3DX7X Vol 1 UREs 2019
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- 1.
(001) Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test?
- A.
Computer Systems Programming
- B.
Cyber Systems Operations
- C.
Cyber Transport Systems
- D.
Cyber Surety
Correct Answer
A. Computer Systems ProgrammingExplanation
The correct answer is Computer Systems Programming because this specialty code specifically deals with programming and requires members to have knowledge and skills in electronic data processing. Passing the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test would ensure that the members have the necessary proficiency in this area. The other specialty codes listed do not have a direct focus on programming or electronic data processing.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level?
- A.
Minimum rank of SSgt
- B.
6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees
- C.
Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements
- D.
Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses
Correct Answer
D. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training coursesExplanation
The completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level. The other options, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees, and completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement to the 7-skill level.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(001) Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
- A.
Communications Focal Point
- B.
Unit Deployment Monitor
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk
- D.
Quality Assurance
Correct Answer
A. Communications Focal PointExplanation
The Communications Focal Point function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission. This means that the personnel working in this function may have different specialties depending on the specific needs and requirements of the unit they are serving.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(001) What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
- A.
TO 00–5–15
- B.
MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA
- C.
Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory
- D.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II
Correct Answer
B. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WAExplanation
The document that directs the Communications Focal point key processes is MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(002) Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized
- A.
At major command functional managers
- B.
At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)
- C.
At the Air Force Personnel Center
- D.
With career field managers
Correct Answer
B. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF)Explanation
The correct answer is "at Headquarters Air Force (HAF)". This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the headquarters of the Air Force. This suggests that decisions and strategies related to manpower planning and programming are made at the highest level of the Air Force command structure.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(002) Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?
- A.
Program Element Code (PEC)
- B.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD)
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR)
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
Correct Answer
B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD)Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized positions within the organization, including the number of personnel required for each position and the specific duties and responsibilities associated with each position. The UMD helps the organization effectively manage its manpower resources by ensuring that the right number of personnel are in the right positions at all times.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(002) Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
- A.
Program Element Code (PEC)
- B.
Special Experience Identifier (SEI)
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR)
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR)
Correct Answer
A. Program Element Code (PEC)Explanation
Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. It is a unique code that identifies and tracks specific elements of a program's budget. The PEC helps in organizing and categorizing costs associated with different aspects of the program, such as research, development, production, and sustainment. By using PECs, program managers can effectively monitor and control costs, allocate resources, and make informed decisions about budgeting and funding priorities.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(003) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
- A.
Construct career paths
- B.
Manage skill-level training requirements
- C.
Establish requirements for entry into the career field
- D.
Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)
Correct Answer
D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM)Explanation
The responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is to oversee and manage various aspects of a specific career field within the Air Force. This includes constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or manpower offices within the MAJCOM.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
MAJCOM director of Communications (A6)
- B.
MAJCOM Functional Manager
- C.
Career Field Manager (CFM)
- D.
SAF/CIO A6
Correct Answer
B. MAJCOM Functional ManagerExplanation
The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). They are responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the training requirements and utilization needs of the career field are met. The MAJCOM Functional Manager has the knowledge and expertise in the specific career field to effectively participate in these meetings and make informed decisions on behalf of the MAJCOM.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(003) Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?
- A.
Segment 1
- B.
Segment 2
- C.
Segment 3
- D.
Segment 4
Correct Answer
B. Segment 2Explanation
Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment focuses on assessing the proficiency levels of individuals and determining the resources needed for their training. It involves evaluating the current training capabilities and identifying any gaps or deficiencies in training resources. By addressing these issues, Segment 2 ensures that the necessary training is provided to achieve the desired proficiency levels and effectively allocate training resources.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(003) Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
Draft and sign minutes
- B.
Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)
- C.
Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description
- D.
Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses
Correct Answer
D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all coursesExplanation
The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to career field education and training. These actions include drafting and signing minutes, finalizing part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and finalizing the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. However, the team is not responsible for finalizing Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(003) Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)
- B.
AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer
- C.
Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)
- D.
MAJCOM Functional Manager
Correct Answer
B. AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writerExplanation
The AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This means that their attendance is not required but they have the option to attend if they choose to.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(003) What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)
- B.
Quality Training Package (QTP)
- C.
Subject Matter Experts (SME)
- D.
Job Quality Standards (JQS)
Correct Answer
A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR)Explanation
The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the tasks, knowledge, and skills required for a particular career field, which serves as the foundation for developing the CFETP and STS. The CFETP outlines the training and education requirements for individuals in the career field, while the STS provides detailed information on the specific training standards and objectives.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(004) What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
- A.
