1st National Online Law Quiz Competition
- 1.
The Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were adopted from
- A.
Canadian Constitution
- B.
Russian Constitution
- C.
American Constitution
- D.
French Constitution
Correct Answer
B. Russian ConstitutionExplanation
The Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were adopted from the Russian Constitution. The concept of Fundamental Duties was added to the Indian Constitution in 1976 through the 42nd Amendment. The idea of incorporating Fundamental Duties was inspired by the Soviet Union's Constitution, which emphasized the importance of citizens' responsibilities towards the state and society. These duties aim to promote a sense of social responsibility, national integration, and respect for the country's heritage and culture among Indian citizens.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which article is referred to as "the jewel of the Constitution"
- A.
Article 352
- B.
Article 123
- C.
Article 32
- D.
Article 31
Correct Answer
C. Article 32Explanation
Article 32 is referred to as "the jewel of the Constitution" because it guarantees the right to constitutional remedies. This article empowers individuals to directly approach the Supreme Court of India for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. It acts as a safeguard against the violation of these rights by the government or any other authority. The significance of Article 32 lies in its role in protecting and upholding the fundamental rights of citizens, making it a crucial and highly regarded provision in the Indian Constitution.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Right to Freedom is guaranteed in which article
- A.
17
- B.
19
- C.
18
- D.
20
Correct Answer
B. 19Explanation
The right to freedom is guaranteed in Article 19 of the Indian Constitution. This article grants citizens certain fundamental freedoms, including the freedom of speech and expression, freedom to assemble peacefully, freedom to form associations or unions, freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India, and freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country. Therefore, the correct answer is 19.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Right to Property was removed from Fundamental Rights by which amendment
- A.
29th
- B.
25th
- C.
44th
- D.
42nd
Correct Answer
C. 44thExplanation
The correct answer is 44th. The 44th amendment to the Indian Constitution removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights. This amendment was passed in 1978 and aimed to limit the power of the government to acquire private property. It was a significant change as the Right to Property was initially included as a Fundamental Right in the Constitution. The 44th amendment ensured that the right to property would now be considered as a legal right rather than a fundamental right.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament
- A.
President
- B.
Vice President
- C.
Speaker
- D.
Chief Justice
Correct Answer
C. SpeakerExplanation
The Speaker presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament. In a joint sitting, both the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) come together to discuss and pass a particular legislation. The Speaker, who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, is responsible for maintaining order and conducting the proceedings of the joint sitting. The Speaker ensures that all members have an opportunity to speak and that the rules of the Parliament are followed during the joint sitting.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deal with
- A.
Centre-state relations
- B.
Supreme Court
- C.
State emergency
- D.
National emergency
Correct Answer
D. National emergencyExplanation
Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the declaration of a national emergency. This provision empowers the President of India to proclaim a state of emergency in the entire country or in a specific part thereof, in case of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. During a national emergency, the central government assumes greater control over the states and can exercise its authority to override state laws and take necessary actions to address the emergency situation. This provision ensures that the central government can effectively respond to threats to the nation's security and integrity.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The emergency provisions of the Constitution of India have been borrowed from
- A.
German Constitution
- B.
American Constitution
- C.
French Constitution
- D.
Irish Constitution
Correct Answer
A. German ConstitutionExplanation
The emergency provisions of the Constitution of India have been borrowed from the German Constitution. This is because the framers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by the Weimar Constitution of Germany, which had extensive provisions for emergency situations. The German Constitution provided for the declaration of a state of emergency in case of internal disturbances or external aggression, and the suspension of certain fundamental rights during such emergencies. The Indian Constitution also includes similar provisions, such as the declaration of a state of emergency and the suspension of certain fundamental rights in emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Public Undertaking Committee is a
- A.
Cabinet Committee
- B.
Parliamentary Committee
- C.
