resource Systems
- D.
Enterprise Environmental safety and Occupational Health Management Information System
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise Environmental safety and Occupational Health Management Information SystemExplanation
The Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information System is the Air Force's source for hazardous data and pollution prevention information. This system provides comprehensive information and resources related to environmental safety and occupational health management, helping the Air Force to effectively manage and prevent hazards and pollution.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which program in the materiel management system takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?
- A.
Reject
- B.
Inquiry
- C.
Management notice
- D.
Management support
Correct Answer
A. RejectExplanation
When an error is detected during processing of a transaction in the material management system, the program that takes control of computer processing is the "Reject" program. This program is responsible for identifying and handling errors in the system, ensuring that the transaction is not processed further and appropriate action is taken to rectify the error. It helps in maintaining data integrity and preventing incorrect or faulty transactions from being processed.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which supply management listing reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject?
- A.
D818
- B.
D20
- C.
D11
- D.
D04
Correct Answer
A. D818Explanation
Supply management listing D818 reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Who may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program?
- A.
Reject monitors
- B.
Accountable officer
- C.
Quality assurance personnel
- D.
Management and system officer
Correct Answer
A. Reject monitorsExplanation
Reject monitors may force-delete rejects using the reject processor program.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which supply management listing shows all rejects that have been cleared?
- A.
D818
- B.
D20
- C.
D11
- D.
D04
Correct Answer
B. D20Explanation
The supply management listing D20 shows all rejects that have been cleared.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which system provides hazardous material managers oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system to ensure only minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose?
- A.
Asset Visibility
- B.
Air Force Hazardous material
- C.
Hazardous Material Information Resource
- D.
Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information
Correct Answer
D. Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management InformationExplanation
The Enterprise Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Management Information system provides hazardous material managers with oversight of orders placed in the materiel management system. It ensures that only the minimum amounts of material required are ordered and that the material ordered is used only for its authorized purpose.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but does not cause looping nor does it destroy accountable records?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
B. IIExplanation
The correct answer is II because it states that the DIREP category code is assigned when a problem stops the computer from processing input, but does not cause looping nor does it destroy accountable records. This means that the problem may prevent the computer from functioning properly, but it does not result in any data loss or corruption.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected
- A.
Over the telephone with the materiel management system control center
- B.
On an Air Force suggestion form
- C.
In the next scheduled release
- D.
As workload permits
Correct Answer
C. In the next scheduled releaseExplanation
A category III difficulty report (DIREP) does not stop processing and is corrected in the next scheduled release. This means that the issue reported in the DIREP will not cause a halt in the processing of other tasks or operations. Instead, it will be addressed and fixed in the next scheduled release, which could be a software update or a planned maintenance period. This approach allows for the efficient handling of the reported difficulty without disrupting the overall workflow or workload.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which difficulty report (DIREP) category code is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies?
- A.
I
- B.
II
- C.
III
- D.
IV
Correct Answer
D. IVExplanation
Category IV is assigned when there are misspelled words and other minor program deficiencies. This category is used to classify issues that are considered to be of low severity and have a minimal impact on the overall functionality of the program. These types of deficiencies can be easily corrected and do not significantly affect the performance or usability of the program.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Where do you start you research before conducting a surveillance visit of a function?
- A.
Base supply reports and records
- B.
Function's last surveillance report
- C.
Function's unit manning document
- D.
Directives that apply to the function
Correct Answer
D. Directives that apply to the functionExplanation
Before conducting a surveillance visit of a function, it is important to start the research by reviewing the directives that apply to the function. These directives provide guidelines, regulations, and procedures that are specific to the function being observed. By understanding these directives, the surveillance visit can be conducted in accordance with the established standards and requirements, ensuring that the function is operating effectively and efficiently. Reviewing the directives also helps in identifying any changes or updates that may have been made since the last surveillance report, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of the function.Rate this question:
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- 29.
How often are surveillance visits all materiel management functions scheduled, except fuels?
- A.
Monthly
- B.