Remedy
- B.
Situational Report (SITREP)
- C.
Telephone Management System (TMS)
- D.
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)
Correct Answer
D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is the correct answer because it is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). IMDS is a comprehensive database that allows users to track and manage maintenance actions, including documentation of actions taken on items with SRDs. Remedy is a separate system used for tracking and resolving IT service requests, SITREP is a report used to provide situational information, and TMS is a system used for managing telephone communications.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(004) Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?
- A.
Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly
- B.
Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)
- C.
Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL)
- D.
Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions
Correct Answer
B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR)Explanation
The MDC monitor is responsible for reviewing IMDS reports, matching reports with OIL, and scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions. However, ensuring equipment status is entered into ESR is not listed as a common duty of the MDC monitor.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(004) Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
- A.
Communications Focal Point
- B.
Flight Commander/Chief
- C.
Production Controller
- D.
Commander
Correct Answer
B. Flight Commander/ChiefExplanation
The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. This includes creating and implementing procedures and protocols to ensure that inspections are conducted regularly and in accordance with established standards. The Flight Commander/Chief is also responsible for overseeing the inspection process and ensuring that any necessary corrective actions are taken. By establishing these controls, the Flight Commander/Chief helps to ensure the safety and compliance of the organization's operations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(005) Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?
- A.
Master Task List
- B.
Job Qualification Standard
- C.
Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
- D.
Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion
Correct Answer
B. Job Qualification StandardExplanation
The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires specific job qualifications, the Job Qualification Standard will be included in the Master Training Plan to ensure that personnel are trained and qualified for their roles. However, if the work center does not have any specific job qualification requirements, the Job Qualification Standard may not be included in the Master Training Plan.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(005) Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?
- A.
30
- B.
60
- C.
90
- D.
120
Correct Answer
D. 120Explanation
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that after the ARC personnel have received and started using the new equipment or system, their performance and suitability for the specific tasks related to the equipment/system will be evaluated within 120 days. This evaluation is necessary to ensure that the personnel are properly trained and competent in using the new equipment/system.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(006) Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare
- B.
Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission
- C.
Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities
- D.
Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost
Correct Answer
D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible costExplanation
The goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM) is to enhance mission effectiveness, integrate ORM into mission processes, and create a culture where everyone is trained and motivated to manage risk. However, the statement "Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost" does not align with the goals of ORM. It suggests actively seeking ways to decrease effectiveness, which goes against the purpose of ORM to preserve assets and safeguard health and welfare.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(006) How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks in an organization's operations. It typically consists of six steps: identification of hazards, assessment of risks, development of controls and countermeasures, decision-making, implementation of controls, and supervision and review. Therefore, the correct answer is 6.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(006) Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
- A.
AF Form 55
- B.
AF Form 971
- C.
AF Form 623A
- D.
AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 55Explanation
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting individual training and is used to track an individual's training history. It provides a standardized format for recording training information, including the type of training, date completed, and the name and signature of the person conducting the training. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can easily keep track of their subordinates' safety training and ensure that all required training is completed and documented.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(006) Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
- A.
Job Safety Training (JST)
- B.
Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)
- C.
Task Hazard Analysis (THA)
- D.
Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA)
Correct Answer
A. Job Safety Training (JST)Explanation
The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis is a systematic process used to identify and analyze potential hazards associated with a specific job or task. The correct terms for Job Safety Analysis are Job Hazard Analysis (JHA), Task Hazard Analysis (THA), and Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA). These terms refer to different approaches or variations of the same process of analyzing job hazards. However, "Job Safety Training (JST)" does not specifically refer to the analysis of job hazards, but rather focuses on the training aspect of job safety.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(007) Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?
- A.
Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures
- B.
Resources required to manage and use TOs
- C.
Infrastructure to manage and use TOs
- D.
Training to manage and use TOs
Correct Answer
A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) proceduresExplanation
The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. The other options, such as resources required to manage and use TOs, infrastructure to manage and use TOs, and training to manage and use TOs, are all included in TO 00-5-1.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(007) Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on
- A.
AFTO Form 673
- B.
AFTO Form 22
- C.
AF Form 673
- D.
AF Form 22
Correct Answer
B. AFTO Form 22Explanation
AFTO Form 22 is the correct answer because it is the designated form for submitting recommended technical order (TO) changes. AFTO Form 673 and AF Form 673 are not relevant to TO changes, and AF Form 22 is also not the appropriate form for this purpose.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(007) Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?