Committee of a political party
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
B. Parliamentary CommitteeExplanation
The Public Undertaking Committee is a parliamentary committee. Parliamentary committees are established by the Parliament to examine specific issues and make recommendations. The Public Undertaking Committee specifically focuses on the functioning and performance of public sector undertakings. It reviews the policies, operations, and financial aspects of these undertakings to ensure transparency, accountability, and efficiency. As a parliamentary committee, it plays a crucial role in overseeing the functioning of public sector undertakings and holding them accountable to the Parliament and the public.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament?
- A.
3 months
- B.
4 months
- C.
6 months
- D.
12 months
Correct Answer
C. 6 monthsExplanation
The maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament is 6 months. This means that there cannot be a period longer than 6 months between the end of one session and the beginning of the next session. This ensures that there is regularity and continuity in the functioning of the Parliament, allowing for the timely discussion and passage of legislation. A longer gap could disrupt the legislative process and hinder the government's ability to address important issues in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Consolidated Fund is
- A.
Votable
- B.
Non votable
- C.
Non plan
- D.
None of these
Correct Answer
B. Non votableExplanation
The correct answer is "Non votable." This means that the funds in the Consolidated Fund cannot be voted on or allocated by the legislature. These funds are typically used to cover the regular expenses of the government, such as salaries and pensions, and are not subject to debate or approval by the legislative body.Rate this question:
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- 11.
”India that is Bharat shall be a union of states”. From which Constitution was adopted the words “union of states”?
- A.
US
- B.
France
- C.
Swiss
- D.
Canada
Correct Answer
D. CanadaExplanation
The words "union of states" in the phrase "India that is Bharat shall be a union of states" were adopted from the Constitution of Canada. Canada is known for its federal system of government, where power is divided between the central government and the provinces. This phrase suggests that India, like Canada, would be a federation with a central government and individual states or provinces having their own powers and jurisdictions.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Elections to the local government bodies are made mandatory by which amendment
- A.
72nd
- B.
73rd
- C.
64th
- D.
63rd
Correct Answer
B. 73rdExplanation
The correct answer is 73rd amendment. The 73rd amendment to the Indian Constitution, passed in 1992, made elections to the local government bodies in rural areas mandatory. This amendment aimed to decentralize power and promote grassroots democracy by establishing Panchayati Raj institutions. It provided constitutional status to the Panchayats and ensured their representation, powers, and responsibilities. This amendment was a significant step towards empowering local communities and promoting participatory governance at the grassroots level.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following sections have been inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:
- A.
Section 376A
- B.
Section 376B
- C.
Sections 166A, 166B, 354C
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 inserted multiple sections in the Indian Penal Code, 1860. These sections are Section 376A, Section 376B, and Sections 166A, 166B, and 354C. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."Rate this question:
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- 14.
Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
- A.
Section 326A
- B.
Section 326B
- C.
Section 228A
- D.
Section 228
Correct Answer
B. Section 326BExplanation
Section 326B of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 deals with the offence of voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid. This section specifically addresses the act of throwing or attempting to throw acid on another person, which is considered a serious offence. The section provides for punishment for such acts, including imprisonment and fine.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A man shall be guilty of the offence of sexual harassment under section 354A of Indian Penal Code, 1860, if he commits: (i) Physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual overtures. (ii) A demand or request for sexual favours. (iii) Showing pornography against the will of a woman. (iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.
- A.
(i) and (ii)
- B.
(i) and (iii)
- C.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
- D.
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)Explanation
The correct answer is (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). This is because section 354A of the Indian Penal Code defines sexual harassment as a combination of various acts, including physical contact and advances involving unwelcome and explicit sexual overtures, a demand or request for sexual favors, showing pornography against the will of a woman, and making sexually colored remarks. Therefore, all of these acts must be committed in order for a man to be guilty of the offense of sexual harassment under section 354A.Rate this question:
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- 16.
When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the body, not being the penis, into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person, he commits:
- A.
Rape
- B.
Sexual Harassment
- C.
Sexual Assault
- D.
None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. RapeExplanation
The given scenario describes a situation where a man inserts any object or body part (other than the penis) into the vagina, urethra, or anus of a woman, either by himself or by making her do so with him or another person. This act is considered non-consensual and constitutes rape. Sexual harassment refers to unwanted sexual advances or behavior, while sexual assault encompasses a range of non-consensual sexual acts. However, in this specific case, the act described meets the legal definition of rape.Rate this question:
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- 17.
‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. Y killed ‘Z’:
- A.
Only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z
- B.
‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’
- C.
‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any overt act
- D.
Both (a) & (c)
Correct Answer
B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’Explanation
Both 'X' and 'Y' are liable for the murder of 'Z' because even though 'X' did not hit 'Z' with the spear, they were still actively involved in the act of murder by standing on guard with a weapon. Their presence and participation in the crime make them equally responsible for the outcome. Therefore, both 'X' and 'Y' are liable for the murder of 'Z'.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Illegal signifies:
- A.
Everything which is an offence
- B.
Everything which is prohibited by law
- C.
Everything which furnishes ground for civil action
- D.
All the above
Correct Answer
D. All the aboveExplanation
The term "illegal" encompasses everything that is an offense, prohibited by law, and furnishes ground for civil action. In other words, it includes all actions or behaviors that are considered unlawful or against the established legal framework. Therefore, the answer "all the above" is correct as it encompasses all the mentioned aspects of illegality.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of imprisonment, the sentence of imprisonment:
- A.
Has to be wholly rigorous
- B.
Has to be wholly simple
- C.
Can be partly rigorous and partly simple
- D.
Either (a) or (b)
Correct Answer
C. Can be partly rigorous and partly simpleExplanation
Under section 60 of IPC, the sentence of imprisonment can be partly rigorous and partly simple. This means that in certain cases, the court has the discretion to impose a sentence that includes both rigorous imprisonment and simple imprisonment. The decision on whether to impose a wholly rigorous or wholly simple imprisonment or a combination of both depends on the specific circumstances of the case and the discretion of the court.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine under section 64 of IPC:
- A.
Shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced
- B.
Shall be concurrent of any other imprisonment
- C.
Shall not be in excess of any other imprisonment
- D.
Both (b) & (c)
Correct Answer
A. Shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentencedExplanation
The correct answer is "shall be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced." This means that if a person is already serving a sentence for another offense and is also required to pay a fine, the imprisonment for non-payment of the fine will be in addition to the existing sentence. In other words, the person will have to serve both sentences concurrently, but the imprisonment for non-payment of the fine will be longer than the existing sentence.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Under section 498A of IPC cruelty includes:
- A.
Harassment of the woman
- B.
Physical cruelty only
- C.
Mental cruelty only
- D.
Cruelty by wife.
Correct Answer
A. Harassment of the womanExplanation
Under section 498A of IPC, cruelty includes harassment of the woman. This means that any form of harassment or mistreatment towards a woman, whether physical or mental, can be considered as cruelty under this section. It does not specify that cruelty can only be physical or mental, or that it can only be committed by the wife. Therefore, the correct answer is harassment of the woman, as it encompasses all forms of cruelty towards women under this section.Rate this question:
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- 22.
In case of an offence punishable with fine only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall not exceed:
- A.
Two months
- B.
Three months
- C.
Four months
- D.
Six months
Correct Answer
C. Four monthsExplanation
In case of an offence punishable with fine only, if an offender is sentenced to pay a fine of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, the maximum imprisonment in default of payment of the fine shall be four months.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Under section 79, nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is justified by law or who by reason of mistake of fact in goodfaith believes himself to be:
- A.
Bound by law to do it
- B.
Justified by law to do it
- C.
Bound by morality to do it
- D.
All the above.
Correct Answer
B. Justified by law to do itExplanation
Under section 79, a person is not considered to have committed an offense if they are justified by law or if they genuinely believe, in good faith, that they are bound by law to do it. This means that if someone is acting in accordance with the law or genuinely believes that they are obligated to act in a certain way based on their understanding of the law, they cannot be held accountable for any offense. Therefore, the correct answer is "justified by law to do it".Rate this question:
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- 24.
The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means:
- A.
Ignorance of fact is an excuse.
- B.
Ignorance of fact is no excuse
- C.
Ignorance of law is an excuse
- D.