Quarterly
- C.
Semiannually
- D.
Annually
Correct Answer
D. AnnuallyExplanation
Surveillance visits for all materiel management functions, except fuels, are scheduled annually. This means that these visits occur once a year. The frequency of these visits allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the materiel management functions, ensuring that they are being conducted effectively and efficiently. It also allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made on an annual basis.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to a function?
- A.
Check in and out with the flight chief
- B.
Submit a written report within 15 workdays of exit briefing
- C.
Follow the standard Air Force directive for conducting such a visit
- D.
Bypass areas that have not had deficiencies within the past three years
Correct Answer
A. Check in and out with the flight chiefExplanation
When conducting a surveillance visit to a function, it is important to check in and out with the flight chief. This ensures that the visit is properly documented and that the flight chief is aware of the presence of the visitor. Checking in and out also allows for proper coordination and communication with the flight chief, who may provide important information or guidance during the visit. By following this basic ground rule, the visitor can ensure that they are conducting the surveillance visit in a professional and organized manner.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within how many workdays of date on the surveillance report?
- A.
7
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
30
Correct Answer
C. 15Explanation
The function that receives a surveillance visit report must send a reply within 15 workdays of the date on the surveillance report. This means that the recipient of the report has a maximum of 15 workdays to review the report and respond to it. This timeframe allows for a reasonable amount of time to analyze the report and provide a timely response.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which organization is the primary point of contact for special topics designated by materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander?
- A.
Quality assurance
- B.
Customer service
- C.
Receiving section
- D.
Computer operations
Correct Answer
A. Quality assuranceExplanation
Quality assurance is the primary point of contact for special topics designated by the materiel management officer or logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander. Quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that products and services meet the required standards and specifications. They play a crucial role in inspecting and evaluating processes to identify any deficiencies or areas of improvement. Therefore, they are the appropriate organization to handle special topics and address any issues related to quality control and assurance.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which is designed to provide a method of evaluating compliance with Air Force, major command (MAJCOM), and local logistics policy and guidance?
- A.
Customer support visits
- B.
Quality assurance program
- C.
Difficulty report worksheet
- D.
Supply management activity group
Correct Answer
B. Quality assurance programExplanation
The quality assurance program is designed to provide a method of evaluating compliance with Air Force, major command (MAJCOM), and local logistics policy and guidance. This program ensures that the necessary standards and procedures are being followed, and identifies areas for improvement or corrective action. It helps to maintain high levels of quality and efficiency in logistics operations.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which quality assurance function is one of the most important evaluating activities available to the accountable officer?
- A.
Analysis
- B.
Statistics
- C.
Reporting and tracking
- D.
Annual inspection and spot check
Correct Answer
A. AnalysisExplanation
Analysis is one of the most important evaluating activities available to the accountable officer because it involves the systematic examination and interpretation of data, information, or evidence to identify patterns, trends, and insights. Through analysis, the accountable officer can assess the effectiveness and efficiency of processes, identify areas for improvement, and make informed decisions. It helps in identifying any discrepancies, risks, or non-compliance issues, thereby ensuring quality assurance and accountability in the organization.Rate this question:
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- 35.
An effective analysis program must be based on
- A.
Mission requirements
- B.
Management seminars
- C.
Organization objectives
- D.
The analysis of operating instructions
Correct Answer
C. Organization objectivesExplanation
An effective analysis program must be based on organization objectives because these objectives provide the overall direction and goals for the organization. By aligning the analysis program with the organization's objectives, it ensures that the analysis efforts are focused on areas that are most important and relevant to the organization's success. This helps in identifying and addressing any gaps or opportunities that may exist in achieving the objectives, and allows for better decision-making and resource allocation. Additionally, basing the analysis program on organization objectives helps in measuring the effectiveness and impact of the program in contributing towards the achievement of these objectives.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which type of analysis identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, stands, and norms?
- A.
Trend
- B.
Problem
- C.
Important
- D.