- A.
Library Custodian
- B.
Flight commander/chief
- C.
Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)
- D.
Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)
Correct Answer
B. Flight commander/chiefExplanation
The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the needs of the equipment and ensure that the necessary checklists and work cards are in place to maintain and operate the equipment effectively.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(007) Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?
- A.
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
- B.
American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
- C.
Information and Communications Technology (ICT)
- D.
Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)
Correct Answer
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI)Explanation
The American National Standard Institute (ANSI) provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including telecommunications. Their accreditation ensures that TIA meets certain criteria and standards in their operations and services.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(007) Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
- A.
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
- B.
American National Standard Institute (ANSI)
- C.
Information and Communications Technology (ICT)
- D.
Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)
Correct Answer
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)Explanation
The correct answer is Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(007) Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?
- A.
The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR)
- B.
Commander/director responsible for the guidance
- C.
The authoring OPR’s supervisor
- D.
Publications Manager
Correct Answer
C. The authoring OPR’s supervisorExplanation
The authoring OPR's supervisor should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official because they are responsible for overseeing the work of the authoring OPR and ensuring its accuracy and compliance with guidelines.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(007) What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?
- A.
Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI)
- B.
Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)
- C.
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)
- D.
Military only
Correct Answer
C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS)Explanation
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems. This means that COTS systems are widely used and accepted in both the government and private sectors, making them easily understood and maintained by different organizations. Additionally, COTS systems are typically built with security measures in place, making them defendable against potential threats. Overall, using COTS systems ensures consistency and reliability across different systems and organizations.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(008) The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title
- A.
10
- B.
15
- C.
37
- D.
50
Correct Answer
A. 10Explanation
The correct answer is 10. The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10. This code outlines the role and responsibilities of the Department of Defense and provides the legal basis for its existence.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(008) Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title
- A.
15
- B.
18
- C.
32
- D.
37
Correct Answer
C. 32Explanation
The correct answer is 32. The procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32. This code outlines the specific guidelines and requirements for the activation of units by Congress. It is important for Congress to have a clear framework in place to ensure that the decision to activate units is made in a lawful and appropriate manner.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(008) Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?
- A.
Wing Commander
- B.
Numbered Air Force Commander
- C.
Communications Squadron Commander
- D.
Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander
Correct Answer
A. Wing CommanderExplanation
The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual has the authority to select individuals who will be in charge of managing and publishing content on these websites.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(008) When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
- A.
Misuse of position
- B.
Covered relationships
- C.
Non-public information
- D.
Personal conflict of interest
Correct Answer
A. Misuse of positionExplanation
When a person uses their position for personal gain, it is considered a misuse of their position. This means that they are exploiting their authority or influence for their own benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of their organization or the public. This behavior is unethical and can lead to negative consequences, such as damage to the organization's reputation or legal repercussions.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(009) Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
- A.
Military Personnel (MILPERS)
- B.
Military Construction (MILCON)
- C.
Operation and Maintenance (O&M)
- D.
Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E)
Correct Answer
B. Military Construction (MILCON)Explanation
MILCON funds are specifically allocated for the construction, expansion, or relocation of military facilities. This includes the cost of relocating facilities to better serve military operations. MILCON funds are separate from other types of funds, such as MILPERS (which covers personnel costs), O&M (which covers day-to-day operations), and RDT&E (which covers research and development). Therefore, MILCON is the correct answer for covering the cost of relocating facilities.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(009) What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
- A.
$100,000
- B.
$250,000
- C.
$750,000
- D.
$1,000,000
Correct Answer
C. $750,000Explanation
Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(009) In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)
- A.
10–401
- B.
33–360
- C.
38–101
- D.
64–117
Correct Answer
D. 64–117Explanation
The correct answer is 64–117. This is because Air Force Instruction (AFI) 64–117 provides in-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(009) At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?
- A.
Approval Official (AO)
- B.
Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)
- C.
DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO)
- D.
Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC)
Correct Answer
B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC)Explanation
The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring of the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They oversee the day-to-day operations of the program, ensuring compliance with regulations and guidelines, providing training to cardholders and approving officials, and monitoring card usage to prevent misuse or fraud. The A/OPC acts as a liaison between the installation and higher-level program management offices, ensuring effective communication and coordination of program activities.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(009) Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?
- A.
Making authorized transactions
- B.
Reconciling transactions
- C.