Ignorance of law is no excuse
Correct Answer
D. Ignorance of law is no excuseExplanation
The phrase "ignorantia juris non excusat" is a Latin term that translates to "ignorance of the law is no excuse." This legal principle means that individuals cannot avoid legal consequences or penalties by claiming that they were unaware of the law. In other words, ignorance of the law is not a valid defense in legal proceedings. This principle is based on the idea that it is the responsibility of individuals to familiarize themselves with the laws of their jurisdiction and abide by them.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code?
- A.
Lord William Bentinck
- B.
Lord Curzon
- C.
Lord Macaulay
- D.
Lord Irwin
Correct Answer
C. Lord MacaulayExplanation
Lord Macaulay was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code. He was a British historian, politician, and administrator who played a significant role in the development of the Indian legal system. Macaulay's committee was responsible for drafting and codifying the Indian Penal Code, which was enacted in 1860. His efforts in shaping the Indian legal system had a lasting impact and the Indian Penal Code continues to be one of the main criminal codes in India today.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The Contract Act applies to
- A.
Contracts made before 1 September, 1872
- B.
Contracts made on 1 September, 1868
- C.
Contracts made before 1 September, 1872 and to be enforced after 1 September, 1872
- D.
Contracts made on and after 1 September, 1872
Correct Answer
D. Contracts made on and after 1 September, 1872Explanation
The correct answer is "Contracts made on and after 1 September, 1872". This is because the Contract Act applies to contracts that are made on or after 1 September, 1872. The Act does not apply to contracts made before this date or to contracts made before this date but to be enforced after 1 September, 1872. Therefore, the Act only applies to contracts that are made on or after the specified date.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Where there is no express provision in Contract Act, the following prevails and applied for deciding the cases
- A.
The provisions of any law of the land
- B.
The usage of the trade
- C.
The provisions of personal law
- D.
Any of the above if not inconsistent with the provisions of the Contract Act
Correct Answer
D. Any of the above if not inconsistent with the provisions of the Contract ActExplanation
In cases where there is no specific provision in the Contract Act, the decision is made based on the following factors: the provisions of any law of the land, the usage of the trade, and the provisions of personal law. However, any of these factors can only be applied if they are not inconsistent with the provisions of the Contract Act. This means that if any of the above factors conflict with the Contract Act, they cannot be used to decide the case.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The provisions of Indian Contract Act override
- A.
The provisions of Hindu law
- B.
The provisions of Mohammedan law
- C.
Usage or customs of trade
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above" because the provisions of the Indian Contract Act take precedence over the provisions of Hindu law, Mohammedan law, and the usage or customs of trade. This means that if there is any conflict between the Indian Contract Act and these other laws or customs, the provisions of the Indian Contract Act will prevail.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A promises to deliver his watch to B and, in return, B promises to pay a sum of Rs 2,000. This is a/an
- A.
Agreement
- B.
Proposal
- C.
Acceptance
- D.
Offer
Correct Answer
A. AgreementExplanation
The given scenario describes an agreement between A and B. A promises to deliver his watch to B, and in return, B promises to pay a sum of Rs 2,000. Both parties have made mutual promises, indicating that they have reached an agreement.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What comes first in a valid contract is
- A.
Enforceability
- B.
Money
- C.
Force
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. EnforceabilityExplanation
In a valid contract, enforceability is the first and most important factor. It refers to the ability of the parties involved to legally enforce the terms and conditions of the contract. Without enforceability, the contract would not hold any legal weight and would not be binding. Money and force may be relevant factors in certain types of contracts, but they do not come before enforceability in determining the validity of a contract.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Agreement to murder a person
- A.
Cannot be enforceable by law
- B.
Is valid in law
- C.
In invalid for want of consideration
- D.
Has no consensus ad idem
Correct Answer
A. Cannot be enforceable by lawExplanation
An agreement to murder a person cannot be enforceable by law because it is a criminal act and goes against the principles of justice and morality. The law exists to protect individuals and promote the well-being of society, and murder is a serious offense that undermines these principles. Therefore, any agreement or contract related to murder would be considered void and unenforceable.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A promised to pay his son B a sum of Rs 1 lakh if B passed CA exams in the first attempt. B passed the exam in the first attempt, but A failed to pay the amount as promised. B files a sit for recovery of the amount. State whether B can recover the amount under the Indian Contract Act, 1972.
