Alkem Diabetology (PLS Attempt Quiz Until You Score At Least 90%.)

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| By Alkem Diabetology
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Alkem Diabetology
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 127
Questions: 19 | Attempts: 127

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Alkem Diabetology (PLS Attempt Quiz Until You Score At Least 90%.) - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The Inhibitory activity of Evogliptin was___fold more potent than that of Sitagliptin.

    • A.

      10 Fold

    • B.

      5 Fold

    • C.

      100 Fold

    • D.

      2 Fold

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 Fold
    Explanation
    The inhibitory activity of Evogliptin was 10 times more potent than that of Sitagliptin.

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  • 2. 

    Percentage of Evogliptin excreted via urine____%&Through Hepatic route___%.

    • A.

      50 & 50

    • B.

      34 & 66

    • C.

      30 & 70

    • D.

      40 & 60

    Correct Answer
    B. 34 & 66
  • 3. 

    Half life of Evogliptin______HRS.

    • A.

      30-50 HRS

    • B.

      18-24 HRS

    • C.

      24 HRS

    • D.

      32-39 HRS

    Correct Answer
    D. 32-39 HRS
    Explanation
    The half-life of Evogliptin is the time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body. The correct answer, 32-39 HRS, suggests that it takes between 32 and 39 hours for half of the Evogliptin to be eliminated. This information is important for determining the dosing schedule and frequency of administration of the drug.

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  • 4. 

    Evogliptin is hepatically metabolized and it is neutral to_______enzyme unlike Saxagliptin hence no drug-drug interaction.

    • A.

      CYP1A2

    • B.

      CYP3A4

    • C.

      CYP2C19

    • D.

      CYPA4

    Correct Answer
    B. CYP3A4
    Explanation
    Evogliptin is metabolized in the liver, and it does not affect the activity of CYP3A4 enzyme. This is in contrast to Saxagliptin, which does affect CYP3A4 enzyme. Since both drugs have different effects on this enzyme, there would be no drug-drug interaction between Evogliptin and other drugs that are metabolized by CYP3A4. Therefore, CYP3A4 is the correct answer.

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  • 5. 

    What is the IC50 values of Evogliptin Vs Sitagliptin ?

    • A.

      0.98 nm & 19 nm

    • B.

      0.98 nm & 16.9 nm

    • C.

      7.5 nm &19 nm

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.98 nm & 19 nm
    Explanation
    The IC50 values of Evogliptin and Sitagliptin are 0.98 nm and 19 nm, respectively.

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  • 6. 

    M.R.P. of Valera per Tablet ?

    • A.

      Rs. 23

    • B.

      Rs. 18.75

    • C.

      Rs. 19.75

    • D.

      Rs. 21.85

    Correct Answer
    B. Rs. 18.75
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Rs. 18.75. This is the maximum retail price (M.R.P.) of Valera per tablet.

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  • 7. 

    Which option is true among following?

    • A.

      Evogliptin selectively binds to S1,S2 & S2 extensive sub-units.

    • B.

      Evogliptin selectively binds to S1,S2 sub-units

    • C.

      Evogliptin selectively binds to S1,S2,S1' & S2' extensive sub-units.

    • D.

      Evogliptin selectively binds to S1,S2 & S' sub-units

    Correct Answer
    A. Evogliptin selectively binds to S1,S2 & S2 extensive sub-units.
  • 8. 

    Zilokem CT offers greater BP control vs Olme+HCTZ and the combination lasting for more than 1.3 years.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because Zilokem CT is shown to offer greater blood pressure control compared to Olme+HCTZ, and this effect lasts for more than 1.3 years. This suggests that Zilokem CT is more effective in managing blood pressure over a longer period of time.

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  • 9. 

    Advantage of SMART Technology

    • A.

      Maintain 24hrs concentration and reduces toxicity

    • B.

      Avoid high blood concentration and increased patient compliance

    • C.

      Both  A & B

    • D.

      Only A

    Correct Answer
    C. Both  A & B
    Explanation
    Both options A and B are advantages of SMART (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) technology. SMART technology helps in maintaining 24-hour concentration, which is beneficial for tasks that require continuous focus. It also reduces toxicity, which can be helpful in preventing harm caused by exposure to harmful substances. Additionally, SMART technology can help avoid high blood concentration, which is important for managing medication dosages effectively. Increased patient compliance is another advantage of SMART technology, as it allows for better monitoring and adherence to treatment plans. Therefore, the correct answer is both A and B.

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  • 10. 

    In overweight & obese T2DM with elevated PPG, this indication related which brand ?

    • A.

      Glucoryl MV 1/2 0.3

    • B.

      Glucoryl MV 1/2 

    • C.

      Glucoryl M 1/2/3/4 Forte

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucoryl MV 1/2 0.3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Glucoryl MV 1/2 0.3. This brand is indicated for overweight and obese patients with elevated postprandial glucose (PPG) levels. It is specifically designed to help manage blood sugar levels in individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) who have high PPG. The other options, Glucoryl MV 1/2, Glucoryl M 1/2/3/4 Forte, and None of these, are not specifically indicated for overweight and obese T2DM patients with elevated PPG.

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  • 11. 

    Evogliptin selectively inhibits______enzyme.

