1.
Exchange server email header information is located here.
Correct Answer
B. PRIV.EDB
Explanation
(Chapter 12) The PRIV.EDB file contains the message headers, message text, and standard attachments. PRIV.STM is for streaming MIME content (video, audio, etc...). PUB.EDB is a database file that stores hierarchies. PRIB.EDB is made up and is incorrect.
2.
UTC stands for:
Correct Answer
B. Coordinated Universal Time
Explanation
(Chapter 6): UTC stands for Coordinated Universal Time. The other choices are made up answers.
3.
The forensic investigator uses this command to see what sessions are open.
Correct Answer
A. Net session
Explanation
(Chapter 8): The net session command can be used to verify users with open sessions and to see all open sessions.
4.
This is a type of anti-forensic technique with malware.
Correct Answer
A. Packing
Explanation
(Chapter 5 and Chapter 11): Many attackers use a packer to try and prevent forensic analysis of the malware. Static analysis is a form of malware analysis. The other two choices are made up and are incorrect.
5.
This does not use OLE.
Correct Answer
C. PDF
Explanation
(Chapter 3): OLE (Object Linking and Embedding) is not used in PDF, but is used in Microsoft Office applications, specifically Word and Excel.
6.
This verifies the file system integrity of a volume, fixes logical file system errors, and is similar to the fsck command in unix.
Correct Answer
B. CHKDSK
Explanation
(Chapter 3): CHKDSK verifies the file system integrity of a volume, fixes logical file system errors, and is similar to the fsck command in Unix. RegEdit (Registry Editor) is used to load registry hives. lsck is made up as is Disk Integrity.
7.
The investigator is looking to detect something after the incident has ended.
Correct Answer
C. Post-mortem analysis
Explanation
(Chapter 7): Investigators perform post-mortem analysis after an incident has already occurred. Real-Time analysis is used while an incident is taking place, so there can be an immediate response. Post-trial and After-action are not mentioned in the ECC text.
8.
A hacker commits a DDoS attack against a specific IP address of a company's Web server. This is considered what type of attack?
Correct Answer
B. Network attack
Explanation
(Chapter 7 and 8): The attack is against a specific IP address and is not exploiting an application vulnerability (notice it shows Web application attack in the other answer), so it would fall under the realm of a network attack. The DDoS attack may also be affecting an IDS, but that is not the true target of the attack described. It could be an APT (Advanced Persistent Threat) group performing the attack, but it could also just be a simple teenager.
9.
What file type is this? FF D8 FF E1
Correct Answer
B. JPEG
Explanation
(Chapter 3): The FF D8 FF is the hex format for JPEG files. BMP starts with 42 4d. GIF starts with 47 49 46. PNG starts with 89 50 4e.
10.
This tasklist command specifies the name or IP address of a remote computer.
Correct Answer
B. /s
Explanation
(Chapter 6): The /s command specifies the name or IP address of a remote computer. The /v specifies that verbose task information be displayed in the output. The /u command runs the command with the account permissions of the specified user. The /r command is made up.
11.
You can use this to see the last access time change for win10
Correct Answer
B. Fsutil
Explanation
(Chapter 6): fsutil can be used to see the last access time change for Windows 10. reg.exe is Window's Console Registry Tool. WMIC stands for Windows Management Instrumentation Command-line, "wmic service" is not valid. devcon (devcon.exe) is a command used in Windows to see details about connected devices.
12.
This displays all commands stored in memory.
Correct Answer
B. Doskey history
Explanation
(Chapter 6): The doskey history displays all commands stored in memory. Regedit is used to edit the System Registry. The memory key command and -l display are made up.
13.
GIF has how many bits per pixel
Correct Answer
C. 8
Explanation
(Chapter 3): GIF has 8 bits per pixel and 256 colors per frame.
14.
Jv16 tool is used for
Correct Answer
C. Registry
Explanation
(Chapter 11): jv16 is a registry tool. It is not used for malware analysis or reversing, and also is not used to make bit copies. Remember that it is not used for malware for your CHFI exam.
15.
You can detect Trojans with which of the following?
Correct Answer
B. Capsa
Explanation
(Chapter 11): Capsa can be used to detect Trojans. Tripwire is for file integrity, Belkasoft RAM Capturer is self-explanatory, and Regshot monitors registry changes.
16.
A web analytics solution for small and medium sized websites.
Correct Answer
B. Deep Log Analyzer
Explanation
(Chapter 8): The Deep Log Analyzer is a web analytics solution for small and medium sized websites. XRY Log is used for mobile device extraction. Clickfunnels is a software used to build sales funnels. LAN Who is made up. There is a LAN Whois, but this is not listed and is not a web analytics solution.
17.
This contains the manufacturer's information
Correct Answer
B. ESN
Explanation
(Chapter 13): The ESN (Electronic Serial Number) has the manufacturer’s code. ICCID (Integrated Circuit Card Identifier) is printed on the SIM to identify the SIM internationally. EIR is made up. IMSI (International Mobile Subscriber Identity) defines the subscriber in the wireless world, including the country and mobile network that the subscriber belongs to.