- A.
B can sue A
- B.
B has to pay Rs 1 Lakh to A
- C.
B has no remedy against A
- D.
B has to write the exam again, to claim the reward
Correct Answer
C. B has no remedy against AExplanation
B can sue A for the recovery of the promised amount under the Indian Contract Act, 1972. The Act recognizes the validity of agreements and promises made between parties, and if one party fails to fulfill their promise, the other party has the right to seek legal remedies. In this case, A promised to pay B a sum of Rs 1 lakh if B passed the CA exams in the first attempt. B fulfilled the condition by passing the exam in the first attempt, but A failed to fulfill their promise. Therefore, B can file a suit to recover the amount promised.Rate this question:
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- 33.
All illegal agreement are void; but all void agreements are not illegal.
- A.
True
- B.
Partly True
- C.
False
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
This statement is true because it is a legal principle that all illegal agreements are considered void. This means that they have no legal effect and cannot be enforced by either party. However, not all void agreements are necessarily illegal. There are certain circumstances where an agreement may be void, such as when it is entered into under duress or involves a minor. In these cases, the agreement is void but not illegal. Therefore, it can be concluded that all illegal agreements are void, but not all void agreements are illegal.Rate this question:
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- 34.
An agreement is
- A.
Enforceable by law if it meets the requirements of the law of the land
- B.
Enforceable by law if any one party want it
- C.
Enforceable against the law
- D.
Enforceable by law if it is made by competent parties
Correct Answer
A. Enforceable by law if it meets the requirements of the law of the landExplanation
An agreement is enforceable by law if it meets the requirements of the law of the land. This means that for an agreement to be legally binding, it must fulfill all the necessary legal elements and conditions set by the jurisdiction in which it is being enforced. These requirements may include elements such as offer and acceptance, intention to create legal relations, consideration, and capacity of the parties involved. If an agreement meets these requirements, it can be enforced through legal means.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A contract in which, under the terms of a contract, nothing remains to be done by either party is known as
- A.
Unilateral contract
- B.
Executed contract
- C.
Executory contract
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Executed contractExplanation
An executed contract refers to a contract in which both parties have fulfilled their obligations and nothing remains to be done. In other words, all the terms and conditions of the contract have been completed and both parties have performed their respective duties. This distinguishes it from an executory contract, where one or both parties still have obligations to fulfill. A unilateral contract refers to a contract where only one party is obligated to perform, while the other party has the option to accept or reject the offer. None of the above options accurately describe a contract in which both parties have completed their obligations.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Forbearance of party from doing something also constitutes a valid offer.
- A.
True
- B.
Partly True
- C.
False
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Forbearance refers to the act of refraining from doing something. In contract law, an offer is a proposal made by one party to another with the intention of creating a legal relationship. According to the given statement, if a party refrains from doing something, it can be considered as a valid offer. This means that the act of forbearance can be seen as an offer that can be accepted by the other party, leading to the formation of a contract. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Generally dying declarations are admissible as evidence under-
- A.
Section 20 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
- B.
Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
- C.
Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
- D.
Section 35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Correct Answer
C. Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872Explanation
Dying declarations are statements made by a person who is on the verge of death and is aware of their impending death. These statements are considered to be reliable and trustworthy as the person has no motive to lie or fabricate information. Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, allows for the admissibility of dying declarations as evidence in court. This section states that statements made by a person who is believed to be in a dying condition, regarding the cause of their death or any circumstances leading to their death, are admissible as evidence. Therefore, Section 32 is the correct provision under which dying declarations are admissible.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Accused wants to submit a document for consideration under section 35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In which of the following cases will the document become irrelevant?
- A.
It does not deal with a fact in issue
- B.
It does not deal with a relevant fact
- C.
It is not an entry made in public or other official book, register or record
- D.