    • A.

      DPP-4

    • B.

      DPP-8

    • C.

      DPP-9

    • D.

      DPP-8 & DPP-9

    Correct Answer
    A. DPP-4
    Explanation
    Evogliptin selectively inhibits the DPP-4 enzyme. DPP-4, also known as dipeptidyl peptidase-4, is an enzyme that plays a role in the breakdown of incretin hormones such as GLP-1 and GIP. By inhibiting DPP-4, evogliptin can increase the levels of these hormones, which in turn can enhance insulin secretion and decrease glucagon release, leading to improved glycemic control in patients with type 2 diabetes.

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  • 12. 

    DPP Enzyme stands for

    • A.

      Di-hydro Peptidyl Peptidase

    • B.

      Di-Phenyl Peptidase

    • C.

      Di-Peptidepeptidase

    • D.

      Di-Peptidyl Peptidase

    Correct Answer
    D. Di-Peptidyl Peptidase
    Explanation
    DPP Enzyme stands for Di-Peptidyl Peptidase. This enzyme is responsible for the cleavage of dipeptides from the N-terminus of polypeptides. It plays a crucial role in the digestion of proteins and peptides in the gastrointestinal tract. By breaking down dipeptides into individual amino acids, DPP Enzyme facilitates their absorption and utilization by the body.

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  • 13. 

    The latest gliptin Evogliptin and Alkem has in licensed this product from the South Korea company called as

    • A.

      Daewoo Pharma

    • B.

      Dong Koo

    • C.

      DONG-A ST

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. DONG-A ST
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DONG-A ST. This is because the question mentions that Evogliptin and Alkem have in-licensed the product from a South Korean company. Among the options provided, DONG-A ST is the only South Korean company, making it the most likely answer.

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  • 14. 

    The selectivity of Evogliptin for DPP-4 enzyme is________

    • A.

      >3000

    • B.

      >8000

    • C.

      >6000

    • D.

      >10000

    Correct Answer
    C. >6000
    Explanation
    Evogliptin has a selectivity for the DPP-4 enzyme that is greater than 6000. This means that it has a high affinity for the DPP-4 enzyme compared to other enzymes or targets. A selectivity value greater than 6000 suggests that Evogliptin specifically binds to and inhibits the DPP-4 enzyme, making it an effective therapeutic agent for conditions where DPP-4 inhibition is desired, such as in the treatment of type 2 diabetes.

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  • 15. 

    Valera effectively improved Glycemic control at 24 week and showed similar efficacy to Vildagliptin in 184 indian patients inadequately controlled by metformin. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The given statement is false. The explanation for this is that the statement claims that Valera effectively improved Glycemic control at 24 weeks and showed similar efficacy to Vildagliptin in 184 Indian patients inadequately controlled by metformin. However, without any evidence or data provided, it is not possible to determine the effectiveness of Valera or its comparison to Vildagliptin.

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  • 16. 

    Evogliptin has mild hypoglycemic events,which were lower than Sitagliptin___Vs___ in a 24 week study.

    • A.

      0.8% vs 2.5%

    • B.

      0.9% vs 2.8%

    • C.

      0.2% vs 2%

    • D.

      1% vs 2.6%

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.9% vs 2.8%
    Explanation
    In a 24-week study, Evogliptin had a lower incidence of mild hypoglycemic events compared to Sitagliptin. Specifically, the percentage of patients experiencing mild hypoglycemic events was 0.9% for Evogliptin and 2.8% for Sitagliptin. This suggests that Evogliptin may be a safer option in terms of hypoglycemia compared to Sitagliptin.

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  • 17. 

    As per the ACC/AHA 2016 guideline in ACS Patients post stent implantation, dual platelet therapy should be given for at least 12 month.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    According to the ACC/AHA 2016 guideline, patients who have undergone stent implantation for ACS should receive dual platelet therapy for a minimum of 12 months. This means that they should be given two different types of antiplatelet medications to prevent blood clots and reduce the risk of complications. This guideline is based on evidence and research that shows the benefits of prolonged dual platelet therapy in preventing stent thrombosis and other cardiovascular events. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 18. 

    Indication of Rosukem CV

    • A.

      In Dyslipidemia with ASCVD with risk of MI/Stroke/PAD

    • B.

      In Secondary Prevention

    • C.

      Both A & B

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. In Dyslipidemia with ASCVD with risk of MI/Stroke/PAD
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that Rosukem CV is indicated for individuals with dyslipidemia and a history of ASCVD (atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease) who are at risk of experiencing a heart attack (MI), stroke, or peripheral artery disease (PAD). This medication is specifically recommended for secondary prevention, meaning it is used to prevent further complications in individuals who have already had a cardiovascular event.

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  • 19. 

    Indication of Glucoryl MP 1/2

    • A.

      In overweight & obese type 2 Diabetics.

    • B.

      In overweight & obese type 2 Diabetics with elevated FPG & PPG

    • C.

      In T2DM on dual therapy with uncontrolled FPG & HbA1c

    • D.

      In Obese Uncontrolled T2DM Patients

    Correct Answer
    C. In T2DM on dual therapy with uncontrolled FPG & HbA1c

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 08, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 18, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Alkem Diabetology
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