Performance
Correct Answer
A. TrendExplanation
Trend analysis is a type of analysis that identifies favorable or unfavorable deviations when compared to established factors, standards, and norms. This analysis involves examining data over a period of time to determine patterns or trends that may indicate positive or negative changes. By comparing the current data to established factors, standards, and norms, trend analysis can identify whether the deviations are favorable or unfavorable. It helps in understanding the direction and magnitude of changes and can be used to make informed decisions and predictions.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which type of item(s) does quality assurance determine it requires to perform an analysis during its review of all trend factors on specific subjects?
- A.
Inquiry results
- B.
Difficulty reports
- C.
Problem and trend analysis
- D.
Statistics and source documents
Correct Answer
D. Statistics and source documentsExplanation
Quality assurance determines that it requires statistics and source documents to perform an analysis during its review of all trend factors on specific subjects. These documents provide objective data and information that can be used to assess the quality of a product or process. By analyzing statistics and source documents, quality assurance can identify trends, patterns, and potential issues, allowing them to make informed decisions and recommendations for improvement.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which term is used to describe the performance measures that represent key results when monitoring performance?
- A.
Inquiry results
- B.
Source documents
- C.
Difficulty indicators
- D.
Management indicators
Correct Answer
D. Management indicatorsExplanation
Management indicators are performance measures that represent key results when monitoring performance. These indicators provide information about the overall performance of an organization or specific areas within it. They help management assess the effectiveness and efficiency of their operations, identify areas for improvement, and make informed decisions. Management indicators are essential for tracking progress towards goals and objectives and ensuring that performance remains aligned with organizational strategies.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Items such as stock effectiveness, mission capability (MICAP), priority due-out, warehouse refusal, inventory accuracy, percentage of base repair, delinquent reject, delinquent document, and record reversal and correction rates are examples of
- A.
Inquiry results
- B.
Source documents
- C.
Difficulty indicators
- D.
Management indicators
Correct Answer
D. Management indicatorsExplanation
The items listed in the question, such as stock effectiveness, mission capability, priority due-out, etc., are all examples of management indicators. These indicators provide information and metrics that help in assessing and managing various aspects of an organization's operations and performance. They are used by management to monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of processes, identify areas for improvement, and make informed decisions.Rate this question:
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- 40.
In addition of management reports, what other sources of information can help in identifying problems when gathering data after other indicators have been selected?
- A.
Training reports
- B.
Part Purchasing reports
- C.
Base supply systems down time
- D.
Top 5 percent of items purchased through base supply system
Correct Answer
A. Training reportsExplanation
Training reports can help in identifying problems when gathering data after other indicators have been selected because they provide information on the effectiveness of training programs and the performance of employees. These reports can highlight any gaps in knowledge or skills that may be contributing to the identified problems. By analyzing training reports, management can identify areas where additional training or development may be needed to address the problems and improve overall performance.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What are the keys to deficiency identification?
- A.
Personal visits and audits
- B.
Source documents and reports
- C.
Training and cross feed reports
- D.
Analysis program and special analyses
Correct Answer
D. Analysis program and special analysesExplanation
The keys to deficiency identification are an analysis program and special analyses. These tools allow for a thorough examination and evaluation of data and information to identify any deficiencies or areas of improvement. By using an analysis program and conducting special analyses, organizations can gain valuable insights into their operations and processes, enabling them to identify and address any deficiencies in a systematic and effective manner.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Who will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property cause by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use?
- A.
Logistics readiness squadron commander (LRS/CC)
- B.
All Air Force members and employess
- C.
Management and systems flight
- D.
Maintenance officer
Correct Answer
B. All Air Force members and employessExplanation
All Air Force members and employees will be held liable for the loss, damage, or destruction of government property caused by negligence, willful misconduct, or deliberate unauthorized use. This implies that every individual within the Air Force organization bears responsibility for the proper care and use of government property.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which type of problem requires a supply discrepancy report?
- A.
Duplicate shipment
- B.
Transportation discrepancy
- C.