18.
You can view DBX files in:
Correct Answer
C. MS Outlook Express
Explanation
(Chapter 12): DBX files are viewed with Microsoft Outlook Express. Adobe Acrobat Reader is PDF. Thundercats was a cartoon in the 1980's. Thunderbird does not open DBX files.
19.
When a FAT file is deleted, what is placed at the front?
Correct Answer
B. E5H
Explanation
(Chapter 5): E5H is put at the front of a deleted FAT file. The other answers are incorrect because they do not contain the correct sequence.
20.
This can do data acquisition and duplication.
Correct Answer
B. Drivespy
Explanation
(Chapter 4): Drivespy can do data acquisition and duplication. Wireshark is for network sniffing. Capsa is a network analyzer and can detect Trojans. Xplico is a network forensics analysis tool.
21.
A deleted file in the Recycle Bin is named RIYH6VR.doc. This tells us:
Correct Answer
B. The deleted file is a document file
Explanation
(Chapter 5): We can infer that this is a document file, based on the extension of .doc. Recuva does not leave a particular file name when performing recovery. The other answers do not make sense, since we do not see Dy5, which indicate a file deleted form the Y drive in the 6th order, and since we know this is a document file.
22.
This is an IDS:
Correct Answer
B. Snort
Explanation
(Chapter 8): Snort is a popular IDS. Kismet is for wireless sniffing. Accountix Pro and Nikto 1000 are made up and are incorrect.
23.
The $l file contains all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct Answer
C. The length of the files as 344 bytes long
Explanation
(Chapter 5): The $I file is 544 bytes long. In Windows 7 and Vista, when a file is deleted, it is renamed $R, followed by random characters, then the file extension. At the same time, a $I file is created that contains the same random characters and the same file extension.
24.
This has journaling:
Correct Answer
B. NTFS
Explanation
(Chapter 3): NTFS is the only answer here that offers journaling. EXT3 offers journaling, not EXT1. FAT and FAT32 also do not offer journaling.
25.
A small law firm suspects an incident, where there was potential criminal action, and wants to investigate themselves. Why should they avoid doing so? (choose the best answer)
Correct Answer
B. They may alter the date or timestamp information of the evidence
Explanation
(Chapter 2): The law firm may alter the data, so it will then be inadmissible in a criminal case.
26.
This is part of Metasploit that can be used to hide data in the slack space of FAT and NTFS
Correct Answer
B. Slacker
Explanation
(Note: the only Metasploit tool mentioned in the ECC official material is Timestomp-- used to change the timestamp, mentioned in Chapter 5, but you will likely see Slacker mentioned on the exam. Welcome to ECC exams): Slacker is the tool in Metasploit that will hide data in the slack space of FAT or NTFS file systems, WaffenFS stores data in the EXT3 journal file, FragFS hides data within the NTFS Master file table, RuneFS stores data in bad blocks.
27.
The attorney that calls the witness to the stand is asking the questions
Correct Answer
B. Direct examination
Explanation
(Chapter 14): Direct examination occurs, when the attorney that calls the witness to the stand is asking the questions. Cross-Examination is when the attorney that did not call the witness to the stand is asking the questions. Deposition is not a form of asking questions of a witness. Expert testimony involves direct and cross examination, but is not the definition described in the question.
28.
The first __ bits of the ESN is the manufacturer's code
Correct Answer
B. 8
Explanation
(Chapter 13): The first 8 bits of the ESN is the manufacturer’s code. The other answers are made up and are incorrect.
29.
The linux bootloader is active in this stage
Correct Answer
B. Bootloader stage
Explanation
(Chapter 3): The Linux bootloader (LILO and GRUB) are active in the Bootloader stage as these load the Kernel. GLUC is not a stage of the Linux boot process.
30.
This tool is used to open registry hives
Correct Answer
B. Registry Editor
Explanation
(Chapter 5): Registry Editor is used to open registry hives (hives start with HKEY..). The other answers are made up and are incorrect.
31.
This is the default folder path used for syncing files in Dropbox
Correct Answer
A. C:\Users\$user\Dropbox
Explanation
Chapter 10: The other answers are made up.
32.
These files are located within an instance (n) of Dropbox folder in AppData of the user's profile
Correct Answer
B. Configuration
Explanation
Chapter 10: configuration files are correct. No other files listed are located within the instance.
33.
This contains executables, libraries, Program Files, LiNK files, links of user profiles, and application shortcuts in Dropbox.
Correct Answer
C. Dropbox Client
Explanation
Chapter 10: Dropbox Client is correct. The question asks about Dropbox, so the Google Client answer is obviously incorrect. Dropbox.dbl is made up and Program File is also incorrect.
34.
Dropbox Client path:
Correct Answer
A. C:\Program Files(x86)\Dropbox\Client
Explanation
Chapter 10: The other paths are made up.