Logging transactions
- D.
Funds accountability
Correct Answer
D. Funds accountabilityExplanation
The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This means that GPC cardholders are not responsible for tracking and managing the funds associated with the purchases made using the GPC. This responsibility typically falls on the finance or accounting department within the government organization.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(009) Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in
- A.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201
- B.
Joint Publication 1–02
- C.
Joint Publication 1–03
- D.
AFI 10–401
Correct Answer
D. AFI 10–401 -
- 40.
(010) Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?
- A.
Air Force Chief of Staff
- B.
Secretary of the Air Force
- C.
Selected major command Command Chiefs
- D.
Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Chief of StaffExplanation
After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the Air Force and is responsible for overseeing the entire organization. Their review ensures that the selections align with the overall goals and objectives of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(010) Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?
- A.
Wing
- B.
Group
- C.
Squadron
- D.
Major command
Correct Answer
A. WingExplanation
The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is at the Wing level. The options provided are different levels within the military hierarchy, and the Wing is typically higher in rank than the Group, Squadron, and major command. Therefore, it is the most likely level at which quarterly awards would be presented.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(010) Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction
- A.
36–2604
- B.
36–2803
- C.
36–2805
- D.
36–2845
Correct Answer
D. 36–2845 -
- 43.
(010) What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?
- A.
1 October - 30 September
- B.
1 January - 31 December
- C.
1 April - 31 March
- D.
1 July - 30 June
Correct Answer
A. 1 October - 30 SeptemberExplanation
The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a full year, starting in October and ending in September of the following year.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(011) The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to
- A.
53
- B.
63
- C.
73
- D.
83
Correct Answer
B. 63Explanation
A FireWire bus can support a maximum of 63 devices. This means that you can connect up to 63 devices, such as external hard drives, cameras, or audio interfaces, to a FireWire bus. This limit is determined by the design and specifications of the FireWire technology, which allows for a certain number of devices to be connected and communicate with each other simultaneously.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(011) What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
- A.
Monitor
- B.
Scanner
- C.
Keyboard
- D.
Graphics card
Correct Answer
C. KeyboardExplanation
A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, also known as key switches, are responsible for sending electrical signals to the computer when a key is pressed. The circuit board is designed in a way that each key corresponds to a specific switch, allowing the user to input characters and commands into the computer. Therefore, a keyboard fits the description of a device with a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(012) A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?
- A.
At least 5
- B.
No more than 10
- C.
No more than 20
- D.
20 or more
Correct Answer
C. No more than 20Explanation
A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers that typically consists of a smaller number of computers. It is not specified exactly how many computers are in a workgroup, but it is stated that it is "no more than 20." This means that a workgroup can have a maximum of 20 computers, but it could also have fewer than that. Therefore, the correct answer is "No more than 20."Rate this question:
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- 47.
(012) Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?
- A.
Simple
- B.
Relative
- C.
Positive
- D.
Absolute
Correct Answer
C. PositiveExplanation
The term "Positive" is not a recognized type of UNIX pathname. The other options, Simple, Relative, and Absolute, are all valid types of UNIX pathnames.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(012) Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?
- A.
Norton Utilities
- B.
Acrobat Reader
- C.
Virus Scan
- D.
WinZip
Correct Answer
A. Norton UtilitiesExplanation
Norton Utilities includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It is a software suite that offers various tools for optimizing and maintaining computer performance. One of the features of Norton Utilities is the ability to recover lost files, whether they have been accidentally deleted or lost due to a system failure. Additionally, Norton Utilities provides tools for diagnosing and repairing common computer issues, as well as optimizing system performance and protecting against malware and other threats.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(013) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
- A.
High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)
- B.
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
- C.
Distance Vector and Link State
- D.
RS–232 and RS–530
Correct Answer
B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)Explanation
The correct answer is Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The IEEE divides the OSI Data Link Layers into these two sublayers. The LLC sublayer is responsible for flow control, error control, and framing, while the MAC sublayer is responsible for addressing and accessing the media. These two sublayers work together to provide a reliable and efficient data link layer protocol.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(013) Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
- A.
Network
- B.
Physical
- C.
Data Link
- D.
Transport
Correct Answer
C. Data LinkExplanation
Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on a network. Switches and bridges use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN). They examine the destination MAC address of incoming packets and forward them only to the appropriate port where the destination device is connected. This helps to optimize network performance and prevent unnecessary broadcast of data packets.Rate this question:
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 29, 2019Quiz Created by
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