Personal property shipment discrepancy
- D.
Local base delivery problem to or return from internal activity
Correct Answer
A. Duplicate shipmentExplanation
A supply discrepancy report is required for a duplicate shipment problem. This report is used to document and report any discrepancies or issues related to the supply or shipment of goods. In the case of a duplicate shipment, it is important to report this problem to ensure that the correct actions are taken, such as returning or redirecting the duplicate shipment and preventing any potential inventory or logistical issues.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Where are all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies kept?
- A.
Logistics readiness squadron
- B.
Customer support
- C.
Inspection
- D.
Receiving
Correct Answer
B. Customer supportExplanation
The correct answer is Customer support. In an organization, all supply discrepancy report (SDR) suspense copies are typically kept in the customer support department. This department is responsible for handling customer inquiries and resolving any issues related to the supply chain. By keeping the SDR suspense copies in customer support, the department can easily access and refer to them when addressing customer complaints or queries regarding supply discrepancies. This helps in maintaining transparency and providing efficient customer service.Rate this question:
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- 45.
How many days after the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR) will the discrepancy details appear on the SDR listing?
- A.
10 to 20
- B.
25 to 35
- C.
55 to 109
- D.
70 to 125
Correct Answer
C. 55 to 109Explanation
After the initial submission of the supply discrepancy report (SDR), it will take anywhere between 55 to 109 days for the discrepancy details to appear on the SDR listing.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which system prepares supply data reports for off-base distribution?
- A.
Automated Data Reports submission system (ADRSS)
- B.
Supply Interface System (SIFS)
- C.
ADRSS II
- D.
SIFS II
Correct Answer
A. Automated Data Reports submission system (ADRSS)Explanation
The correct answer is the Automated Data Reports submission system (ADRSS). This system is responsible for preparing supply data reports for off-base distribution. It is an automated system that streamlines the process of submitting data reports and ensures efficient distribution of supplies to off-base locations.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What is the primary goal of the Supply Interface System?
- A.
Allow input of DD2005 Data
- B.
Provide interface between supply satellite offices
- C.
Send and receive supply requests and fills base wide
- D.
Dispatch data images generated by the materiel management system application programs
Correct Answer
D. Dispatch data images generated by the materiel management system application programsExplanation
The primary goal of the Supply Interface System is to dispatch data images generated by the materiel management system application programs. This means that the system is responsible for sending out the data images to the necessary recipients or locations. It does not involve inputting DD2005 Data, providing an interface between supply satellite offices, or sending and receiving supply requests and fills base wide.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Storing all Supply Interface System (SIFS) images for the purpose of backup into a local user file is a duplication of effort and an abuse of system resources because
- A.
Local user files are purged monthly
- B.
SIFS has built-in recovery and contingency procedures
- C.
SIFS images are stored on the Supply Management System computer
- D.
The Air Force Equipment Management System receives and stores duplicate images
Correct Answer
B. SIFS has built-in recovery and contingency proceduresExplanation
Storing all SIFS images for backup in a local user file is unnecessary because SIFS already has built-in recovery and contingency procedures. This means that in case of any data loss or system failure, SIFS is designed to handle and recover from such situations. Therefore, duplicating the effort by storing the images locally is not only redundant but also an abuse of system resources.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Supply Interface System (SIFS) residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours?
- A.
12
- B.
24
- C.
36
- D.
48
Correct Answer
B. 24Explanation
Supply Interface System (SIFS) residue images are considered delinquent after 24 hours. This means that if the residue images are not addressed or resolved within 24 hours, they are considered overdue or late. It is important to promptly attend to these residue images to ensure proper supply chain management and prevent any delays or disruptions in the supply interface system.Rate this question:
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- 50.
After how many days will Supply Interface System (SIFS) residue images be delted?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
20
Correct Answer
B. 10Explanation
After 10 days, the Supply Interface System (SIFS) residue images will be deleted.Rate this question:
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Jul 12, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Nov 18, 2018Quiz Created by
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