It is not an entry made by public servant
Correct Answer
C. It is not an entry made in public or other official book, register or recordExplanation
The document will become irrelevant if it is not an entry made in a public or other official book, register, or record. This means that the document must be a formal record or entry that is made by a public servant or in an official capacity. If the document does not meet this criteria, it cannot be considered as evidence under section 35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.Rate this question:
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- 39.
B, an accused wants to submit carbon copy of the suicide note as secondary evidence. The original is with the opposite party and he has failed to produce the same. The suicide was not within the knowledge of the accused prior to the receipt of carbon copy. Which of the following statements will hold true for the case?
- A.
The evidence cannot be admitted due to applicability of section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
- B.
The evidence cannot be admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of section 64 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
- C.
The evidence cannot be admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
- D.
The evidence can be admitted as it satisfies the requirements of both section 64 and section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Correct Answer
D. The evidence can be admitted as it satisfies the requirements of both section 64 and section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872Explanation
The accused wants to submit the carbon copy of the suicide note as secondary evidence because the original is with the opposite party and they have failed to produce it. In this case, the evidence can be admitted because it satisfies the requirements of both section 64 and section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Section 64 allows secondary evidence to be admitted when the original is in the possession of the opposite party and they fail to produce it. Section 65 states that secondary evidence may be admitted in the absence of the original when it is proved or admitted that the original is in the possession of the opposite party. Therefore, the evidence can be admitted in this case.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with proof of other official documents?
- A.
Section 78
- B.
Section 81
- C.
Section 87
- D.
Section 74
Correct Answer
A. Section 78Explanation
Section 78 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the proof of other official documents. This section states that any document which is required by law to be kept by a public officer, or which any public officer is bound by law to send to or file in a public office, and which is produced from proper custody, shall be presumed to be genuine and accurate. This means that such documents are considered to be reliable evidence in court without the need for further proof.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following statements hold true for section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
- A.
The Court is bound to give leave if the requirements are met
- B.
The witness must be declared hostile before making a plea under this section
- C.
The Court can give the leave under this section suo moto
- D.
All of these
Correct Answer
C. The Court can give the leave under this section suo motoExplanation
Section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 allows the court to give leave (permission) for a party to cross-examine their own witness. The statement that holds true for this section is that the court can give the leave under this section suo moto. This means that the court can grant permission for cross-examination without the party needing to request it.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A person summoned to produce a document-
- A.
Does not become a witness in the case unless he is called as a witness
- B.
Automatically becomes a witness in the case
- C.
Automatically becomes an hostile witness in the case
- D.
Can be cross examined without being called as a witness
Correct Answer
A. Does not become a witness in the case unless he is called as a witnessExplanation
When a person is summoned to produce a document, they do not automatically become a witness in the case. They only become a witness if they are specifically called to testify as a witness. Simply producing a document does not make them a witness, as they are not providing oral testimony or giving their personal account of events.Rate this question:
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- 43.
_________________ section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was inserted by the Criminal law (Amendment) Act, 2013.
- A.
Section 53
- B.
Section 53 A
- C.
Section 119
- D.
Section 119A
Correct Answer
B. Section 53 AExplanation
Section 53A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013. This section specifically deals with the examination of an accused person by a medical practitioner in cases of sexual offenses. It provides guidelines for the medical examination of the accused and the admissibility of the medical report as evidence in court. This amendment was made to ensure a fair and just trial in cases of sexual offenses and to protect the rights of the accused.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to interrogations by a Customs Officer exercising power under Section 171 -A of the Sea Customs Act?
- A.
Section 131
- B.
Section 132
- C.
Section 133
- D.
Section 134
Correct Answer
B. Section 132Explanation
Section 132 of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to interrogations by a Customs Officer exercising power under Section 171-A of the Sea Customs Act. This section deals with the examination of a witness by the party who calls him, and since the question is about the applicability of this section to interrogations by a Customs Officer, it is clear that Section 132 is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 45.
A is tired for a riot and is proved to have marched at the head of a mob. Applying Section 9, Indian Evidence Act:
- A.