35.
These store information of files synced ot the cloud using Dropbox.
Correct Answer
C. Filecache.dbx and config.dbx
Explanation
Chapter 10: While config.dbx is correct Filesystem.dbx is not. The other answers are made up.
36.
The default Google Drive installation location in win10 OS
Correct Answer
A. C:\Program Files (x86)\Google\Drive
Explanation
Chapter 10: The other answers are made up paths.
37.
These are saved in the installation folder in the user profile for Google Drive
Correct Answer
B. Configuration files
Explanation
Chapter 10: Configuration files is correct. The other files are not saved in the installation folder.
38.
Google Drive Configuration files are stored at this path:
Correct Answer
C. C:\Users\<username>\AppData\Local\Google\Drive\user_default
Explanation
Chapter 10: The other answers are made up.
39.
This contains the Google Drive version, the local sync root path, and user's email address
Correct Answer
C. Sync_config.db
Explanation
Chapter 10: Sync_config.db is correct. The sync_config.db stores details about local entry and cloud entry along with snapshot.db. config.db is made up.
40.
The installation of Google Drive Client Version in Windows 10 creates this (choose the best answer):
Correct Answer
B. Sync_log.log
Explanation
Chapter 10: The Sync_log.log file is created. This file contains information about the client sync session. Problems is wrong for obvious reasons. The other two answers are made up.
41.
RAPID IMAGE 7020 X2 is designed to copy how many “Master” hard drives?
Correct Answer
B. One
Explanation
(Chapter 2 and Chapter 4-- both have the same information): RAPID IMAGE 7020 X2 is designed to copy 1 Master hard drive and up to 19 Target hard drives. The other answers are incorrect, based on Chapter 2 of the EC-Council material.
42.
This rule covers limited admissibility
Correct Answer
C. Rule 105
Explanation
(Chapter 1): Rule 105 covers limited admissibility. Rule 402 covers the general admissibility of relevant evidence. Rule 103 is for the rulings on evidence. Rule 401 is not mentioned in the ECC text.
43.
Which one do you like?Max has arrived on scene and sees that the computer is turned on. His first step should be to (choose the best answer):``
Correct Answer
C. pHotograpH the current computer state
Explanation
(Chapter 2): The computer must be photographed to show its state before evidence is gathered. Powering off the computer is not the answer, since if the computer is on, we always leave it on. The other answers are incorrect because they are later steps in the investigation.
44.
Samuel has completed static analysis of a new malware strain. He is now going to perform dynamic analysis. Which tool can he use to monitor for installations, while performing dynamic analysis?
Correct Answer
B. Sysanalyzer
Explanation
(Chapter 11): SysAnalyzer is used for dynamic malware analysis, specifically for monitoring installations, like Comodo Program Manager also does. jv16 is used for Registry. You want to know that for your exam. Data Recovery Pro and Stellar Phoenix are used for file recovery and not malware analysis.
45.
This tool displays details about GPT partition tables in Mac OS
Correct Answer
D. Disk Utility
Explanation
(chapter 3): Disk Utility is the only selection that displays details about partition tables in Mac. VFS Rider is a made up tool. DiskDrill can recover from corrupted memory cards. File Salvage is also a Mac tool, but is used for file recovery.
46.
Nasir is needing to recover lost data from RAID. He knows that this tool will be needed.
Correct Answer
A. Total Recall
Explanation
(Chapter 5): Total Recall is used for RAID. Comodo Programs Manager is used for dynamic malware analysis. DiskDigger offers thumbnail previews of recovered files. Advanced Disk Recovery offers the Quick and Deep scans.
47.
Jennifer is an investigator with the FBI. She is performing dynamic analysis on malware and wants to know the dependencies. What tool should she use?
Correct Answer
C. Dependency walker
Explanation
(Chapter 11): Dependency Walker is the correct answer. Dependency Crawler is made up. jv16 is used for Registry. Xplico is a network forensics analysis tool.
48.
Which wondows version can use uefi-gpt or bios-mbr
Correct Answer
B. 10
Explanation
(Chapter 3): Windows 8 and later boot with either UEFI-GPT or BIOS-MBR. Windows XP, Vista, and 7 boot with BIOS-MBR.
49.
This tool can recover deleted files emptied from the Recycle Bin, or lost because of the formatting/corruption of a hard drive, virus or Trojan infection, and unexpected system shutdowns.
Correct Answer
C. Recover My Files
Explanation
(Chapter 2): Recover My files is correct. File Salvage is a Mac Tool. DiskDigger recovers from hard drives, memory cards, and USB. Recuva offers the Advanced Deep Scan.
50.
David is looking for a tool that contains an ISO image, so he can burn a bootable CD. What tool is he looking for?
Correct Answer
B. Active@ File Recovery
Explanation
(Chapter 5): Active@ File Recovery is the only answer here that contains a CD/DVD ISO image that allows you to burn a bootable CD.