The cries of the mob are irrelevant as it does not explain the nature of the transaction
- B.
The cries of the mob are relevant as explanatory of the nature of the transaction
- C.
Either (A) or (B)
- D.
None of them
Correct Answer
B. The cries of the mob are relevant as explanatory of the nature of the transactionExplanation
The cries of the mob are relevant as they provide an explanation of the nature of the transaction. The fact that A marched at the head of a mob indicates that they were actively involved in the riot. The cries of the mob can provide further context and evidence of A's participation and the nature of the riot itself. Therefore, the cries of the mob are relevant in understanding the transaction and A's involvement.Rate this question:
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- 46.
In criminal cases under Section 54, Indian Evidence Act to prove that the defendant committed the crime charged, evidence may not be given that he:
- A.
Bore a bad reputation in the community
- B.
Has a disposition to commit crime of that kind
- C.
Had no other occasions committed particular acts of the same class evincing such disposition
- D.
All of them
Correct Answer
D. All of themExplanation
In criminal cases under Section 54 of the Indian Evidence Act, it is not permissible to present evidence that the defendant bore a bad reputation in the community, has a disposition to commit the crime charged, or had no other occasions committed particular acts of the same class evincing such disposition. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of them" because none of these factors can be used as evidence to prove that the defendant committed the crime charged.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Proviso 1 to Section 33, Indian Evidence Act, not only covers cases of privity in estate and succession of title, but also cases where which of the following condition is met?
- A.
The interest of the relevant party in the second proceeding is the subject matter of the first proceeding and is consistent with and not antagonistic to the interest therein of the relevant party to the first proceeding
- B.
The interest of both in the answer to be given to the particular question in issue in the first proceeding is identical
- C.
Either (A) or (B)
- D.
Both (A) or (B)
Correct Answer
D. Both (A) or (B)Explanation
The correct answer is "Both (A) or (B)". This means that Proviso 1 to Section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act applies when either condition (A) or condition (B) is met. Condition (A) states that the interest of the relevant party in the second proceeding is the subject matter of the first proceeding and is consistent with and not antagonistic to the interest therein of the relevant party to the first proceeding. Condition (B) states that the interest of both parties in the answer to be given to the particular question in issue in the first proceeding is identical. So, if either of these conditions is met, Proviso 1 to Section 33 will apply.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Section 31, Indian Evidence Act declares:
- A.
That admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppels
- B.
Unless admissions are contractual or unless they constitute estoppels they are not conclusive, but are open rebuttal or explanation.
- C.
Either (A) or (B)
- D.
Both (A) and (B)
Correct Answer
D. Both (A) and (B)Explanation
The correct answer is both (A) and (B) because Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act states that admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted. This means that they can be challenged or rebutted. However, admissions can also operate as estoppels, meaning that they can prevent a person from denying a fact that they have previously admitted. Therefore, both options (A) and (B) are correct as they accurately reflect the provisions of Section 31.Rate this question:
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- 49.
According to Hindu Marriage Act marriage is termed as
- A.
A contract
- B.
a sacrament
- C.
Both [A] and [B}
- D.
Only [A]
Correct Answer
B. a sacramentExplanation
According to the Hindu Marriage Act, marriage is considered a sacrament. This means that it is a religious and sacred union between two individuals. In Hinduism, marriage is not just a legal contract, but also a spiritual and divine bond that is believed to be ordained by the gods. The sacramental nature of marriage signifies its importance and significance in Hindu culture and religion.Rate this question:
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- 50.
How to become a Hindu ?
- A.
By conversion
- B.
By re-conversion
- C.
Both [A] and [B]
- D.
Only [A]
Correct Answer
C. Both [A] and [B]Explanation
The correct answer is Both [A] and [B]. This means that one can become a Hindu through conversion or re-conversion. Conversion refers to someone from a different religion choosing to become a Hindu, while re-conversion refers to someone who was previously a Hindu but had converted to another religion and then chooses to return to Hinduism. Both options are valid paths for individuals seeking to become Hindus.Rate this question:
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Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
May 26, 2019Quiz Created by
KanoonSikho
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